1060 Unit 2

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Questions and Answers

What substances are found in the secretions of an individual with the genotype "lele, Se, A/B/H?"

  • None
  • A, B, H (correct)
  • Le<sup>a</sup>
  • Le<sup>a</sup>, Le<sup>b</sup>, A, B, H

Which of the following genotypes results in an individual with red cells that phenotypically express Le(a-b-)?

  • lele, sese, A/B/H (correct)
  • Le, sese, A/B/H
  • Le, Se, hh, A/B
  • Le, Se, A/B/H

Which characteristic is associated with Lewis antibodies? ("Mahoy! Mmm!")

  • Not enhanced by enzymes
  • Generally IgM (correct)
  • Incapable of binding complement
  • Typically IgG

A pregnant woman's Lewis ANTIGEN expression is likely to be:

<p>Weaker than normal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the approximate frequency of the Le(a+b-) phenotype in the white population?

<p>22% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is associated with P1 antigens?

<p>They deteriorate rapidly during storage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is true regarding the expression of P antigen during fetal development?

<p>A fetus has the antigen at 12 weeks, but weakens as the fetus develops. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical nature of naturally occurring anti-N?

<p>IgM or IgG, cold-reactive, saline agglutinin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action when providing units for a patient with anti-P1?

<p>Provide units that are crossmatch compatible at 37°C and Coombs phase regardless of P1 status. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical condition is NOT typically associated with anti-P1?

<p>Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What exposure has been linked to the development of clinically significant anti-P1 in P2 individuals?

<p>Bird handling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do I and i antigen expression change from birth to adulthood?

<p>At birth, red cells are rich in i with I almost undetectable; during the first 18 months of life i decreases until adult proportions of I are reached. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which immunoglobulin class is MOST commonly associated with antibodies in the Kidd blood group system? (Grabby, greedy Kidds!)

<p>IgG (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group system's antibodies are MOST likely to bind complement? (Think of it as clingy, grabby like a greedy little... )

<p>Kidd (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the frequency of I and i antigens in the general population?

<p>I and i are both high-frequency antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group system produces antibodies that react best with Coombs (AHG), do not usually bind complement, and can be destroyed by enzymes?

<p>Duffy (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group system listed is considered 'insignificant' in the context of Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (HTR) and Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)? (Insignificant because nearly everybody's got it)

<p>I (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In testing, antibodies from which of the following blood group systems are MOST likely to show enhanced reactivity with enzyme-treated red cells?

<p>Rh (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of a blood group system?

<p>Antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus or closely linked loci with rare crossing over. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do regulator or modifying genes have on antigen expression?

<p>They alter the expression of antigens. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In blood group terminology, how are GENES typically represented?

<p>Underlined or italicized. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which blood group SYSTEM is unique because its antigens are NOT manufactured by the red blood cell?

<p>Lewis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What enzyme does the Lewis (Le) gene code for?

<p>A glycosyltransferase (L-fucosyltransferase). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which precursor chain type does the L-fucose transfer reaction occur on due to the inheritance of the Le gene?

<p>Type 1 chain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is secreted by a nonsecretor (sese) regarding Lewis antigens?

<p>Lea substance regardless of secretor status (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is needed for the expression of Leb substance?

<p>The Le and Se genes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the genetic interaction required to produce Leb antigen?

<p>Interaction between Le(FUT3) and Se(FUT2) genes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What genetic factor leads to the Le(a-b-) phenotype?

<p>Specific point mutations in the Le gene (lele genotype). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why can the Duffy system pose challenges in blood banking?

<p>Duffy antigens deteriorate during storage, and inhibitory substances weaken antibody reactivity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the Duffy blood group system's relationship to malaria?

<p>The Duffy antigens Fya and Fyb are necessary for <em>Plasmodium vivax</em> to invade red blood cells. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a typical characteristic of Kidd antibodies?

<p>Kidd antibodies show dosage effects but often appear weak and can decline rapidly in titer. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a notable characteristic of the Lutheran blood group system?

<p>The Lutheran system includes antigens with high and very low frequencies, which generally do not cause many blood bank problems. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does anti-Lua typically present in laboratory testing?

<p>Anti-Lua is often naturally occurring, causing saline agglutination at room temperature. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant clinical consideration regarding anti-Fyb?

<p>Anti-Fyb is 20 times less common than anti-Fya and is often found in combination with other antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of Dia antigen within the Diego blood group system?

<p>Dia is rare in most populations but shows polymorphism in people of Mongoloid ancestry. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a defining feature of individuals with the Lu null phenotype? [Lu(a-b-)]

<p>Lu null is a homozygous &quot;silent&quot; phenotype that produces no antigens, but also suppresses P1 and i expression. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes Duffy antigens?

<p>They are destroyed by ficin and papain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the clinical significance of Kidd antibodies in transfusion medicine?

<p>They commonly cause delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions, which can be severe, and are implicated in HDFN. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of enhancement reagents in the context of antigen-antibody reactions?

<p>To promote antigen-antibody binding, decreasing incubation time and increasing sensitivity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When performing an antibody screening panel, why is washing the cells with saline important?

<p>To remove anything that could inhibit agglutination, and to remove unbound antibody (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of Coombs control RBCs (check cells) in antihuman globulin (AHG) testing?

<p>To confirm that the AHG reagent is active and the test system is working properly by causing agglutination. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which LISS (low ionic strength saline) enhances antibody detection?

<p>By increasing the rate at which antibodies bind to RBC antigens. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of antihuman globulin reagents, why do most laboratories prefer to use monospecific reagents over polyspecific reagents?

<p>Monospecific reagents reduce interference from naturally occurring cold agglutinins and address controversy about the clinical significance of complement-binding antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a positive auto control indicate when evaluating antibody panel results?

<p>The presence of an autoantibody, which may mask an alloantibody (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be assessed to determine if antibodies can be ruled out during an evaluation?

<p>Reactivity of the patient's serum with an RBC sample carrying the corresponding antigen (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase(s) of testing is significant when interpreting positive reactions in antibody panels?

<p>IS, 37°C, and/or AHG phases (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of finding an exact match between serum reactivity and antigen specificity during an evaluation?

<p>Only a single alloantibody is present (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the '3 + 3 rule' refer to in the context of antibody evaluation?

<p>Three antigen-positive cells should react with the serum and three antigen-negative cells should not react (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using screening cells in antibody detection?

<p>To detect unexpected antibodies (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes alloantibodies?

<p>Antibodies arising from exposure to non-self antigens (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is essential for REAGENT red blood cells used in antibody testing?

<p>They should be phenotyped for significant RBC antigens (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are Group O RBCs typically used in antibody screening as reagent RBCs?

<p>They lack both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of a positive autologous control indicate?

<p>Patient has a positive DAT or free autoantibody. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antibodies are known to show dosage effects?

<p>Anti-Jka and anti-Jkb (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of immune response typically triggers the production of unexpected antibodies?

<p>Transfusion with incompatible blood (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step follows the addition of Coombs control cells in antibody testing?

<p>Centrifuge and check for agglutination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected test outcome if the antigen of interest is not present on the RBCs?

<p>No antibodies will be detected (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the antibody panel evaluation help determine?

<p>The specificity of antibodies in a serum sample. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the implications of detecting more than one screening cell sample that reacts similarly?

<p>It suggests there may be both auto and alloantibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the challenges associated with antibody identification once detected?

<p>Not all antibodies have recognized and consistent testing methods (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a limitation of antibody screening tests?

<p>They are designed to detect significant RBC antibodies only. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what phase of testing can hemolysis or mixed-field agglutination be observed?

<p>At any phase of the antibody screening tests. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which acronym stands for a phase of the antbody testing process related to enhancement?

<p>Eat (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of red blood cells are used in the antibody panel to evaluate specificity?

<p>Reagent red blood cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely consequence of failing to properly identify a patient before transfusion?

<p>Clerical error leading to transfusion deaths (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information is REQUIRED on a transfusion request form according to AABB standards?

<p>Patient's first and last name and Hospital number (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of pretransfusion testing, what is a limitation that cannot be overcome by current procedures?

<p>Preventing all alloimmunization to red blood cell antigens (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first step to selecting blood for a patient?

<p>Identification of the patient and donor and collection of appropriate samples for testing (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important that information such as sex, age, diagnosis, and history be included on request forms?

<p>Helpful information can aid in the testing and selection process (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the greatest threat to safe transfusion therapy?

<p>Clerical errors (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information must be verified just before performing a blood infusion?

<p>Patient re-identification (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must be weighed against potential risks?

<p>Transfusion benefits (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first course of action when incompatibilities are noted during pretransfusion compatibility testing?

<p>Review the patient's and donor's ABO grouping. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient's antibody screening is negative, but one donor unit is incompatible, what is the most likely cause?

<p>The patient has a low incident antibody. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A positive auto control in pretransfusion testing indicates the likely presence of which of the following?

<p>Autoantibody in the patient’s serum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before collecting a patient sample, which action is MOST critical?

<p>Comparing the requisition form with the patient's identification. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is not a potential cause of false-positive pretransfusion testing results?

<p>Use of expired reagents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST suitable course of action if a patient lacks a wristband, and their identity is uncertain before sample collection?

<p>Attach some form of positive identification to the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an emergency blood release scenario, which type of blood should be given first?

<p>O negative units. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to avoid hemolysis when collecting patient samples, as indicated in the guidelines?

<p>Hemolysis can mask activation of complement by antigen/antibody complexes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pretransfusion testing is typically not required for which of the following blood products?

<p>Plasma products. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If testing for complement, which type of blood sample is preferred according to the guidelines?

<p>Serum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is plasma NOT suitable for testing complement activity?

<p>Small fibrin clots in plasma can be difficult to distinguish from agglutination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For neonatal transfusions, blood should be compatible with:

<p>Any maternal antibodies reactive at 37°C or AHG that have entered the infant’s circulation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guidelines, at which stage should tubes be labeled during the sample collection process?

<p>At the patient's bedside. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key requirement for blood used in intrauterine transfusions?

<p>It must be compatible with maternal antibodies capable of crossing the placenta. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When labeling sample tubes, what information MUST the phlebotomist include?

<p>Patient’s full name, hospital ID number, date of sample collection, and phlebotomist's initials. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a sample must sit for a period of time before testing can occur, under what conditions should a sample be stored?

<p>Stoppered and kept at 1 to 6°C. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an antiglobulin crossmatch test, what does a smooth button edge and swirling free cells typically indicate?

<p>A negative reaction, often read microscopically. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following crossmatch procedures involves mixing the patient's serum and donor cells and centrifuging immediately?

<p>Immediate Spin Crossmatch (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is violent shaking or tapping of tubes avoided when interpreting crossmatch results?

<p>It can cause a false negative reaction. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of labeling tubes in crossmatching procedures?

<p>To ensure the contents can be identified at any stage of the process. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of computer crossmatching, what action must the computer system perform if it identifies a discrepancy between the patient's two ABO groups entered?

<p>Alerts the technologist to investigate and resolve the discrepancy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Patients undergoing surgical procedures in which blood is unlikely to be used still require which procedures?

<p>Type and screen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the immediate spin crossmatch?

<p>Mixing patient's serum and donor cells and centrifuge immediately (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why was the minor crossmatch eliminated?

<p>Low incident antibody in donor will probably not cause a transfusion reaction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do single screening cells offer more sensitivity in antibody screening?

<p>Each vial (donor) has been phenotyped for each antigen which ensures detection of a wider range of antibodies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following antigens are required on at least one of the vials used for antibody screening?

<p>D, C, E, c, e, M, N, S, s, P 1 , Lea , Leb , K, k, Jka , Jkb , Fya and Fyb (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important that one sample in each set of screening cells carry the products of homozygous genes for Jk a and c?

<p>Homozygous expression guarantees strong reactivity, aiding in the detection of weak antibodies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is more sensitive antibody testing required for individuals with known antibodies or unexplained transfusion reactions?

<p>To detect low-titer antibodies that may not be initially apparent under standard testing conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of blood can be safely transfused into a patient with blood type AB?

<p>A, B, or O packed cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an emergency situation without the presence of anti-D, when is it acceptable to transfuse Rh positive blood to an Rh negative woman of childbearing age?

<p>If no Rh negative blood is available. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of performing a crossmatch in compatibility testing?

<p>To ensure there is no incompatibility between the donor's red cells and the recipient's plasma. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In massive transfusion protocols, under what specific circumstance can compatibility testing be strategically eliminated by the transfusion service physician?

<p>At the discretion of the transfusion service physician, following policy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When encountering a specimen with prolonged clotting time during compatibility testing, what is the MOST effective immediate action to facilitate accurate agglutination readings?

<p>Add a small amount of thrombin or protamine sulfate to accelerate clotting or counteract heparin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In AUTOLOGOUS transfusions, which of the following tests are intentionally omitted in order to streamline the process and reduce costs without compromising safety?

<p>Unexpected antibody screening and infectious disease marker testing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Although compatibility testing is crucial for safe transfusions, what inherent limitation exists that prevents it from completely guaranteeing a problem-free outcome for every patient?

<p>Standard compatibility tests do not detect all potential incompatibilities, and some transfused RBCs may have shortened survival or hemolyze. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of implementing a Maximum Surgical Blood Order Schedule (MSBOS) in a hospital's transfusion service?

<p>To establish realistic blood ordering levels agreed upon by staff surgeons, thereby promoting efficient blood utilization. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical verification step must occur immediately before blood is released from the blood bank to ensure the correct patient receives the intended donor unit?

<p>Verifying all information by the person releasing the blood and the person picking up the unit. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a unit of blood is returned to the blood bank after being released, under what specific conditions can it be re-entered into inventory for potential use?

<p>If it has not been entered, warmed above 10°C, or cooled below 1°C, and is returned within a specified timeframe. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What technological advancement is being explored to streamline and enhance pretransfusion compatibility testing?

<p>Automation with continuous flow or batch analyzers, microplates, solid phase, and dry plate technologies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In intrauterine transfusions, how should blood units be selected when the fetal blood type is unknown?

<p>Prioritize O-negative units crossmatch-compatible with the mother’s serum. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In cases where a patient is known to possess an antibody, what crucial step must be performed after compatibility testing?

<p>Units must be tested to ensure the corresponding antigen is absent. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific aspect of antiglobulin testing is improved by gel technology?

<p>Elimination of multiple saline washes to remove unbound immunoglobulin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does automation contribute to quality assurance in blood banking?

<p>By reducing the potential for human error and improving process standardization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of gel particles in gel technology?

<p>They are the ideal material for trapping RBC agglutinates during sedimentation or centrifugation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following blood bank tests is NOT currently approved by the FDA for use with gel technology in the U.S.?

<p>White blood cell (WBC) count (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What advantage does gel technology offer regarding the interpretation of test results?

<p>It provides a more stable endpoint, leading to less ambiguous interpretation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the impact of implementing gel test and solid-phase assays?

<p>Decreased biohazardous waste and improved safety (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do the ABO forward grouping cards used with gel technology contain?

<p>Gels containing anti-A, anti-B, and anti-A,B (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the dextran-acrylamide gel in gel testing?

<p>To act as a filter, trapping agglutinated red blood cells while allowing unagglutinated cells to pass through (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In gel technology, how are agglutination reactions typically graded?

<p>Through visual inspection, graded from 1+ to 4+, similar to test tube hemagglutination (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is considered an advantage of gel technology compared to traditional hemagglutination methods?

<p>Standardization of procedures and elimination of the wash step (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant limitation regarding sample types for gel technology?

<p>Hemolyzed, lipemic, or icteric blood samples can interfere with results. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of anti-IgG in gel microtubes used for compatibility testing?

<p>To detect red blood cells sensitized with IgG antibodies (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In RH PHENOTYPING using gel technology, what reagents are typically found in the gel microtubes?

<p>Anti-D, Anti-C, Anti-E, Anti-c, Anti-e, and a control (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does automation improve serological testing using gel technology?

<p>By increasing the number of tests that can be performed simultaneously and minimizing hands-on time. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are special incubators and centrifuges required for gel technology?

<p>To maintain optimal temperature and speed for consistent and accurate results. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a first-generation Solid-Phase Red Cell Adherence (SPRCA) test characteristic?

<p>The target antigen is added to the microplate wells by the user before testing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What quality control measure distinguishes Solid-Phase Red Cell Adherence (SPRCA) from Gel testing?

<p>SPRCA utilizes a built-in color change in LISS to verify addition, whereas Gel testing does not have an equivalent feature. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following applications are both first- and second-generation SPRCA assays currently approved by the FDA?

<p>Antibody screening, antibody identification, Weak D testing, IgG autologous control, and compatibility testing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Solid-Phase Red Cell Adherence (SPRCA) test, what indicates a positive reaction?

<p>Adherence of indicator RBCs to part or all of the well's bottom. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key difference in the manufacturing process between first-generation and second-generation SPRCA tests?

<p>Second-generation tests have the target antigen pre-coated, while first-generation tests require user coating. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Solid-Phase Red Cell Adherence (SPRCA), what other solid-phase technology is relevant to serologic testing in blood centers?

<p>Solid-phase Protein A (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which parameter needs quality control in Gel testing but not in SPRCA?

<p>Special pipettes used to add reagents (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the two solid-phase technologies relies on a component of the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus, which has a very high affinity for the Fc portion of most immunoglobulin classes?

<p>Solid-phase Protein A (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Blood Group

A classification of blood based on specific antigens present on the surface of red blood cells.

Unit Objectives

Study guides that outline the key learning goals and details for unit exams.

Textbook Reading

The essential source of detailed content required to prepare for unit exams.

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Visual presentations that provide a general overview, not detailed enough for exams.

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Study Guide

Materials, like Unit Objectives, that help you prepare for specific assessments.

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Lewis Antigen Presence

Lewis antigens are absent on red cells but present in secretions of Le(a-b-) secretors.

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Lewis Antibody Type

Lewis antibodies are generally IgM and naturally occurring, capable of binding complement.

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Effect of Pregnancy on Lewis Antigens

Lewis antigens become weaker during pregnancy and are poorly expressed at birth.

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Lewis Antigens and Dosage

Lewis antigens do not demonstrate dosage effect in serologic reactions.

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Secreted Lewis Substances

Lewis substances in secretions can neutralize Lewis antibodies.

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Blood Group System

A group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus or closely linked loci.

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Codominant

A genetic scenario where both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype.

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Regulator Genes

Genes that alter the expression of antigens but are not at the same locus.

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Lewis Blood Group

A blood group system where antigens are produced by tissue cells, not red blood cells.

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Lewis Gene (Le)

Gene that produces an enzyme to add L-fucose to precursors for Lewis antigen formation.

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Secretor Status

Determines if ABH antigens are present in body fluids, influenced by Se gene.

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Leb Antigen

Antigen formed through the interaction of Le and Se genes, adsorbed onto red cells.

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Phenotype Le(a+b-)

A phenotype where Lea is secreted, but ABH substances are not due to nonsecretor status.

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Phenotype Le(a-b+)

A phenotype where both Lea and Leb antigens are present, indicating secretor status.

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lele Genotype

A genotype common among blacks leading to Le(a-b-) phenotype, due to mutations in Le gene.

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P Antigen

A blood antigen found on RBCs, WBCs, and tissue cells, commonly present.

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Pk Antigen

A rare blood antigen that lacks the P antigen, found in some individuals.

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P1 Antigen

A variant of the P antigen that weakens during fetal development and storage.

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Anti-P1

Naturally occurring IgM antibody in P2 individuals, usually cold-reactive.

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Cold-reactive

Antibodies that react at low temperatures, especially at room temp.

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I and i Antigens

High frequency antigens; at birth, cells are rich in i, which decreases over time.

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P1 Weakness at Birth

P1 antigens are poorly expressed at birth and develop over several years.

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HDN Association

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn is not linked with anti-P1 antibodies.

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Duffy System

A blood group system with antigens Fya and Fyb important in malaria susceptibility.

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Duffy Antigens Stability

Duffy antigens do not store well and are destroyed by certain enzymes.

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Duffy Antibodies Prevalence

Anti-Fyb antibodies are less common than anti-Fya antibodies and both are usually IgG.

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Kidd Blood Group

Blood group with antigens Jka and Jkb, known for causing hemolytic transfusion reactions.

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Kidd Antibodies Characteristics

Kidd antibodies are significant; they react in Coombs and often show dosage.

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Lutheran System Antigens

Includes antigens Lua and Lub; questionable immunogenicity and poorly developed at birth.

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Anti Lua Importance

Anti Lua may be naturally occurring with weak agglutination; not clinically significant.

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Anti Lub Characteristics

IgG antibody reacting in Coombs; forms due to foreign cell exposure.

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Diego System Antigens

A blood group system with 22 antigens linked to HDFN; expressed in newborns.

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Duffy Phenotypes in Ethnic Groups

Different frequencies of Duffy phenotypes among whites, blacks, and Chinese populations.

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Rh System

A blood group system focused on the D antigen, important for transfusions and pregnancy.

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Kell System

A blood group system that includes K antigens, which can cause serious transfusion reactions.

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Kidd System

A blood group system characterized by antigens Jka and Jkb, which can lead to hemolytic transfusion reactions.

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Clinically Significant Antibodies

Antibodies that can cause hemolytic transfusion reactions or hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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Insignificant Blood Group Systems

Blood group systems with antibodies not involved in hemolytic reactions.

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Antibodies and Temperature

Some antibodies react differently at room temperature or 37°C, affecting transfusion decisions.

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Complement Binding

A process where certain antibodies can bind components of the immune system to help destroy pathogens.

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Enhancement Reagents

Substances added to promote antigen-antibody binding and increase detection sensitivity.

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LISS

Low Ionic Strength Saline that enhances antibody detection by increasing binding rates to RBC antigens.

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Antihuman Globulin Reagents

Reagents that agglutinate RBCs coated with IgG or complement, used in blood testing.

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Coombs Control RBCs

Red blood cells coated with human IgG used to verify negative AHG tests are accurate.

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Incubation in Testing

Process where samples are mixed and set aside for a specified time to allow reactions.

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Pretransfusion Testing

A series of tests performed to ensure safe blood transfusions, including ABO grouping and antibody screening.

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ABO Grouping

A test determining a patient's blood type based on the presence of A and B antigens.

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Rh Testing

Tests for the presence of the Rh factor (D antigen) on red blood cells, essential for transfusion safety.

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Unexpected Antibodies

Antibodies that arise due to prior exposure to foreign antigens, which may be detected during screening.

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Antibody Screening

Tests to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's serum using reagent screening cells.

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Reagent Red Blood Cells

Commercially prepared Group O cells used for antibody testing in patients' serum.

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Antigen Dosage Effect

A phenomenon where the expression of certain antigens influences antibody reactions, often seen in blood groups.

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Compatibility Testing

Testing to confirm that donor red blood cells are suitable for a patient’s serum before transfusion.

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Cold Autoantibody

An antibody that reacts at lower temperatures, often IgM type.

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Evaluation of Auto Control

Step to determine if antibodies are auto- or allo- based on control results.

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3 + 3 Rule

A method to confirm antibody presence by requiring three positive and three negative reactions.

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Dosage Effect

Phenomenon where antigen strength affects antibody reaction, often seen with homozygous antigens.

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Pattern of Reactivity

Analysis of serum reactions to determine presence of specific antibodies.

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AHG

Anti-human globulin, used to detect unbound antibodies in tests.

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Coombs Control Cells

Reagent used to verify the accuracy of a Coombs test.

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Autologous Control

Test using patient’s own serum and RBCs to check for autoantibodies.

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Agglutination

Clumping of cells due to antibody-antigen reactions.

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Negative DAT Interpretation

Negative direct antiglobulin test indicates alloantibody presence.

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Antibody Panel

Test to determine which antibodies are present in the serum.

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Centrifuge Importance

Used to separate components in blood tests by spinning at high speeds.

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Interpretation Phases

Assessing whether reactions occur in cold or warm phases during tests.

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Comprehensive Process for Blood Selection

A step-by-step method used to select appropriate blood for transfusion, involving patient-donor identification and testing.

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Transfusion Risk vs. Benefit

The necessity of balancing the advantages of blood transfusions against their associated risks.

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AABB Standards

Guidelines that specify the necessary information required on blood request forms for transfusions.

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Positive Patient Identification

Procedures to ensure accurate labeling and identification before transfusing blood to prevent errors.

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Massive Transfusion

Total blood volume given within 24 hours during surgery or trauma.

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Autologous Transfusion

Collection and storage of a donor's own blood for personal use.

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Compatibility Testing Limitations

No current procedure guarantees complete safety against reactions.

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Reidentification of Patient

Process to confirm the identity of the recipient and donor blood product.

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Fresh Blood Utilization

Efficient use of blood through planned orders like MSBOS.

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Prolonged Clotting Time

Delayed clotting due to medications or coagulation problems.

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Maternal Antibodies Check

Assessment for antibodies in maternal serum to avoid incompatibility.

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Fetal Blood Group Testing

Determining fetus's ABO and Rh blood group status pre-transfusion.

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Thrombin Addition

Administering thrombin to enhance clotting during testing.

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Point of Care Testing

Rapid testing methods, like dipsticks, for immediate results.

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Requisition Form Comparison

Must compare patient samples with the requisition form to check for discrepancies.

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Patient Identification

Positive identification must be confirmed before collecting samples, especially if the identity is unknown.

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No Hemolysis

Blood samples must avoid hemolysis to accurately test complement activation.

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Sample Labeling

Tubes must be labeled at bedside with patient's info and lab ID before collection.

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Drawing Samples from IV Line

Do not take samples from IV lines; should be taken below the infusion site after a proper waiting period.

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Serum vs Plasma

Serum is preferred for testing complement; plasma contains fibrin clots which complicate tests.

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Timely Testing

Samples should be tested ASAP, or stored correctly if testing cannot happen immediately.

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Sample Volume Requirement

Collect 10 ml of blood for testing if no serological issues are noted.

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Crossmatching

A compatibility test where donor cells are mixed with the patient’s serum to check for reactions.

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Sensitivity in Testing

Ability of a test to correctly identify the presence of antibodies; can be enhanced by certain methods.

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Homozygous Genes in Screening

One sample in each set carries homozygous genes for specific antigens like Jk a and c.

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Proteolytic Enzymes in Testing

Enzymes like papain and ficin enhance the detection of specific antibodies in blood tests.

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Patient’s Blood Group Selection

Choosing blood based on the patient’s ABO and Rh group; O is universal donor.

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Rh Factor Transfusion Rules

Rh negative can be given to Rh positive; avoid Rh positive for Rh negative women of childbearing age.

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Type and Screen

Initial testing for patients unlikely to need blood transfusions.

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Immediate Spin Crossmatch

Test mixing patient serum with donor cells; lacks hemolysis shows compatibility.

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Abbreviated Crossmatch

A type of crossmatch combining Type & screen with immediate spin.

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Antiglobulin Crossmatch

Involves incubation with agents to enhance compatibility detection.

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Interpretation of Crossmatch Results

Evaluating hemolysis and agglutination for transfusion compatibility.

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Computer Crossmatch

Automated compatibility check based on previous serologic results.

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Neutralizing Factors in Testing

False negatives can result from improper handling of sample tubes.

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Negative Crossmatch Result

Indicates no RBC antibodies are present, safe for transfusion.

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Positive Results Causes

Factors that lead to positive results in transfusion testing, including ABO grouping errors, alloantibodies, and autoantibodies.

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Alloantibody

An antibody formed in response to foreign antigens from a different individual of the same species.

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Autoantibody

An antibody produced by the immune system that mistakenly targets and reacts with a person's own cells.

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DAT

Direct Antiglobulin Test; detects antibodies bound to the surface of red blood cells, indicating immune reactions.

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Panel Testing

Testing involving a group of red blood cells to identify specific antibodies in a patient’s serum.

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Emergency Blood Release

Procedure for urgent transfusions requiring O negative blood while proper testing is completed.

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Neonatal Transfusion Compatibility

Transfusion in neonates must consider maternal antibodies possibly affecting the infant’s blood.

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Intrauterine Transfusion Requirements

Blood for intrauterine transfusions must be compatible with maternal antibodies crossing the placenta.

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Gel Technology

A method using gel particles to improve blood bank testing accuracy and reproducibility.

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Antiglobulin Testing

A blood test method that detects antibodies bound to RBCs without multiple washes.

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FDA Approval of Gel Testing

Gel technology is FDA approved for various blood tests including grouping and compatibility.

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ABO Forward Grouping

A test that determines a person's blood type by identifying A and B antigens on RBCs.

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ABO Reverse Grouping

A test that checks for A and B antibodies in serum by using type O cells.

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Level of Quality Assurance

The degree of reliability needed to meet current regulatory standards in testing.

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Sample Handling

The careful collection and labeling of blood samples to avoid errors during testing.

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Rh Phenotype Card

A card with gel containing various anti-sera for blood typing.

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Agglutination Mechanism

Agglutinated RBCs are trapped in gel while others form a pellet.

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Agglutination Grading

Reactions graded from 1+ to 4+ indicating agglutination strength.

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Advantages of Gel Testing

Benefits include standardized procedures and no wash steps.

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Disadvantages of Gel Testing

Limitations like need for special equipment and sample restrictions.

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Automated Gel Technology

Automated systems for serological tests in blood typing and compatibility.

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Solid-Phase Technology

Methods used in serologic testing that involve adherence of red cells to a solid surface.

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SPRCA

Solid-Phase Red Cell Adherence - techniques where red cells adhere to microplate wells during testing.

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First-Generation SPRCA Test

Tests where the user adds target antigens to microplate wells before testing.

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Second-Generation SPRCA Test

Tests where target antigens are pre-bound to microplate wells during manufacturing.

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FDA Approval for SPRCA

First- and second-generation SPRCA assays are approved for antibody screening and compatibility testing.

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Quality Control (QC) in SPRCA

Monitoring procedures that include positive and negative controls in each batch of SPRCA tests.

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Comparison of Gel and SPRCA

Examines procedural steps, features, and equipment used in gel testing versus SPRCA.

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Positive Test Reaction in SPRCA

Indicator RBCs adhere to microplate wells, indicating a positive reaction strength.

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Study Notes

Blood Group Terminology and Other Blood Groups

  • PowerPoints are general overviews and are intended to help students take notes solely from the video lectures.
  • PowerPoints do not include the detailed information needed for the unit exam.
  • Students are responsible for reading the textbook to understand the details required for the unit.
  • The unit objectives are the student's study guide.
  • Test questions are based on the unit objectives and are located solely within the textbook content.

Terminology

  • A blood group system results from antigens produced by alleles of a single gene locus or closely linked loci where crossing over is uncommon.
  • Many blood group systems are codominant.
  • Some genes code for complex structures carrying multiple antigens (e.g., glycophorin B carries S, s, N, and U antigens).
  • Red blood cells with unique phenotypes can aid in identifying antibodies.
  • Regulatory or modifying genes alter antigen expression but are not located at the same locus.
  • Antigenic elements are indicated by underlining or italicization, whereas antibodies are denoted using a prefix "anti".

Correct Blood Group Terminology

  • The table displays blood group systems and their associated genes, antigens, and antibodies. Specific examples of genes, their antigens and antibodies in each system are shown, for example the Kell blood system, has antigens K and Jka; as well as antibodies shown as anti-K and anti-Jka.

Lewis Blood Group System

  • The Lewis system is the only blood group system not produced by red blood cells; it's produced by tissue cells that secrete antigens into body fluids.
  • Antigens are adsorbed onto red blood cells.
  • The system's function depends on inheritance from Lewis genes and secretor genes.
  • It's influenced by genetic interaction with the ABO blood group system; the Lewis system's production is not solely dependent on Red Blood Cells.

Lewis - Inheritance

  • The Le gene is similar to the ABO gene, but instead of producing a Lewis antigen, it creates an enzyme (glycosyltransferase).
  • The enzyme adds L-fucose (L-fucosyltransferase) to basic precursor substances.
  • The Le gene, found on chromosome 19, triggers L-fucosyltransferase activity, impacting blood group antigens. The exact location on chromosome 19 is important in understanding inheritance.

The Lewis (a+b-) Phenotype: Nonsecretors

  • The Lea substance secretion is independent of secretor status.
  • Individuals with a nonsecretor genotype (sese) do not secrete Lea antigens into body fluids.
  • Individuals with the Le(a+b-) phenotype are nonsecretors of ABH substances; the absence of secretion is a key characteristic.

The Lewis (a-b+) Phenotype: Secretors

  • The Leb antigen is formed through interactions involving multiple genes.
  • Leb and Lea are not alleles.
  • Leb are secretors.
  • The Leb antigen requires the Le gene, while the production of Lea requires Le and other genes; the separate processes for the Lea and Leb are important.

The Lewis (a-b+) Phenotype: Secretors

  • The Leb antigen is produced through genetic interactions between Le(FUT3) and Se(FUT2) genes.
  • The Le gene adds L-fucose to type 1 precursors, creating type 1 H, which is a crucial substrate for Leb production; the specific steps of this process are crucial to understanding.

Lewis (a-b+) Phenotype: Secretors

  • All Le(a-b+) individuals are ABH secretors and possess both Lea and Leb soluble antigens found in secretions.
  • Leb is the antigen adsorbed onto the red cell.
  • Individuals with the Le(a-b+) phenotype secrete both soluble antigens. This is a key characteristic.

The Lewis (a-b-) Phenotype – Secretors or Nonsecretors

  • The lele genotype is more prevalent in people of African descent than in those of European descent.
  • The lack of the Lewis antigen results from gene mutations, not an absence of the gene.

Substances Present in Secretions – See Chart

  • A table detailing various gene combinations and their correlated red blood cell phenotypes is presented.

Adult Phenotype Frequency in %- See Chart

  • Tables displaying the frequencies of blood phenotypes in white and black populations are provided.

Facts about Lewis Antigens

  • Lewis antigens decrease in strength during pregnancy.
  • Lewis antigens are weakly expressed at birth.
  • Lewis antigens do not demonstrate dosage effects in serologic reactions.

Lewis Antibodies

  • Lewis antibodies are primarily IgM and capable of binding complement.
  • They are often found in pregnant women but typically aren't clinically significant in transfusion medicine; these antibodies are not as damaging in transfusions.

Anti-Lea

  • Anti-Lea, the most frequently encountered antibody linked to the Le(a-b-) phenotype, may contain IgG components.
  • Anti-Lea can cause in vivo and in vitro hemolysis.

Anti-Leb

  • Anti-Leb is less common and considerably weaker than Anti-Lea.
  • It's usually IgM and does not bind complement as effectively as Anti-Lea.

Anti-Lex

  • Anti-Lex antibodies are produced by the Le(a-b-) phenotype; they react with Le(a+b-) and Le(a-b+) red blood cells, and are a combined antibody type found in about 90% of white cord blood samples.

Serologic Characteristics of Anti-Lea and Anti-Leb

  • Tables present various serologic test results for Anti-Lea and Anti-Leb antibodies.

The MNSS Blood Group System

  • M and N antigens are alleles of each other.
  • S and s antigens are alleles of each other.

MNSS U Antigens

  • The high-frequency antigen U, now part of the MNSs system, was discovered by Weiner.
  • Many other antigens in the MNSs system exhibit low frequencies.

MNSS U Antigens

  • Dosage effects are observed in several MNSs antigens.
  • Various enzymes, including ficin, papain, bromelain, trypsin, and pronase, can degrade MNSs antigens.

Anti-M

  • Anti-M is a naturally occurring antibody.
  • It reacts with red blood cells at temperatures below body temperature.
  • Unlike IgG, IgM antibodies are less likely to be non-hemolytic.

Anti-M

  • Anti-M exhibits dosage effects, reacting more strongly with MM type red cells compared to those with MN or NN genotypes.
  • Some anti-M instances may not react with MN or NN red blood cells, making antibody detection more complex.

Anti-N

  • Anti-N, similar to anti-M, is naturally occurring.
  • Anti-N is implicated in renal patients undergoing dialysis using equipment cleaned with formaldehyde.

Anti S and Anti-s

  • The antibodies, Anti-S and Anti-s, are IgG type.
  • They typically react with red blood cells at 37°C.

P and Pk Blood Antigens

  • The P antigen is found on RBCs, WBCs, and tissue cells, sometimes even in people who are secretors.
  • Pk is a rare blood type that lacks the P antigen; it's usually found in people without the P antigen.
  • The P antigen's expression weakens during fetal development and isn't fully present until adulthood; P antigen expression is age-dependent, a vital factor.

Anti P₁

  • Anti-P₁ antibodies are frequently found in individuals with type 2 P blood.
  • These antibodies are typically IgM and react at room temperature or can potentially affect complement-mediated cell destruction.
  • Anti-P₁ is compatible for crossmatching in 37°C and Coombs phase reactions.

Ii Antigens

  • The I and i antigens demonstrate variable expressions throughout life, becoming more pronounced in I, as time progresses.

Anti-I

  • Anti-I is triggered by microorganisms (e.g., Mycoplasma pneumoniae).
  • It can range from benign to pathogenic and results in strong reactions particularly on adult red blood cells, which are diminished at lower temperatures.
  • Elevated cold-temperature responsiveness often necessitates pre-warming techniques.

Anti-I

  • Anti-I may also be a component of albumin or enzyme-enhanced reactions, potentially impacting transfusion reactions.
  • The antibody type often involves IgM (and occasionally IgG) and can sometimes present complications in transfusions.

Kell System

  • The Kell system features high-frequency and low-frequency antigens mostly expressed on red blood cells.
  • Kell antigens are detected from 7-10 weeks gestation.

Kell System

  • Kell antigens can be affected by enzymes like ficin and papain, but trypsin can destroy them.

Kell System

  • The Kell system's antigens K and k show immunogenic properties.

Anti-K

  • Anti-K causes severe hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) and hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).
  • Anti-K antibodies are primarily IgG and frequently react with complement.
  • Anti-K reactivity typically persists. Anti-K antibodies are often due to bacterial exposures or cases of pregnancy or blood transfusions.

Anti-K

  • The McLeod phenotype, a rare variant, is associated with gene mutations on the X chromosome.
  • The McLeod phenotype demonstrates missing Kell antigens, predominantly found in males.

Kx

  • The McLeod phenotype displays missing Kell antigens (Ks, Kb, and others), usually observed in males (due to the X-chromosome based genetic condition); the McLeod phenotype is X-linked, a crucial factor.

Duffy Blood Group System

  • The Duffy system's genes determine the presence of Fya and Fyb antigens.
  • Approximately 68% of individuals of African descent exhibit the Fya⁻ Fyb⁻ phenotype.

Duffy Antigens

  • Duffy antigens do not store well even when frozen.
  • Substances released from red blood cells can potentially inhibit the action of certain antibodies.
  • Duffy antigens are susceptible to breakdown by enzymes.

Duffy Antibodies

  • Duffy antibodies are moderate immunogens. Anti-Fya is encountered more frequently than anti-Fyb.
  • These antibodies often coexist with other antibodies and are primarily IgG.

Duffy Antibodies

  • Antibodies against Duffy antigens are typically non-complement binding and primarily IgG.

Kidd Blood Group System

  • The Kidd system is a straightforward blood group system with two antigens: Jka and Jkb.
  • These antigens are commonly expressed on red blood cells.

Kidd Antibodies

  • Kidd antibodies often display dosage effects and are frequently associated with hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTRs) and hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).

Lutheran System

  • This system has two main antigens (Lua and Lub).
  • These antigens are typically codominant and displayed in offspring.

Common Lutheran Phenotypes

  • Data for phenotype frequencies in different populations (e.g., whites and blacks) is presented.

Anti Lua

  • Anti-Lua antibodies often manifest as a naturally occurring saline agglutinating reaction at lower temperatures.
  • Anti-Lua is typically found attached to red blood cells after serological testing.

Anti Lub

  • Anti-Lub, an IgG antibody, develops in response to exposure to foreign red blood cells (e.g., transfusion, pregnancy).

Diego System

  • The Diego system features antigens associated with the Di and Go designations.
  • Variations in expression are apparent across different populations.

Diego System

  • Diego-type IgG antibodies can contribute to hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).

Significant Blood Group Systems

  • The Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, and ABO blood group systems are usually considered clinically significant due to their role in eliciting transfusion complications.
  • IgM antibodies of the ABO system are notable for their naturally occurring status, resulting in in vivo reactions.

Significant Blood Group Characteristics

  • Tables provide characteristics for various blood groups, including antigen expression at birth and effects of enzymes.

Insignificant Blood Group Systems

  • Certain blood group systems, involving antigens like I, Le, M, N, H, and P, typically do not directly cause transfusion complications.
  • They often hold less clinical significance.

Know Both Antigen and Antibody Characteristics

  • Understanding antigen and antibody characteristics is crucial for relevant blood group testing.
  • Temperature-dependent reactivity, clinical implications, and effects of enzymes are essential factors.
  • These characteristics are critical for accurate, thorough blood examination procedures.

Postamble

  • Students should prioritize textbook content to understand the unit objectives.
  • The unit objectives provide crucial guidance for effective study.

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