Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the primary focus of compatibility testing in blood transfusions?
What is the primary focus of compatibility testing in blood transfusions?
- Confirming the expiration date of the blood product.
- Ensuring the donor has no infectious diseases.
- Verifying the correct blood volume is transfused.
- Matching the serological aspects of donor and recipient blood. (correct)
Which of the following clerical errors is most likely to cause a transfusion-associated fatality?
Which of the following clerical errors is most likely to cause a transfusion-associated fatality?
- Incorrect ABO grouping (correct)
- Using an expired blood product.
- Misidentification of the patient.
- Incorrect labeling of the blood bag.
Why are hemolyzed samples generally unsuitable for compatibility testing?
Why are hemolyzed samples generally unsuitable for compatibility testing?
- Hemolysis causes false positive agglutination.
- Hemolysis activates the complement system, affecting results. (correct)
- Hemolysis interferes with ABO grouping.
- Hemolysis dilutes the antibody concentration.
How long should donor and recipient samples be stored following a transfusion to allow for re-evaluation in case of an adverse reaction?
How long should donor and recipient samples be stored following a transfusion to allow for re-evaluation in case of an adverse reaction?
What is the primary reason blood bank technologists typically prefer serum over plasma for pre-transfusion testing?
What is the primary reason blood bank technologists typically prefer serum over plasma for pre-transfusion testing?
What is the MOST important consideration when selecting donor units if a patient's own ABO and Rh group are unavailable?
What is the MOST important consideration when selecting donor units if a patient's own ABO and Rh group are unavailable?
What is the INITIAL step in the compatibility testing process?
What is the INITIAL step in the compatibility testing process?
A patient with a history of multiple transfusions requires a blood transfusion. How soon before transfusion should the blood sample be collected?
A patient with a history of multiple transfusions requires a blood transfusion. How soon before transfusion should the blood sample be collected?
Which blood group antigens are routinely tested for in allogeneic units?
Which blood group antigens are routinely tested for in allogeneic units?
In ABO grouping, what is the source of antigens in forward typing?
In ABO grouping, what is the source of antigens in forward typing?
Which of the following is an example of type-compatible blood?
Which of the following is an example of type-compatible blood?
What does the direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) primarily detect?
What does the direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) primarily detect?
What is the purpose of antibody screening in compatibility testing?
What is the purpose of antibody screening in compatibility testing?
What is the significance of using IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells) in the AHG phase of antibody detection?
What is the significance of using IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells) in the AHG phase of antibody detection?
If the antibody screen is positive, what is the next step in antibody identification?
If the antibody screen is positive, what is the next step in antibody identification?
In a major crossmatch, which components are combined?
In a major crossmatch, which components are combined?
Under what conditions is it acceptable to release blood as packed RBCs even when the minor crossmatch is incompatible?
Under what conditions is it acceptable to release blood as packed RBCs even when the minor crossmatch is incompatible?
A patient's antibody screen is negative, but the major crossmatch shows agglutination. What is the most likely explanation?
A patient's antibody screen is negative, but the major crossmatch shows agglutination. What is the most likely explanation?
According to the content, what is the purpose of potentiating media, such as LISS or albumin, in antibody detection tests?
According to the content, what is the purpose of potentiating media, such as LISS or albumin, in antibody detection tests?
Which special serologic technique involves using enzyme-treated RBCs?
Which special serologic technique involves using enzyme-treated RBCs?
What is the principle behind the elution technique in serology?
What is the principle behind the elution technique in serology?
When is cold autoadsorption primarily used?
When is cold autoadsorption primarily used?
Which of the following substances is used to neutralize anti-Lewis antibodies in neutralization studies?
Which of the following substances is used to neutralize anti-Lewis antibodies in neutralization studies?
What is the function of ZZAP in the context of special serologic techniques?
What is the function of ZZAP in the context of special serologic techniques?
What type of reaction is observed when using tube testing in blood banking?
What type of reaction is observed when using tube testing in blood banking?
How does gel technology indicate a positive reaction?
How does gel technology indicate a positive reaction?
Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of using gel technology in blood banking?
Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of using gel technology in blood banking?
In solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) technology, what indicates a NEGATIVE reaction?
In solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) technology, what indicates a NEGATIVE reaction?
What is a key characteristic of broad-spectrum crossmatching?
What is a key characteristic of broad-spectrum crossmatching?
A blood bank has 85 RBC units in inventory. The phenotype frequencies show C positive = 70%, K positive = 9%, and Jka positive = 57%. If a patient needs RBC units that are negative for C, K, and Jka, approximately how many units are compatible?
A blood bank has 85 RBC units in inventory. The phenotype frequencies show C positive = 70%, K positive = 9%, and Jka positive = 57%. If a patient needs RBC units that are negative for C, K, and Jka, approximately how many units are compatible?
A technologist performs an immediate spin crossmatch, and observes a 2+ agglutination. What is the correct course of action?
A technologist performs an immediate spin crossmatch, and observes a 2+ agglutination. What is the correct course of action?
Which component is crossmatched when apheresis platelets include RBCs?
Which component is crossmatched when apheresis platelets include RBCs?
A patient who was recently transfused (within the last 3 months) needs an autoadsorption performed. What is the correct procedure?
A patient who was recently transfused (within the last 3 months) needs an autoadsorption performed. What is the correct procedure?
When using Gel Technology, a solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column suggests?
When using Gel Technology, a solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column suggests?
In the context of solid-phase antibody screening, what type of solid support is typically used?
In the context of solid-phase antibody screening, what type of solid support is typically used?
What is the purpose of quality control?
What is the purpose of quality control?
What does a zero blood banker do?
What does a zero blood banker do?
What step is required in compatibility testing to reduce the rate of clerical errors?
What step is required in compatibility testing to reduce the rate of clerical errors?
Why should donor testing samples be collected when the full donor unit is drawn?
Why should donor testing samples be collected when the full donor unit is drawn?
What is the MOST suitable storage temperature range for donor and recipient samples after transfusion?
What is the MOST suitable storage temperature range for donor and recipient samples after transfusion?
If a patient's blood type is unavailable during an emergency transfusion, what type of donor units should be selected?
If a patient's blood type is unavailable during an emergency transfusion, what type of donor units should be selected?
Why is accurate reidentification of the patient important during the transfusion process?
Why is accurate reidentification of the patient important during the transfusion process?
What is the rationale for collecting a blood specimen within 2-3 days of transfusion for patients with a history of pregnancy or previous transfusions?
What is the rationale for collecting a blood specimen within 2-3 days of transfusion for patients with a history of pregnancy or previous transfusions?
Which tests are essential on allogeneic units but not on autologous units?
Which tests are essential on allogeneic units but not on autologous units?
In ABO grouping, what reagents and cells are used in reverse grouping?
In ABO grouping, what reagents and cells are used in reverse grouping?
Which of the following blood types aligns with the definition of type-specific blood for a patient with A+ blood?
Which of the following blood types aligns with the definition of type-specific blood for a patient with A+ blood?
Why is the thermophase (37°C) incubation included in a broad-spectrum crossmatch?
Why is the thermophase (37°C) incubation included in a broad-spectrum crossmatch?
What is the MOST probable cause of agglutination solely with screening cells but not with donor cells in compatibility testing?
What is the MOST probable cause of agglutination solely with screening cells but not with donor cells in compatibility testing?
In a major crossmatch, if both the autocontrol and crossmatch are positive at the AHG phase, what does this indicate?
In a major crossmatch, if both the autocontrol and crossmatch are positive at the AHG phase, what does this indicate?
Which principle underlies the elution technique in serological testing?
Which principle underlies the elution technique in serological testing?
Apart from saliva, what other substances can be employed in neutralization studies to neutralize anti-Lewis antibodies?
Apart from saliva, what other substances can be employed in neutralization studies to neutralize anti-Lewis antibodies?
What is the role of polyethylene glycol (PEG) in potentiating media used in antibody detection?
What is the role of polyethylene glycol (PEG) in potentiating media used in antibody detection?
What antigens are typically destroyed by routine enzyme treatment of red blood cells?
What antigens are typically destroyed by routine enzyme treatment of red blood cells?
When interpreting gel test results, what does a solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column signify?
When interpreting gel test results, what does a solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column signify?
In solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) technology, the microplate is coated with?
In solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) technology, the microplate is coated with?
What is the PRIMARY goal of performing compatibility testing in blood transfusions?
What is the PRIMARY goal of performing compatibility testing in blood transfusions?
Which situation would require the highest level of expertise and the most complex serological workup?
Which situation would require the highest level of expertise and the most complex serological workup?
Flashcards
Compatibility Testing
Compatibility Testing
The serologic aspect of pre-transfusion testing, involving donor and recipient blood samples.
Major Crossmatch
Major Crossmatch
Testing patient serum with donor RBCs to detect antibodies against donor cells.
Minor Crossmatch
Minor Crossmatch
Testing donor serum with patient RBCs, largely phased out due to prior antibody screening.
Incompatible Crossmatch
Incompatible Crossmatch
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Transfusion Fatalities
Transfusion Fatalities
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Hemolyzed Samples
Hemolyzed Samples
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Serum in Testing
Serum in Testing
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Donor Testing Samples
Donor Testing Samples
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Donor/Recipient Sample Storage
Donor/Recipient Sample Storage
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Donor Unit Selection
Donor Unit Selection
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Patient steps in compatibility testing
Patient steps in compatibility testing
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Donor steps in compatibility testing
Donor steps in compatibility testing
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Blood specimen collection
Blood specimen collection
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Allogeneic Unit Testing
Allogeneic Unit Testing
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Autologous Unit Testing
Autologous Unit Testing
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ABO Grouping
ABO Grouping
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Type-Specific Blood
Type-Specific Blood
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Type-Compatible Blood
Type-Compatible Blood
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Antibody screening
Antibody screening
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Purpose of Antibody Screen
Purpose of Antibody Screen
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Antibody ID/Panel Testing
Antibody ID/Panel Testing
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Crossmatch
Crossmatch
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RBC Crossmatch
RBC Crossmatch
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Types of Crossmatch
Types of Crossmatch
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Current Mandated Test
Current Mandated Test
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Neutralization
Neutralization
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Tube testing
Tube testing
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Gel technology
Gel technology
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Solid Phase Red Cell Adherence
Solid Phase Red Cell Adherence
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Study Notes
Compatibility Testing
- Refers to the serologic aspect of pre-transfusion testing
- Encompasses every serologic aspect from donor blood to recipient blood sample
Key Steps in Compatibility Testing
- Identification of the patient and donor
- Collection of appropriate samples for testing
- Donor blood sample testing
- Patient sample testing and review of past blood bank records
- Selection of appropriate donor units
- Crossmatching
- Re-identification of the patient before blood infusion
Major Crossmatch
- Involves reacting patient's serum with donor's red blood cells (RBCs)
Minor Crossmatch
- Involves reacting donor's plasma with patient's RBCs
- Mostly eliminated due to prior screening of donor samples for prevalent antibodies
Incompatible Crossmatch Indicators
- Agglutination (clumping)
- Hemolysis (destruction of red blood cells)
Crossmatch Compatibility and Blood Release
- Release blood if major and minor crossmatches are compatible
- Do not release blood if major and minor crossmatches are incompatible
- Do not release blood if major crossmatch is incompatible, and the minor is compatible
- Release as packed RBCs, if the major is compatible, but the minor is incompatible
Sample Collection and Preparation
- Incorrect ABO grouping primarily results in transfusion fatalities due to clerical errors
- Patient misidentification is the prevailing cause of clerical errors, resulting in transfusion accidents
- Hemolyzed samples cannot be used for testing due to complement activation.
- Serum or plasma is acceptable for pre-transfusion testing
- Serum is preferred by most blood bank technologists
- Plasma may cause small fibrin clots, making differentiation from true agglutination difficult
Donor Sample Guidelines
- Donor testing samples must be taken when the full donor unit is drawn
- Store donor and recipient samples for at least 7 days post-transfusion
- Stopper and refrigerate samples at 1-6°C
- Ensure samples are carefully labeled and of adequate volume
- Needed for re-evaluation should the patient experience transfusion-related adverse effects
Donor Unit Selection
- As a standard, blood and its components should match the patient's ABO and Rh group for transfusion
- Select units lacking any antigen against which the patient has a significant antibody when the patient's blood type is unavailable
Compatibility Testing Processes
- Accurate patient identification is crucial
- Proper sample collection and handling are required
- Review of past blood bank records is necessary
- ABO and D typing, antibody screen, and crossmatch of patient samples are performed
- ABO and D typing, antibody screen, and infectious disease testing of donor samples are performed
- Double-checking the unit's ABO and D typing label
- Tagging, inspecting, and issuing blood products accurately
- Accurate reidentification and monitoring of transfusion
Specimen Collection Timing
- Collect specimens within 2-3 days of transfusion
- If the patient has been pregnant or transfused in the months prior to the procedure
Post-Transfusion Specimen Retention
- Retain patient specimens and unit segments at 1°-6°C for 7 days following transfusion
Allogeneic Unit Testing
- ABO typing
- Rh typing
- Antibody screening
- Crossmatching
Autologous Unit Testing
- Blood Typing
ABO Grouping Determination
- Determining the ABO group of red cells is done via red cell grouping and serum grouping
- Antigens source is from patient's RBCs (forward grouping) and reagent's RBCs (reverse grouping)
- Antibodies source is from reagent Anti-A and Anti-B (forward grouping) and patient's serum (reverse grouping)
Type-Specific Transfusion
- Using blood that is an exact match to the recipient’s type
- Example: A+ blood receiving only A+ blood
Type-Compatible Transfusion
- Using blood that is compatible with the recipient’s type
- Example: O-negative blood being given to any other blood type
Red Blood Cell Compatibility
- O blood type is the universal donor of red blood cells
- AB blood type is the universal recipient for red blood cells
Plasma Compatibility
- AB blood type is the universal donor of plasma
- O blood type is the universal recipient for plasma
Antihuman Globulin Testing
- Detects IgG and complement components C3b and C3d
Antibody Screening
- Involves reacting patient serum or plasma with 2-3 reagent cells phenotyped for multiple antigens
- Detects unexpected antibodies like red blood cell antibodies that are not anti-A or anti-B
- Incidence of unexpected antibodies is 0.2-2%
- Reagent antibody screening cells are the source of antigens
- Patient's serum is the source of antibodies
Current Requirements for Patient Samples Before Transfusion
- Clinically significant antibodies (tested using 37°C incubation and AHG test)
- Antibodies that react at 37°C and/or in the antihuman globulin test
- IgG-sensitized cells usage validates negative AHG reactions
- Transfusion reactions or unacceptably short survival of transfused red cells
Antibody Identification/Panel Testing
- Used if the antibody screen is positive to determine which antibodies are in the serum
- Reagent antibody panel cells are the antigen source (10-16 cells)
- Patient's serum is the antibody source
Crossmatch Definition
- Compatibility of donor RBCs is determined with the recipient's blood
- Detects ABO incompatibility
- Clinically significant antibodies detection
Crossmatching Components
- Can be computer crossmatched if the antibody screen is negative and antibodies haven't been detected before
- Plasma needs to be ABO compatible with the recipient's RBCs
- With Cryoprecipitate, all ABO groups are acceptable; Rh type is not considered
- With Platelets, all ABO groups are acceptable, recipient RBC compatibility is recommended, ABO-identical blood is preferred, RBC containing apheresis platelets need ABO compatibility and crossmatch
Parts of Crossmatch
Major Crossmatch
- Mixes the patient's serum with the donor's RBCs
- Donor cells are the source of antigens
- Recipient's serum is the source of antibodies
Minor Crossmatch
- Mixes the donor's serum with the patient's RBCs
- Donor cells are the source of antigens
- Recipient's serum is the source of antibodies
Types of Crossmatch
Immediate Spin
- Uses recipient serum and donor RBCs tested in IS only
- Performed if and only if the recipient never had and never had a clinically significant antibody
- It detects AB incompatibility
- Antibody screen carried through AHG must be negative
Antiglobulin
- Recipient serum and donor RBCs are tested through AHG
- Used if recipient has or had clinically significant antibody
Computer Crossmatch
- Comparing donor's ABO and Rh type to the recipient's ABO and Rh type
- Recipient cannot have or have ever had a clinically significant antibody
Abbreviated
- Combines type and screen with immediate spin crossmatch
Broad Spectrum
- Preferred method of crossmatching as it includes 3 phases:
- Immediate spin phase
- Thermophase or 37°C phase
- Antihuman globulin phase
Interpretation of Compatibility Tests
Positive Antibody Screen; Negative Major Crossmatch
- Antibody reacts with an antigen on screening cells but not on donor cells
- A compatible transfusion may be possible, but the donor needs to be phenotyped to confirm compatibility.
Negative Antibody Screen; Positive Major Crossmatch
- Antibody reacts with a low-incidence antigen
- Donor cells test positive for DAT
- Technical error occurred
- NO Transfusion
Positive Antibody Screen; Positive Major Crossmatch
- Antibody reacts with an antigen on the donor cell and screening cell
- NO Transfusion
Negative Antibody Screen; Negative Major Crossmatch
- No antibody detected
- YES Transfusion
Blood Bank Inventory Example
A patient needs blood transfusion of RBC units has anti-C, anti-K and anti-Jka
- C Positive = 70%
- K Positive = 9%
- Jka Positive = 57%
Potentiating Media
- Low Ionic Strength Solution(LISS) has 0.2% NaCi in glycine; increases antibody uptake
- Bovine Albumin(22% or 30%) allows sensitized cells to come closer together to form agglutination lattices
- Polyethylene Glycol (PEG) additive concentrates antibodies and creates low-ionic solution to allow greater antibody uptake
- Polybrene is a positively charged polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in red cell
- Proteolytic Enzymes include papain, ficin, trypsin and bromelin
Special Serologic Techniques
- Enzyme Technique uses enzyme-treated RBCs to enhance or remove reactivity of some antibody specificities
- Enhanced: Rh, Lewis, Kidd, Pi, I, ABO
- Destroyed: M, N, S, Duffy, Xga
- Elution technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs
- Whole RBC antibody removal uses buffers to remove the antibody from the RBC
- Without destroying the RBC
- Digitonin releases the antibody by destroying the RBCs
- Lui freeze-thaw is used to remove IgM antibodies (usually A or B) present on newborn RBCs
- Adsorption is the process of removing antibody from serum by combining a serum sample with appropriate RBCs - Cold Autoadsorption incubates the patient's serum and cells at 4°C for 30-60 minutes for 30-60 - Warm Autoadsorption incubates the patient's serum and cells at 4°C for 30-60 minutes, then removes serum and uses serum for panel to test for alloantibody - An autoadsorption can be performed if patient was NOT transfused within the past 3 months - If patient was transfused within the past 3months, use allogeneic cells lacking the same antigens as the patient for 'adsorption
- Neutralization uses soluble antigen to inhibit reactivity of certain antibodies in hemagglutination assays
- Anti-P1: 0.2% NaCl in glycine; increases antibody uptake
- Anti-Lewis is neutralized by saliva, serum or plasma
- Anti-Chido & anti-Rodgers are neutralized by serum or plasma
- Anti-Sda is neutralized by urine
- Anti-I is neutralized by human breast milk
- Effect of Chemicals on Antigen Expression:
- Proteolytic enzymes such as papain and ficin
- 0.2 M dithiothreitol (DTT)
- ZZAP
- Chloroquine diphosphate (CDP)
- 2-aminoethylisothiouronium bromide (AET or 2-AET)
Blood Banking Technologies
Tube Testing
- Glass test tubes used as reaction containers, observe for agglutination and/or hemolysis
Gel Technology
- Plastic microtube containing dextran acrylamide gel
- Controlled centrifugation of red cells through dextran-acrylamide gel and reagents in a microtube
- Used for:
- ABO forward and reverse grouping
- Rh typing
- Direct antiglobulin testing
- Antibody screening, identification and compatibility testing
- Reactions:
- Positive reaction - Agglutinated RBCs suspended in gel, With stronger reactions having larger agglutinates at the top
- Negative reaction - Button of unagglutinated RBCs in bottom of microtube
ADVANTAGES
- Standardization
- Stability
- Decreased sample volume needed for testing
- Enhanced sensitivity and specificity
DISADVANTAGES
- Need special incubator and centrifuge
- Specific pipette for 25 microliter of serum or plasma and 50 microliter of 0.8% RCS
Agglutination Reaction in the Gel Test
- 1+ reaction - Red cell agglutinates predominantly observed in the lower half of the gel column with red cells also in the bottom,These reactions may be weak, with few agglutinates remaining in the gel area just above the red cell pellet in the bottom of the microtube
- Mixed Field - Layer of red cell agglutinates at the top of the gel column accompanied by a pellet of unagglutinated cells in the bottom of the microtube - Negative - Red cells forming a well-delineated pellet in the bottom of the microtube, The gel above the red cell pellet is clear and free of agglutinates
- 4+ - Solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column, Usually no red cells are visible at the bottom of the microtube
- 3+ - Predominant amount of agglutinated red cells towards the top of the gel column
with few agglutinates staggered below the thicker band, The majority of agglutinates are observed in the top half of the gel column
- 2+ - Red cell agglutinates dispersed throughout the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom of the microtube,Agglutinates should be distributed through the upper and lower halves of the gel
Solid-Phase Technology
Principle: Test reactant is bound to solid support before test is started Used for antibody screening, identification and compatibility testing Solid-phase red cell adherence (SPRCA) Reaction container: Microplate with RBC membranes bound to the surface of wells Positive Reaction: Indicator RBCs adhere diffusely to the surface of the well Negative Reaction: No adherence of RBCs, button of RBs in bottom of well Solid-phase protein A Solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Affinity Column Technology (Gamma React)
Main principle: Affinity adherence of IgG sensitized erythrocytes to an immunologically active matrix Used for antibody screening, identification, and compatibility testing
Luminex-Based Assay
Bead-based assay using fluorescence and flow cytometry to test for platelet/HA antibodies
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