Biology Quiz on Cellular Processes
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Questions and Answers

What are the four most abundant elements in the human body?

  • C, H, O, S
  • C, O, H, Na
  • C, N, H, P
  • C, N, O, H (correct)
  • What structural feature developed during the evolution from prokaryotic to eukaryotic cells?

  • Nuclear membranes (correct)
  • Cell wall
  • Ribosomes
  • Chloroplasts
  • For a reaction with delta H = 23 kJ/mol and delta S = 22 J/kmol at 2 degrees Celsius, what can be inferred about the reaction's spontaneity?

  • The reaction is at equilibrium.
  • The reaction is spontaneous.
  • The reaction is nonspontaneous. (correct)
  • The reaction is reversible.
  • Which type of noncovalent interaction is considered the strongest?

    <p>Ionic interactions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many atoms in one urea molecule can act as hydrogen bond acceptors?

    <p>3</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is primarily the role of DNA Pol 1 in a prokaryotic replisome?

    <p>Replace RNA primers with DNA primarily on the lagging strand</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is responsible for recognizing the promoter in prokaryotic transcription?

    <p>Sigma factor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of mutation can result from the insertion or deletion of one or two nucleotides?

    <p>Frameshift mutation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which structural feature is not found in tRNA?

    <p>Terminal phosphate arm</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What links the correct amino acid to its specific tRNA?

    <p>Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the start codon during translation in prokaryotes?

    <p>It pairs with the 16S rRNA at the Shine-Dalgarno sequence.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following describes the order of steps in the elongation phase of protein synthesis?

    <p>AA-tRNA binding, peptide bond formation, translocation, tRNA release.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when a stop codon is reached during translation?

    <p>A release factor binds, and the growing peptide is released from the tRNA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During which phase of translation does the A site of the ribosome play a crucial role?

    <p>Elongation phase.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Among the following, which statement correctly describes the structure of all tRNAs?

    <p>All tRNAs have an L shape critical for ribosomal positioning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the elongation factor EF-G during translation?

    <p>It facilitates translocation of tRNAs in the ribosome.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which strand of DNA serves as the template during transcription?

    <p>The antisense or noncoding strand.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which restriction enzyme produces blunt end fragments?

    <p>AluI.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of cytosine residues is present if adenine (A) and thymine (T) are both 12%?

    <p>38%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes why RNA can store genetic information?

    <p>RNA in retroviruses is capable of storing and transmitting genetic information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a requirement of genetic material?

    <p>The material should perform a read only function.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic of B-DNA allows for protein binding that regulates transcription?

    <p>The major groove is wide and deep.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What enhances the high fidelity of DNA Polymerase I in synthesizing new DNA?

    <p>3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about DNA Polymerase III is TRUE?

    <p>Pol III lacks 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement regarding the fidelity of replication is FALSE?

    <p>All mutations disrupt cell viability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If a new DNA polymerase exhibits high processivity and low fidelity, which of the following is likely true?

    <p>It can remove RNA primers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of proteoglycans in tissues like cartilage?

    <p>To resist compression</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about bacterial cell walls is true?

    <p>They provide rigidity and help bacteria survive in hypotonic environments.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In N-linked glycosylation, to which amino acid is N-acetylglucosamine attached?

    <p>Asparagine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the structural feature of lipids that makes them generally insoluble in water?

    <p>Hydrophobic or amphiphilic nature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glycosylation occurs at serine or threonine residues?

    <p>O-linked glycosylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of lipids is primarily involved in biological membranes?

    <p>Phospholipids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key function of selectins in the immune system?

    <p>To facilitate the binding of leukocytes to endothelial cells</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What molecular architecture do proteoglycans exhibit?

    <p>Bottle brush-like with glycosaminoglycans extending from a central core</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of glycosaminoglycans in the body?

    <p>To provide structural support and shock absorption</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the structure of hyaluronate?

    <p>It is made of repeating beta 1 to 4 linked disaccharides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant property of heparin?

    <p>It acts as a potent anticoagulant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What effect does low shear stress have on the viscosity of hyaluronate?

    <p>It forms tangled masses, increasing resistance to flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do tetanus and botulinum toxins affect SNARE proteins?

    <p>They cleave Snares, preventing vesicle fusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What structural feature distinguishes glycosaminoglycans from other polysaccharides?

    <p>They are linear polysaccharides with disaccharide units</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pectin serves a role similar to glycosaminoglycans in animals. What is its primary feature?

    <p>It contributes to the structural rigidity of plant cell walls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of biofilms produced by bacteria?

    <p>To protect against environmental threats</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs during the first stage of virus-mediated membrane fusion?

    <p>Host cell recognition by the virus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary energy storage form in animals?

    <p>Triacylglycerols</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of fatty acids contains cis double bonds that lower their melting points?

    <p>Unsaturated fatty acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the structure of a phospholipid bilayer?

    <p>Hydrophobic tails face inward while hydrophilic heads face outward.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of cholesterol in animal cells?

    <p>To maintain membrane fluidity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT a type of steroid hormone derived from cholesterol?

    <p>Triacylglycerols</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes a characteristic of eukaryotic cells compared to prokaryotic cells?

    <p>Eukaryotic cells possess membrane-bound organelles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors determine whether a reaction is spontaneous at a given temperature?

    <p>The reaction's enthalpy and entropy changes are both important.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do the hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms in urea serve in chemical interactions?

    <p>They can act as hydrogen bond acceptors.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement best explains the hydrophobic effect in biological systems?

    <p>It is an entropic effect driven by water's tendency to exclude nonpolar substances.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about ionic interactions is true in comparison to other noncovalent interactions?

    <p>Ionic interactions are stronger than both hydrogen bonds and van der Waals forces.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What property of a buffer system primarily allows it to resist changes in pH?

    <p>The concentration of both the weak acid and its conjugate base</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) play during DNA replication?

    <p>They prevent the DNA strands from reannealing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes the function of the Tus protein during DNA replication in E. coli?

    <p>It binds to ter sites to halt the movement of the replication fork</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What sequence of events characterizes the role of transfer RNA during protein synthesis?

    <p>It carries amino acids to the ribosome for incorporation into the polypeptide chain</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How are nucleotides linked together in nucleic acids?

    <p>By phosphodiester bonds forming a sugar-phosphate backbone</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What percentage of cytosine residues is expected if adenine and thymine are each 12%?

    <p>38%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes the capability of RNA in genetic information?

    <p>RNA is capable of storing and transmitting genetic information.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characterizes the major groove of B-DNA?

    <p>It is wide and deep.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why does DNA Polymerase I exhibit high fidelity during DNA synthesis?

    <p>Due to its 3' to 5' exonuclease activity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about DNA Polymerase III is TRUE?

    <p>It is highly efficient and lacks 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about fidelity of DNA replication is FALSE?

    <p>DNA point mutations always disrupt cell viability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the presence of 5' to 3' exonuclease activity in a new DNA polymerase suggest?

    <p>It can remove RNA primers.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are certain amino acids referred to as 'L' amino acids?

    <p>They correlate with L-glyceraldehyde configuration.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acids are known to absorb strongly at 280 nm in the UV region?

    <p>Aromatic amino acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which physical characteristic is typically not considered in protein separation methods?

    <p>Stereochemistry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of bond links the two peptides mentioned in the diagram?

    <p>Disulfide bond</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason SDS-PAGE separates proteins?

    <p>By their masses</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of linkage occurs between an amino acid and its corresponding tRNA?

    <p>Carboxyl group of AA linked to 3’ OH of tRNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the alpha helix is not true?

    <p>Glycine is a common amino acid in alpha helices.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What stabilizes beta sheets most effectively?

    <p>Antiparallel hydrogen bonding</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following forces do not contribute to protein stabilization?

    <p>Disulfide bridges</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do molecular chaperones play in protein structure dynamics?

    <p>Ensuring proper folding and preventing aggregation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotic translation?

    <p>It pairs with the start codon allowing ribosome initiation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which site of the ribosome binds the new incoming amino acid-tRNA during elongation?

    <p>A site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does polypeptide synthesis progress in terms of direction?

    <p>From the N-terminus to the C-terminus</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What occurs at the ribosome when a stop codon is encountered?

    <p>A release factor binds, releasing the synthesized protein.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the correct sequence of steps during the elongation phase of protein synthesis?

    <p>AA-tRNA binding, peptide bond formation, translocation, tRNA release</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the 30S ribosomal subunit in prokaryotes?

    <p>It recognizes and binds mRNA.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature is essential for proper ribosome positioning of tRNAs?

    <p>The L shape of all tRNAs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of elongation factor EF-G in translation?

    <p>It promotes translocation of tRNAs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of buffers determines their capacity to resist pH changes?

    <p>The total concentration of the weak acid and its conjugate base</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function does single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) serve during DNA replication?

    <p>They stabilize separated DNA strands to prevent reannealing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the role of the primer in DNA replication?

    <p>It allows the addition of nucleotides during DNA synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the Tus protein contribute to the termination of replication in E. coli?

    <p>It binds to specific ter sites to halt the replication fork</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of transfer RNA (tRNA) during translation?

    <p>To deliver specific amino acids to ribosomes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately describes how unsaturated fatty acids differ from saturated fatty acids?

    <p>Unsaturated fatty acids contain cis double bonds that prevent tight packing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best explains the role of cholesterol in cell membranes?

    <p>Cholesterol maintains membrane fluidity and integrity.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which functional group is characteristic of steroid hormones derived from cholesterol?

    <p>Hydroxyl group</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature of the phospholipid bilayer contributes to its fluidity?

    <p>Lateral movement of lipids and proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What explains the fidelity of DNA polymerase 1 during DNA synthesis?

    <p>3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity that removes mismatched nucleotides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements regarding DNA polymerase 3 is true?

    <p>It is highly efficient in DNA replication without 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is RNA capable of storing genetic information?

    <p>RNA, as seen in retroviruses, can store and transmit genetic information</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the major groove in B-DNA is accurate?

    <p>It allows binding of proteins that regulate transcription and replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What statement accurately reflects a requirement of genetic material?

    <p>It needs to be able to mutate, replicate, and direct protein synthesis</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about the fidelity of DNA replication is false?

    <p>Minor mutations are always detrimental to cell viability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic allows a new DNA polymerase to have high processivity but low fidelity?

    <p>Its capacity to remove RNA and damaged DNA while synthesizing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the role of exonuclease activity in DNA duplication?

    <p>It can replace mismatched nucleotides during replication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main structural unit that contributes to the rigidity of bacterial cell walls?

    <p>Peptidoglycan</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following correctly describes the consequence of penicillin's mechanism of action?

    <p>It inhibits the crosslinking of peptidoglycan strands.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do selectins play in the immune system?

    <p>They mediate cell-cell interactions during immune responses.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of glycosylation involves attaching sugars stepwise and post-translationally to serine or threonine residues?

    <p>O-linked glycosylation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature characterizes the molecular architecture of proteoglycans?

    <p>Central protein core with extending glycosaminoglycans</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of lipids contributes to their solubility in organic solvents but not in water?

    <p>Hydrophobic and amphiphilic properties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of glycosylation in proteins?

    <p>To aid in protein structure, function, and cell communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements about fatty acids is true?

    <p>Fatty acids can be both saturated and unsaturated.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines the structural feature of glycosaminoglycans?

    <p>They are linear chains with repeating disaccharide units.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following accurately describes hyaluronate's behavior under varying shear states?

    <p>It becomes more resistant to flow under high shear.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of heparin in mammalian tissues?

    <p>To serve as an anticoagulant.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement correctly describes pectin's composition?

    <p>It is made of alpha 1 to 4 linked galacturonate residues.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What unique characteristic do sulfated glycosaminoglycans, such as heparin, have?

    <p>They have numerous negatively charged sulfate groups.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do bacterial polysaccharides play in biofilms?

    <p>They provide resistance to environmental threats.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the carbohydrate chains in glycoproteins?

    <p>They mediate protein-to-protein interactions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do glycosaminoglycans contribute to tissue function?

    <p>By providing structural support and lubrication.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What alters the viscosity of hyaluronate when shear stress is varied?

    <p>The alignment of the molecules with the flow direction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What primarily determines the absorbance at 280 nm in proteins?

    <p>Aromatic amino acids</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about the stability of beta sheets is accurate?

    <p>Antiparallel beta sheets are more stable than parallel beta sheets</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of these factors is least likely to cause protein denaturation?

    <p>Reduced molecular disorder</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What reflects the primary method of separation in SDS-PAGE?

    <p>Differences in mass of proteins</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of bond connects amino acids to their cognate tRNA?

    <p>Carboxyl group to 3' OH of tRNA</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which characteristic is not commonly used in protein separation methods?

    <p>Stereochemistry</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary role of molecular chaperones in protein folding?

    <p>Facilitate the correct folding process</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In protein dynamics studies, which method is most useful for monitoring changes in protein conformation over time?

    <p>Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which amino acid is least likely to be found in an alpha helix?

    <p>Glycine</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement about protein structure is false?

    <p>Electrostatic interactions are covalent bonds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Exam 1

    • Four most abundant elements in the human body are C, N, O, and H.
    • They form the majority of biomolecules including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.
    • Nuclear membranes developed during the evolution of eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells.
    • Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles.
    • A reaction with ΔH = 23 kJ/mol and ΔS = 22 J/kmol at 2°C is nonspontaneous because ΔG is positive.
    • Ionic interactions are the strongest type of noncovalent interactions, occurring between oppositely charged particles.
    • In a urea molecule, 3 atoms can act as hydrogen bond acceptors.
    • The hydrophobic effect is an entropy effect, where water molecules increase their entropy by excluding hydrophobic groups, surrounding them with highly ordered structures.
    • A buffer resists pH changes due to its weak acid/base pairs' pKa, buffer pH, and overall concentration.
    • Nucleic acids are composed of nucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds forming a sugar-phosphate backbone in DNA and RNA.
    • Single-stranded DNA binding proteins (SSB) stabilize separated DNA strands during replication.
    • Termination of replication fork movement in E. coli involves Tus protein binding to Ter sites.

    Exam 2

    • A short RNA primer provides a starting point for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase.
    • Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules deliver specific amino acids to ribosomes during translation.
    • A double-stranded DNA fragment with 12% adenine has 38% cytosine.
    • RNA can store genetic information, as seen in retroviruses.
    • Genetic material must mutate, replicate, and direct protein synthesis, not just act as a read-only system.
    • The major groove in B-DNA allows protein binding for transcription and replication regulation.
    • DNA polymerase 1 has a 3' to 5' exonuclease activity for proofreading and removing mismatched nucleotides.
    • DNA polymerase 3 is the primary replicase in E. coli, with a high turnover rate and lacking 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.
    • Cells mechanisms can tolerate or repair minor DNA point mutations.
    • DNA polymerase with high processivity, low fidelity, and RNA/DNA replacement ability likely has a 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.

    Exam 3

    • Insertions or deletions of one or two nucleotides cause frameshift mutations, altering the entire downstream protein sequence.
    • Sigma factor recognizes a promoter helping RNA polymerase bind and initiate transcription.
    • Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase covalently attaches the correct amino acid to tRNA.
    • Base-pairing between mRNA's start codon and the 16S rRNA allows ribosome selection of the proper initiation codon.
    • Elongation occurs at the A site of the ribosome where new incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds.
    • Synthesis proceeds from the N-terminus to C-terminus.
    • Release factors bind to a stop codon, releasing the growing peptide.
    • The small ribosomal subunit recognizes and binds mRNA in prokaryotes.
    • All tRNAs adopt an L-shape.
    • The antisense strand acts as the template for mRNA synthesis during transcription.
    • Alul restriction enzyme produces blunt-end fragments.
    • Transformed organisms are identified using antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids.
    • Most human proteins are conserved across different species.
    • The reaction needs DNA, primers, dNTPs, and thermostable DNA polymerase to perform PCR.
    • Formation of a dipeptide from two amino acids involves the loss of water.
    • Aspartic acid can be a conservative substitute for Glu.

    Exam 4

    • Ribosomes use L-amino acids for protein synthesis.
    • Amino acids have a specific configuration (L-configuration) relating to L-glyceraldehyde.
    • Aromatic amino acids have high absorbance at 280 nm (UV region).
    • Stereochemistry is not a typical protein separation method.
    • Disulfide bonds link cysteine residues in proteins.
    • SDS-PAGE separates proteins based on mass.
    • The carboxyl group of an amino acid is linked to the 3'OH of tRNA.
    • Glycine is rarely found in alpha helices due to its inflexibility and impact on structure.
    • Parallel beta sheets are more stable than antiparallel beta sheets.
    • Blocking 4-hydroxyproline synthesis does not affect keratin, as it is not collagen-related.
    • Secondary structure formation is the first step in protein folding.
    • Disulfide bridges are covalent bonds.

    Additional Exam Notes

    • pH, temperature, and ionic strength disrupt protein structure.
    • Molecular chaperones facilitate protein folding.
    • NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) is used to study protein conformational changes over time.
    • B cells produce antibodies for humoral immunity.
    • Glycines are crucial in collagen triplex-helix formation.
    • Enzymes are required for efficient nucleophilic catalysis.
    • Acetylcholinesterase is inactivated by DIPF (irreversible inhibitor).
    • Oxyanion holes stabilize transition states during protease catalysis.
    • IgG molecules have two antigen-binding sites.
    • Cofactors are enzyme helpers.
    • Transition metals are a common example of metallic enzyme helpers.
    • General acid catalysis lowers activation energy through proton transfer.
    • Methyl groups are poor nucleophilic catalysts.
    • The conformations of molecules like NAM’s D ring contribute to the catalytic energy in lysozyme reactions.

    Chapter 8

    • Glycosaminoglycans are linear polysaccharides.
    • They are located in extracellular matrices, providing structural support, lubrication, and shock absorption.
    • Hyaluronate is composed of repeating disaccharides.
    • High shear aligns and low shear creates tangled masses.
    • Heparin is highly sulfated, acting as an anticoagulant.
    • Heparan sulfate is similar to heparin but has fewer sulfates and more N-acetyl groups.
    • Plant polysaccharides include pectin, which has alpha-1,4-linked galacturonate residues interspersed with rhamnose.

    Chapter 9

    • Sphingolipids occur in brain and nervous tissue membranes and act as receptors.
    • Gangliosides are involved in cell recognition and adhesion.
    • Cholesterol is essential for maintaining membrane fluidity.
    • Protein synthesis and trafficking use vesicle transport.

    Chapter 10

    • Carbohydrates are generally composed of hydrocarbons and are insoluble in water.

    Chapter 11

    • Pectins are plant shock absorbers.
    • Starch is the energy reserve in plants.
    • Glycogen is the storage carbohydrate in animals.
    • Many enzymes are required for efficient carbohydrate digestion.

    Additional Notes

    • Viral membrane fusion involves stages of host cell recognition, activation of the viral membrane, and fusion with the host cell membrane.
    • Lectins are carbohydrate-binding proteins that facilitate interactions between cells.

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