Biology Quiz on Cellular Processes
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Questions and Answers

What are the four most abundant elements in the human body?

  • C, H, O, S
  • C, O, H, Na
  • C, N, H, P
  • C, N, O, H (correct)

What structural feature developed during the evolution from prokaryotic to eukaryotic cells?

  • Nuclear membranes (correct)
  • Cell wall
  • Ribosomes
  • Chloroplasts

For a reaction with delta H = 23 kJ/mol and delta S = 22 J/kmol at 2 degrees Celsius, what can be inferred about the reaction's spontaneity?

  • The reaction is at equilibrium.
  • The reaction is spontaneous.
  • The reaction is nonspontaneous. (correct)
  • The reaction is reversible.

Which type of noncovalent interaction is considered the strongest?

<p>Ionic interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many atoms in one urea molecule can act as hydrogen bond acceptors?

<p>3 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily the role of DNA Pol 1 in a prokaryotic replisome?

<p>Replace RNA primers with DNA primarily on the lagging strand (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is responsible for recognizing the promoter in prokaryotic transcription?

<p>Sigma factor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of mutation can result from the insertion or deletion of one or two nucleotides?

<p>Frameshift mutation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature is not found in tRNA?

<p>Terminal phosphate arm (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What links the correct amino acid to its specific tRNA?

<p>Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the start codon during translation in prokaryotes?

<p>It pairs with the 16S rRNA at the Shine-Dalgarno sequence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the order of steps in the elongation phase of protein synthesis?

<p>AA-tRNA binding, peptide bond formation, translocation, tRNA release. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when a stop codon is reached during translation?

<p>A release factor binds, and the growing peptide is released from the tRNA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of translation does the A site of the ribosome play a crucial role?

<p>Elongation phase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Among the following, which statement correctly describes the structure of all tRNAs?

<p>All tRNAs have an L shape critical for ribosomal positioning. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the elongation factor EF-G during translation?

<p>It facilitates translocation of tRNAs in the ribosome. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which strand of DNA serves as the template during transcription?

<p>The antisense or noncoding strand. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which restriction enzyme produces blunt end fragments?

<p>AluI. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of cytosine residues is present if adenine (A) and thymine (T) are both 12%?

<p>38% (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes why RNA can store genetic information?

<p>RNA in retroviruses is capable of storing and transmitting genetic information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of genetic material?

<p>The material should perform a read only function. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic of B-DNA allows for protein binding that regulates transcription?

<p>The major groove is wide and deep. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What enhances the high fidelity of DNA Polymerase I in synthesizing new DNA?

<p>3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about DNA Polymerase III is TRUE?

<p>Pol III lacks 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the fidelity of replication is FALSE?

<p>All mutations disrupt cell viability. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a new DNA polymerase exhibits high processivity and low fidelity, which of the following is likely true?

<p>It can remove RNA primers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of proteoglycans in tissues like cartilage?

<p>To resist compression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about bacterial cell walls is true?

<p>They provide rigidity and help bacteria survive in hypotonic environments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In N-linked glycosylation, to which amino acid is N-acetylglucosamine attached?

<p>Asparagine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the structural feature of lipids that makes them generally insoluble in water?

<p>Hydrophobic or amphiphilic nature (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of glycosylation occurs at serine or threonine residues?

<p>O-linked glycosylation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of lipids is primarily involved in biological membranes?

<p>Phospholipids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key function of selectins in the immune system?

<p>To facilitate the binding of leukocytes to endothelial cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What molecular architecture do proteoglycans exhibit?

<p>Bottle brush-like with glycosaminoglycans extending from a central core (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of glycosaminoglycans in the body?

<p>To provide structural support and shock absorption (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the structure of hyaluronate?

<p>It is made of repeating beta 1 to 4 linked disaccharides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant property of heparin?

<p>It acts as a potent anticoagulant (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does low shear stress have on the viscosity of hyaluronate?

<p>It forms tangled masses, increasing resistance to flow (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do tetanus and botulinum toxins affect SNARE proteins?

<p>They cleave Snares, preventing vesicle fusion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural feature distinguishes glycosaminoglycans from other polysaccharides?

<p>They are linear polysaccharides with disaccharide units (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pectin serves a role similar to glycosaminoglycans in animals. What is its primary feature?

<p>It contributes to the structural rigidity of plant cell walls (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of biofilms produced by bacteria?

<p>To protect against environmental threats (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs during the first stage of virus-mediated membrane fusion?

<p>Host cell recognition by the virus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary energy storage form in animals?

<p>Triacylglycerols (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of fatty acids contains cis double bonds that lower their melting points?

<p>Unsaturated fatty acids (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the structure of a phospholipid bilayer?

<p>Hydrophobic tails face inward while hydrophilic heads face outward. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of cholesterol in animal cells?

<p>To maintain membrane fluidity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a type of steroid hormone derived from cholesterol?

<p>Triacylglycerols (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes a characteristic of eukaryotic cells compared to prokaryotic cells?

<p>Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors determine whether a reaction is spontaneous at a given temperature?

<p>The reaction's enthalpy and entropy changes are both important. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do the hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms in urea serve in chemical interactions?

<p>They can act as hydrogen bond acceptors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best explains the hydrophobic effect in biological systems?

<p>It is an entropic effect driven by water's tendency to exclude nonpolar substances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about ionic interactions is true in comparison to other noncovalent interactions?

<p>Ionic interactions are stronger than both hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What property of a buffer system primarily allows it to resist changes in pH?

<p>The concentration of both the weak acid and its conjugate base (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) play during DNA replication?

<p>They prevent the DNA strands from reannealing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the function of the Tus protein during DNA replication in E. coli?

<p>It binds to ter sites to halt the movement of the replication fork (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What sequence of events characterizes the role of transfer RNA during protein synthesis?

<p>It carries amino acids to the ribosome for incorporation into the polypeptide chain (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are nucleotides linked together in nucleic acids?

<p>By phosphodiester bonds forming a sugar-phosphate backbone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What percentage of cytosine residues is expected if adenine and thymine are each 12%?

<p>38% (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the capability of RNA in genetic information?

<p>RNA is capable of storing and transmitting genetic information. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the major groove of B-DNA?

<p>It is wide and deep. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does DNA Polymerase I exhibit high fidelity during DNA synthesis?

<p>Due to its 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about DNA Polymerase III is TRUE?

<p>It is highly efficient and lacks 5' to 3' exonuclease activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about fidelity of DNA replication is FALSE?

<p>DNA point mutations always disrupt cell viability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the presence of 5' to 3' exonuclease activity in a new DNA polymerase suggest?

<p>It can remove RNA primers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are certain amino acids referred to as 'L' amino acids?

<p>They correlate with L-glyceraldehyde configuration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amino acids are known to absorb strongly at 280 nm in the UV region?

<p>Aromatic amino acids (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physical characteristic is typically not considered in protein separation methods?

<p>Stereochemistry (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of bond links the two peptides mentioned in the diagram?

<p>Disulfide bond (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason SDS-PAGE separates proteins?

<p>By their masses (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of linkage occurs between an amino acid and its corresponding tRNA?

<p>Carboxyl group of AA linked to 3’ OH of tRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the alpha helix is not true?

<p>Glycine is a common amino acid in alpha helices. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What stabilizes beta sheets most effectively?

<p>Antiparallel hydrogen bonding (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following forces do not contribute to protein stabilization?

<p>Disulfide bridges (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do molecular chaperones play in protein structure dynamics?

<p>Ensuring proper folding and preventing aggregation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotic translation?

<p>It pairs with the start codon allowing ribosome initiation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which site of the ribosome binds the new incoming amino acid-tRNA during elongation?

<p>A site (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does polypeptide synthesis progress in terms of direction?

<p>From the N-terminus to the C-terminus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs at the ribosome when a stop codon is encountered?

<p>A release factor binds, releasing the synthesized protein. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct sequence of steps during the elongation phase of protein synthesis?

<p>AA-tRNA binding, peptide bond formation, translocation, tRNA release (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the 30S ribosomal subunit in prokaryotes?

<p>It recognizes and binds mRNA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature is essential for proper ribosome positioning of tRNAs?

<p>The L shape of all tRNAs (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of elongation factor EF-G in translation?

<p>It promotes translocation of tRNAs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of buffers determines their capacity to resist pH changes?

<p>The total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function does single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) serve during DNA replication?

<p>They stabilize separated DNA strands to prevent reannealing (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the primer in DNA replication?

<p>It allows the addition of nucleotides during DNA synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Tus protein contribute to the termination of replication in E. coli?

<p>It binds to specific ter sites to halt the replication fork (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?

<p>To deliver specific amino acids to ribosomes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes how unsaturated fatty acids differ from saturated fatty acids?

<p>Unsaturated fatty acids contain cis double bonds that prevent tight packing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best explains the role of cholesterol in cell membranes?

<p>Cholesterol maintains membrane fluidity and integrity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which functional group is characteristic of steroid hormones derived from cholesterol?

<p>Hydroxyl group (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature of the phospholipid bilayer contributes to its fluidity?

<p>Lateral movement of lipids and proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What explains the fidelity of DNA polymerase 1 during DNA synthesis?

<p>3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity that removes mismatched nucleotides (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding DNA polymerase 3 is true?

<p>It is highly efficient in DNA replication without 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is RNA capable of storing genetic information?

<p>RNA, as seen in retroviruses, can store and transmit genetic information (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the major groove in B-DNA is accurate?

<p>It allows binding of proteins that regulate transcription and replication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What statement accurately reflects a requirement of genetic material?

<p>It needs to be able to mutate, replicate, and direct protein synthesis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the fidelity of DNA replication is false?

<p>Minor mutations are always detrimental to cell viability (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic allows a new DNA polymerase to have high processivity but low fidelity?

<p>Its capacity to remove RNA and damaged DNA while synthesizing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the role of exonuclease activity in DNA duplication?

<p>It can replace mismatched nucleotides during replication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main structural unit that contributes to the rigidity of bacterial cell walls?

<p>Peptidoglycan (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the consequence of penicillin's mechanism of action?

<p>It inhibits the crosslinking of peptidoglycan strands. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do selectins play in the immune system?

<p>They mediate cell-cell interactions during immune responses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of glycosylation involves attaching sugars stepwise and post-translationally to serine or threonine residues?

<p>O-linked glycosylation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature characterizes the molecular architecture of proteoglycans?

<p>Central protein core with extending glycosaminoglycans (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What aspect of lipids contributes to their solubility in organic solvents but not in water?

<p>Hydrophobic and amphiphilic properties (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of glycosylation in proteins?

<p>To aid in protein structure, function, and cell communication (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about fatty acids is true?

<p>Fatty acids can be both saturated and unsaturated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the structural feature of glycosaminoglycans?

<p>They are linear chains with repeating disaccharide units. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes hyaluronate's behavior under varying shear states?

<p>It becomes more resistant to flow under high shear. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of heparin in mammalian tissues?

<p>To serve as an anticoagulant. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes pectin's composition?

<p>It is made of alpha 1 to 4 linked galacturonate residues. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What unique characteristic do sulfated glycosaminoglycans, such as heparin, have?

<p>They have numerous negatively charged sulfate groups. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do bacterial polysaccharides play in biofilms?

<p>They provide resistance to environmental threats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the carbohydrate chains in glycoproteins?

<p>They mediate protein-to-protein interactions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do glycosaminoglycans contribute to tissue function?

<p>By providing structural support and lubrication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What alters the viscosity of hyaluronate when shear stress is varied?

<p>The alignment of the molecules with the flow direction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily determines the absorbance at 280 nm in proteins?

<p>Aromatic amino acids (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the stability of beta sheets is accurate?

<p>Antiparallel beta sheets are more stable than parallel beta sheets (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these factors is least likely to cause protein denaturation?

<p>Reduced molecular disorder (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What reflects the primary method of separation in SDS-PAGE?

<p>Differences in mass of proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of bond connects amino acids to their cognate tRNA?

<p>Carboxyl group to 3' OH of tRNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is not commonly used in protein separation methods?

<p>Stereochemistry (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of molecular chaperones in protein folding?

<p>Facilitate the correct folding process (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In protein dynamics studies, which method is most useful for monitoring changes in protein conformation over time?

<p>Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amino acid is least likely to be found in an alpha helix?

<p>Glycine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about protein structure is false?

<p>Electrostatic interactions are covalent bonds (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What are the four most abundant elements in the human body?

The four most abundant elements in the human body are Carbon (C), Nitrogen (N), Oxygen (O), and Hydrogen (H). These elements form the building blocks of essential biomolecules like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

What cellular structure evolved in eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells?

Nuclear membranes are a defining characteristic of eukaryotic cells, which evolved from prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles.

What type of reaction is nonspontaneous?

A reaction with a positive Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) is considered nonspontaneous. This means the reaction requires energy input in the form of heat to proceed.

What is the strongest noncovalent interaction?

Ionic interactions are the strongest type of noncovalent interactions. They occur between oppositely charged particles, forming electrostatic attractions stronger than hydrogen bonds or van der Waals forces.

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How many hydrogen bond acceptors are in a urea molecule?

Urea contains three atoms that can act as hydrogen bond acceptors: one oxygen atom and two nitrogen atoms. Each of these atoms has a lone pair of electrons capable of forming hydrogen bonds.

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What enzymes are involved in DNA unwinding and replication?

DNA ligase (A) seals gaps in DNA strands, the clamp loader (D) increases the efficiency of DNA polymerase 3, and helicase (B) unwinds the DNA double helix during replication.

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Why are there two DNA polymerases in prokaryotic replication?

DNA polymerase 1 replaces RNA primers with DNA, which is primarily necessary on the lagging strand due to the formation of Okazaki fragments. DNA polymerase 3 replicates both strands continuously.

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What is a frameshift mutation?

Insertions or deletions of nucleotides that are not multiples of three can shift the reading frame of the DNA sequence, altering the entire downstream protein sequence.

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How does the sigma factor help initiate transcription in prokaryotes?

The sigma factor recognizes and binds to specific base sequences in the promoter region of DNA, facilitating the binding of RNA polymerase and initiating transcription.

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What enzyme links amino acids to tRNA?

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is a specific enzyme that covalently attaches the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule.

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Percentage of Cytosine

The percentage of cytosine (C) residues in a DNA molecule is equal to the percentage of guanine (G) residues. If adenine (A) is 12% and thymine (T) is 12%, then C and G together make up 76%. Since C and G have equal percentages, each represents 38% of the DNA.

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RNA and Genetic Information?

RNA can store genetic information, as seen in retroviruses. These viruses use RNA as their genetic material to replicate and transmit their genetic information.

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Requirements of Genetic Material

Genetic material must be able to mutate, replicate, and direct protein synthesis. It cannot function only as a read-only system because evolution requires changes in genetic information.

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Major Groove in B-DNA

The major groove in B-DNA is wide and deep. This allows proteins involved in transcription and replication to bind and interact with the DNA sequence.

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Fidelity of DNA Polymerase 1

DNA polymerase 1 (Pol 1) has 3' to 5' exonuclease activity. This activity allows the polymerase to proofread the newly synthesized DNA strand and remove any mismatched nucleotides, ensuring high fidelity.

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Characteristics of DNA Polymerase 3

DNA polymerase 3 (Pol 3) is the primary replicase for E. coli. It has a high turnover rate, meaning it can replicate DNA quickly. It lacks 5' to 3' exonuclease activity, but it has high processivity, making it efficient in replicating DNA.

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Cell Viability and Mutations

Cells have mechanisms to tolerate or repair minor mutations. While mutations can sometimes disrupt cell viability, they are not always fatal. Cells have evolved to handle minor variations in their genetic code.

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New DNA Polymerase with 5' to 3' Exonuclease Activity

The presence of 5' to 3' exonuclease activity in a new DNA polymerase suggests that it can remove RNA primers or damaged DNA. This ability is associated with DNA polymerases that have both high processivity and low fidelity.

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What are lipids?

They are a class of macromolecules that are generally composed of hydrocarbons and are hydrophobic or amphiphilic.

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What are fatty acids?

They are carboxylic acids with long hydrocarbon chains that can be saturated (no double bonds) or unsaturated (with double bonds).

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What are triacylglycerols?

They are fatty acid triesters of glycerol and are the primary energy storage molecules in animals.

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What are phospholipids?

They are major components of membranes and consist of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acid tails, and a polar head group. They play a crucial role in forming cell membranes.

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What are sphingolipids?

They are derived from sphingosine and play roles in cell recognition, adhesion, and signaling. They are important for cell communication and interactions.

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What are proteoglycans?

They are proteins covalently attached to glycosaminoglycans with a bottle brush-like molecular architecture extending from the central protein core. They form hydrated gels providing resilience to tissues like cartilage.

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What is peptidoglycan?

They are polymers composed of alternating beta 1-4 linked N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid. They provide rigidity to bacterial cell walls and allow bacteria to live in hypotonic environments.

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What are lectins?

They are carbohydrate binding proteins that mediate cell-cell interactions. They are involved in various biological processes like immune responses and cell adhesion.

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What is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a ribosomal binding site in prokaryotic mRNA, located upstream of the start codon. It is a purine-rich sequence that interacts with the 16S rRNA in the small ribosomal subunit, facilitating the initiation of translation.

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What is the A site of the ribosome?

The A site (aminoacyl site) of the ribosome is where the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds during elongation. This site is crucial for the addition of new amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.

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How is a polypeptide chain synthesized?

The process of polypeptide synthesis begins at the N-terminus (amino terminus) and proceeds towards the C-terminus (carboxyl terminus). It's like a 'chain' of amino acids being built from 'head' to 'tail.'

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What happens when a stop codon is encountered during translation?

When a ribosome encounters a stop codon, a release factor binds to the codon. This binding triggers the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome. The stop codon acts as a signal to end protein synthesis.

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What are the steps involved in the elongation of a polypeptide chain?

The elongation of a polypeptide chain involves four steps: 1. Binding of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site, 2. Peptide bond formation between the incoming amino acid and the polypeptide chain, 3. Translocation of the ribosome to the next codon, and 4. Release of the tRNA from the E site.

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How does the ribosome bind to mRNA in prokaryotes?

In prokaryotes, the small ribosomal subunit (30S) binds to mRNA. This subunit recognizes and binds specifically to the mRNA, initiating the process of translation.

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What is the shape of tRNA?

All tRNAs have a characteristic L-shape. This unique structure is crucial for their interaction with the ribosome, ensuring proper positioning and facilitating the delivery of amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain.

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What is the role of EF-G in translation?

The elongation factor EF-G promotes translocation of the tRNAs within the ribosome. After a peptide bond is formed, EF-G shifts the tRNAs along the ribosome, moving them to new sites (A to P, P to E) to continue the translation process.

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Snare Proteins

Proteins that mediate vesicle fusion by forming a complex that brings the vesicle and target membranes together.

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Tetanus and Botulinum Toxins

Toxins produced by bacteria that cleave SNARE proteins, disrupting vesicle fusion and neurotransmission.

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Virus Mediated Membrane Fusion

A process that involves three stages: host cell recognition, activation of the viral membrane, and fusion of the viral membrane with a host cell membrane.

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Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

Linear polysaccharides composed of repeating disaccharide units, each consisting of uronic acid and hexosamine.

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Hyaluronate (Hyaluronic Acid)

A type of GAG that is unique for its ability to bind water and expand up to 1,000 times its dry state.

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Heparin

A highly sulfated GAG with anticoagulant properties.

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Heparan Sulfate

A GAG with fewer sulfates and more N-acetyl groups found on cell surfaces and in the extracellular matrix.

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Pectin

A major component of plant cell walls, providing structural rigidity.

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Biofilms

Extracellular matrices secreted by bacteria, composed of hydrated polysaccharides.

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Poly-D-Glucuronate and Poly-N-acetylglucosamine

A polysaccharide found in biofilms, composed of poly-D-glucuronate and poly-N-acetylglucosamine.

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Buffer Resistance to pH Change

The capacity of a buffer to resist changes in pH upon the addition of protons or hydroxide ions is dependent on the pKa of the weak acid, the pH of the buffer, and the total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base in the buffer.

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Phosphodiester Bonds

Phosphodiester bonds link nucleotides together to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA and RNA.

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SSB Role in Replication

Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSBs) prevent separated DNA strands from reannealing during replication.

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Tus Protein and Replication Termination

Tus protein binds to specific sites called Ter sites in E. coli to terminate replication fork movement.

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Role of RNA Primer

A short RNA primer provides a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.

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What kind of reaction is nonspontaneous?

A reaction with a positive Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) is considered nonspontaneous. This means the reaction requires energy input in the form of heat to proceed. The reaction will not occur naturally on its own.

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What is the role of the start codon in prokaryotic translation?

The start codon pairs with the 16S rRNA at the shine dalgarno sequence in prokaryotic translation.

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What is the function of the A site in the ribosome?

The A site binds incoming aminoacyl-tRNA during elongation. This is where the new amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain.

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How is polypeptide synthesis directional?

Proteins are synthesized from the N-terminus to the C-terminus. It's like making a chain and adding the links one by one from the beginning to the end.

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What happens when a stop codon is reached during translation?

When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, release factors bind and the synthesized protein is released from the ribosome.

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What is the shape of tRNA molecules?

All tRNAs have an L-shape, which is important for their interaction with the ribosome. Think of it like a specific puzzle piece fitting into its matching slot.

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What are saturated fatty acids?

They are found primarily in neural tissues and consist of saturated fat with straight chains that pack tightly. This results in a higher melting point, making them solid at room temperature.

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What are unsaturated fatty acids?

These lipids contain cis double bonds that prevent tight packing, thus lowering their melting points and making them liquid at room temperature. They are commonly found in plant oils.

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What is cholesterol?

They are the most abundant steroid in animals. They are found in plasma membranes and serve as a precursor for steroid hormones. They are essential for maintaining membrane fluidity.

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L-Amino Acids

Amino acids that have a configuration of groups around the alpha carbon similar to L-glyceraldehyde. This is determined by their optical activity, as they rotate plane-polarized light.

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Aromatic Amino Acids and UV Absorbance

Aromatic amino acids, such as tryptophan, tyrosine, and phenylalanine, strongly absorb UV light at 280 nm, allowing for protein quantification using spectrophotometry.

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Stereochemistry in Protein Separation

Stereochemistry, which describes the spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, is not typically used for separating proteins.

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Disulfide Bond in Peptides

A disulfide bond is a covalent bond formed between two cysteine residues in a protein, linking two polypeptide chains or different sections of the same chain.

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SDS-PAGE Separation Principle

SDS-PAGE separates proteins primarily by their mass, not their charge, since SDS coats the proteins with a uniform negative charge.

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Amino Acid - tRNA Linkage

The carboxyl group of an amino acid is covalently linked to the 3' hydroxyl group of its corresponding tRNA.

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Glycine in Alpha Helices

Glycine rarely appears in alpha helices because its flexibility disrupts the regular structure needed for helix formation.

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Stability of Beta Sheets

Antiparallel beta sheets are more stable than parallel beta sheets due to the optimal hydrogen bonding between the strands.

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4-Hydroxyproline and Alpha Keratin

Blocking the biosynthesis of 4-hydroxyproline does not affect alpha keratin, as this amino acid is primarily associated with collagen, not keratin.

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First Step in Protein Folding

The formation of secondary structure, such as alpha helices and beta sheets, is the initial step in the folding of a disordered polypeptide chain into a functional protein.

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Buffer capacity

The capacity of a buffer to resist changes in pH when acids or bases are added. This ability depends on the pKa of the weak acid, the pH of the buffer, and the total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base.

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Single-stranded DNA-binding proteins (SSBs)

Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA, preventing it from reannealing during replication. This allows the replication machinery to access the DNA strands.

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Tus protein

A protein in E. coli that binds to specific DNA sequences (ter sites) to stop the movement of replication forks, ensuring that replication ends at the correct locations.

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RNA primer

A short segment of RNA that provides a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase. It primes the process of DNA replication, so that DNA polymerase can build upon it.

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Proteoglycans

Proteins covalently attached to glycosaminoglycans, forming hydrated gels that give resilience to tissues like cartilage.

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Bacterial cell walls (peptidoglycan)

Consist of alternating beta 1-4 linked N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid, providing rigidity to bacterial cell walls.

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N-linked glycosylation

Involves the attachment of N-acetylglucosamine to asparagine in the sequence ASN-X-Ser/Thr.

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O-linked glycosylation

Occurs at ser/thr residues, often involving galactose or other sugars added stepwise and post-translationally.

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Selectins

Specialized lectins on leukocytes that bind to endothelial cells, facilitating immune responses.

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Lipids

Hydrophobic or amphiphilic molecules mainly composed of hydrocarbons.

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Fatty acids

Carboxylic acids with long hydrocarbon chains that can be saturated or unsaturated.

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Disulfide Bonds in Proteins

Disulfide bonds are covalent linkages formed between two cysteine residues within a protein. They contribute to protein structure and stability.

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Role of Molecular Chaperones

Molecular chaperones are proteins that help other proteins fold correctly, preventing incorrect interactions and aggregation. They can also help to refold proteins that have been damaged by heat.

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Saturated Fatty Acids

Fatty acids with straight chains that pack tightly, resulting in a higher melting point and making them solid at room temperature. They are primarily found in animal fats.

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Unsaturated Fatty Acids

Fatty acids with cis double bonds that prevent tight packing, leading to lower melting points and making them liquid at room temperature. Common in plant oils.

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Cholesterol

The most abundant steroid in animals, found in plasma membranes and serving as a precursor for steroid hormones. They are essential for maintaining membrane fluidity.

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Phospholipids

A type of lipid that forms the basic structure of cell membranes. They have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails, allowing them to form a bilayer.

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Integral Membrane Proteins

Integral membrane proteins that span the lipid bilayer and are involved in various functions like catalysis, transport, and signaling.

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Study Notes

Exam 1

  • Four most abundant elements in the human body are C, N, O, and H.
  • They form the majority of biomolecules including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
  • Nuclear membranes developed during the evolution of eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells.
  • Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles.
  • A reaction with ΔH = 23 kJ/mol and ΔS = 22 J/kmol at 2°C is nonspontaneous because ΔG is positive.
  • Ionic interactions are the strongest type of noncovalent interactions, occurring between oppositely charged particles.
  • In a urea molecule, 3 atoms can act as hydrogen bond acceptors.
  • The hydrophobic effect is an entropy effect, where water molecules increase their entropy by excluding hydrophobic groups, surrounding them with highly ordered structures.
  • A buffer resists pH changes due to its weak acid/base pairs' pKa, buffer pH, and overall concentration.
  • Nucleic acids are composed of nucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds forming a sugar-phosphate backbone in DNA and RNA.
  • Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) stabilize separated DNA strands during replication.
  • Termination of replication fork movement in E. coli involves Tus protein binding to Ter sites.

Exam 2

  • A short RNA primer provides a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.
  • Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules deliver specific amino acids to ribosomes during translation.
  • A double-stranded DNA fragment with 12% adenine has 38% cytosine.
  • RNA can store genetic information, as seen in retroviruses.
  • Genetic material must mutate, replicate, and direct protein synthesis, not just act as a read-only system.
  • The major groove in B-DNA allows protein binding for transcription and replication regulation.
  • DNA polymerase 1 has a 3' to 5' exonuclease activity for proofreading and removing mismatched nucleotides.
  • DNA polymerase 3 is the primary replicase in E. coli, with a high turnover rate and lacking 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.
  • Cells mechanisms can tolerate or repair minor DNA point mutations.
  • DNA polymerase with high processivity, low fidelity, and RNA/DNA replacement ability likely has a 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.

Exam 3

  • Insertions or deletions of one or two nucleotides cause frameshift mutations, altering the entire downstream protein sequence.
  • Sigma factor recognizes a promoter helping RNA polymerase bind and initiate transcription.
  • Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase covalently attaches the correct amino acid to tRNA.
  • Base-pairing between mRNA's start codon and the 16S rRNA allows ribosome selection of the proper initiation codon.
  • Elongation occurs at the A site of the ribosome where new incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds.
  • Synthesis proceeds from the N-terminus to C-terminus.
  • Release factors bind to a stop codon, releasing the growing peptide.
  • The small ribosomal subunit recognizes and binds mRNA in prokaryotes.
  • All tRNAs adopt an L-shape.
  • The antisense strand acts as the template for mRNA synthesis during transcription.
  • Alul restriction enzyme produces blunt-end fragments.
  • Transformed organisms are identified using antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids.
  • Most human proteins are conserved across different species.
  • The reaction needs DNA, primers, dNTPs, and thermostable DNA polymerase to perform PCR.
  • Formation of a dipeptide from two amino acids involves the loss of water.
  • Aspartic acid can be a conservative substitute for Glu.

Exam 4

  • Ribosomes use L-amino acids for protein synthesis.
  • Amino acids have a specific configuration (L-configuration) relating to L-glyceraldehyde.
  • Aromatic amino acids have high absorbance at 280 nm (UV region).
  • Stereochemistry is not a typical protein separation method.
  • Disulfide bonds link cysteine residues in proteins.
  • SDS-PAGE separates proteins based on mass.
  • The carboxyl group of an amino acid is linked to the 3'OH of tRNA.
  • Glycine is rarely found in alpha helices due to its inflexibility and impact on structure.
  • Parallel beta sheets are more stable than antiparallel beta sheets.
  • Blocking 4-hydroxyproline synthesis does not affect keratin, as it is not collagen-related.
  • Secondary structure formation is the first step in protein folding.
  • Disulfide bridges are covalent bonds.

Additional Exam Notes

  • pH, temperature, and ionic strength disrupt protein structure.
  • Molecular chaperones facilitate protein folding.
  • NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) is used to study protein conformational changes over time.
  • B cells produce antibodies for humoral immunity.
  • Glycines are crucial in collagen triplex-helix formation.
  • Enzymes are required for efficient nucleophilic catalysis.
  • Acetylcholinesterase is inactivated by DIPF (irreversible inhibitor).
  • Oxyanion holes stabilize transition states during protease catalysis.
  • IgG molecules have two antigen-binding sites.
  • Cofactors are enzyme helpers.
  • Transition metals are a common example of metallic enzyme helpers.
  • General acid catalysis lowers activation energy through proton transfer.
  • Methyl groups are poor nucleophilic catalysts.
  • The conformations of molecules like NAM’s D ring contribute to the catalytic energy in lysozyme reactions.

Chapter 8

  • Glycosaminoglycans are linear polysaccharides.
  • They are located in extracellular matrices, providing structural support, lubrication, and shock absorption.
  • Hyaluronate is composed of repeating disaccharides.
  • High shear aligns and low shear creates tangled masses.
  • Heparin is highly sulfated, acting as an anticoagulant.
  • Heparan sulfate is similar to heparin but has fewer sulfates and more N-acetyl groups.
  • Plant polysaccharides include pectin, which has alpha-1,4-linked galacturonate residues interspersed with rhamnose.

Chapter 9

  • Sphingolipids occur in brain and nervous tissue membranes and act as receptors.
  • Gangliosides are involved in cell recognition and adhesion.
  • Cholesterol is essential for maintaining membrane fluidity.
  • Protein synthesis and trafficking use vesicle transport.

Chapter 10

  • Carbohydrates are generally composed of hydrocarbons and are insoluble in water.

Chapter 11

  • Pectins are plant shock absorbers.
  • Starch is the energy reserve in plants.
  • Glycogen is the storage carbohydrate in animals.
  • Many enzymes are required for efficient carbohydrate digestion.

Additional Notes

  • Viral membrane fusion involves stages of host cell recognition, activation of the viral membrane, and fusion with the host cell membrane.
  • Lectins are carbohydrate-binding proteins that facilitate interactions between cells.

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Test your knowledge on fundamental concepts of biology, including the composition of the human body, the evolution of cells, and the intricacies of DNA and protein synthesis. This quiz covers essential topics like transcription, translation, and the roles of various molecules in cellular processes.

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