Biochemistry Proteins and Cell Structures

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Questions and Answers

What is the half-life of ornithine decarboxylase?

  • 4 months
  • 30 minutes
  • 1 hour
  • 11 minutes (correct)

Which amino acid is considered stabilizing according to the N-end rule for protein half-lives?

  • Acetylated alanine
  • Lysine
  • Arginine
  • Serine (correct)

Which of the following diseases is associated with the failure of degradation of misfolded proteins?

  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Huntington's disease
  • Alzheimer’s disease (correct)
  • Parkinson’s disease

What is a primary function of peroxisomes in cells?

<p>Fatty acid catabolism (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of structures are inclusions within a cell?

<p>Non-living and not metabolically active (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily causes the bulging muscles seen in bodybuilders?

<p>Enlargement of individual skeletal muscle fibers (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of hypertrophy occurs in the heart due to pressure overload?

<p>Concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (B), Pathologic hypertrophy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is characteristic of hyperplasia?

<p>Increase in the number of cells capable of division (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario best describes compensatory hyperplasia?

<p>Liver regeneration after donation of a lobe (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main trigger for hormonal hyperplasia?

<p>Hormonal stimuli, such as increased estrogen (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common cause of pathologic hyperplasia in the endometrium?

<p>Excessive estrogen production or intake (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition does NOT exemplify hyperplasia?

<p>Enlargement of muscle fibers from weightlifting (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic feature of necrosis compared to apoptosis?

<p>Cell death is due to progressive depletion of ATP. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a primary cause of steatosis?

<p>Chronic alcohol abuse. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What microscopic feature is typically associated with cell injury?

<p>Accumulation of clear fat vacuoles. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organ is primarily affected in fatty change due to its role in fat metabolism?

<p>Liver. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cellular structure is associated with mitochondrial densities during cell injury?

<p>Cytosol. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following conditions would you expect to find a pale, turgid organ upon gross inspection?

<p>Cellular necrosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What histological feature is considered a hallmark of severe cellular injury?

<p>Formation of myelin figures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of autophagy in the context of cell death?

<p>Targets dysfunctional organelles for degradation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What morphological change indicates a cell is undergoing apoptosis rather than necrosis?

<p>Cell shrinkage and chromatin condensation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of cyclin D in the cell cycle?

<p>It binds to CDK4 and CDK6 to facilitate progression into S phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to cyclins after they fulfill their functions?

<p>They are degraded by the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which complex is formed when cyclin A binds to CDK2?

<p>It permits the cell to leave the S phase and enter G2 phase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of checkpoints in the cell cycle?

<p>To ensure proper DNA synthesis and chromosome segregation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does cyclin E contribute to the cell cycle?

<p>It facilitates the cell's progression into the S phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do focal points refer to in cellular structures?

<p>Points of interaction between the cell and the extracellular matrix. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin is responsible for allowing the cell to enter the M phase?

<p>Cyclin B. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the cell cycle does cyclin A primarily influence?

<p>G2 phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes the gel-like networks in the cell?

<p>They provide structural support for the cell cortex. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase is cyclin D synthesized?

<p>G1 phase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is required for the binding of aminoacyl t-RNA to the A site?

<p>Activation of aminoacyl tRNA by eEF-1 and GTP (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the anticodon of a tRNA molecule pair with?

<p>A specific codon on the mRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which enzyme is responsible for the peptide bond formation during translation?

<p>Peptidyl transferase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which events happen during translocation within the ribosome?

<p>Peptidyl-tRNA moves from A site to P site (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What signals the termination of translation?

<p>Recognition of stop codons in the A site (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the total energy expenditure for the formation of one peptide bond?

<p>Four high energy phosphate bonds (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the GTP during the process of elongation?

<p>It is hydrolyzed to GDP during aminoacyl-tRNA binding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factors are involved in the hydrolysis of the bond between the peptide chain and t-RNA during termination?

<p>Peptidyl transferase and eRFs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first amino acid encoded by the starting codon on mRNA?

<p>Methionine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about eEF-2 is correct?

<p>It is involved in the translocation of t-RNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of mutations in proto-oncogenes?

<p>They are responsible for many cancers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors is NOT a trigger for a cell to enter the cell cycle?

<p>Nutrient absorption. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural feature is common to chromosomes during mitosis?

<p>Two sister chromatids at the centromere. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do signaling cells in the tissue affect cell proliferation?

<p>By releasing ligands that act as growth factors. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the diploid number of chromosomes in somatic cells?

<p>They have 46 chromosomes representing 23 homologous pairs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to proto-oncogenes when their expression is not properly regulated?

<p>They can cause unwanted cell proliferation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant result of gene amplification in oncogenes?

<p>Elevated production of proteins that promote tumor formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle does extensive chromatin condensation occur?

<p>M phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the centromere play in chromosome structure?

<p>It holds sister chromatids together. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the difference between drug potentiation and drug synergism?

<p>Synergism involves the drugs increasing each other's effects without changing their individual potencies. (A), Potentiation results in a more efficacious response than the first drug alone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the therapeutic index (TI) defined?

<p>TI = TD50 / ED50, indicating relative safety of a drug. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Quantal Dose-Response Curve primarily evaluate?

<p>The relationship between drug dosage and the proportion of individuals exhibiting an all-or-none response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is indicated by a low therapeutic index (TI) for a drug?

<p>There is a risk of toxicity at therapeutic doses. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic of liquefactive necrosis?

<p>Release of hydrolytic enzymes that digest dead cells into a liquid (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the Median-Effective-Dose (ED50) represent in drug therapy?

<p>The drug dose that produces a specific therapeutic response in half of the patients. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which clinical condition is a typical example of gangrenous necrosis?

<p>Dry gangrene of the foot due to diabetes mellitus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What unique morphological feature characterizes caseous necrosis?

<p>Soft, granular, and yellow appearance resembling dry cheese (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which form of fat necrosis occurs due to enzyme activity following acute pancreatitis?

<p>Enzymatic mesenteric fat necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In liquefactive necrosis, what primarily contributes to the accumulation of pus?

<p>Accumulation of leukocytes and release of digestive enzymes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the fate of necrotic cells within a living patient?

<p>Most are removed through enzymatic digestion and phagocytosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes traumatic fat necrosis from enzymatic fat necrosis?

<p>Traumatic fat necrosis is linked to injury in fat-rich tissues (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which toxin inhibits tRNA binding through action on the 60S subunit?

<p>Shiga toxin (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which lysosomes receive materials for degradation?

<p>Fusion with phagosomes, pinocytotic vesicles, or autophagosomes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the function of lysosomal enzymes?

<p>They are involved in degrading cells and organelles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of lysosomal dysfunction on cellular health?

<p>Accumulation of cellular debris (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key function of diphtheria toxin?

<p>Inhibiting translocation by binding to Eukaryotic-EF-2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of enzymes are found in lysosomes?

<p>Acid hydrolases (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is NOT a method by which substances can be transported into lysosomes?

<p>Exocytosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do substrates enter lysosomes?

<p>Via late endosomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about lysosomes' acidic environment is true?

<p>The pH is maintained by proton pumps in the lysosomal membrane. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of enzymes in glycogenolysis?

<p>To degrade glycogen into glucose molecules (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is characterized by excessive triglyceride accumulation in parenchymal cells?

<p>Steatosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What might heavy exposure to carbon dust lead to in individuals?

<p>Anthracosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of pigment is lipofuscin, and where is it typically found?

<p>An endogenous pigment in long-lived cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What impact does excessive sun exposure have on melanin production?

<p>Results in generalized hyperpigmentation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of glycogen storage diseases?

<p>Abnormal accumulation of glycogen (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular structure is directly involved in lipid storage?

<p>Adipocytes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition could lead to hyperpigmentation localized to specific skin tumors?

<p>Nevus (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor primarily leads to the pathological accumulation of cholesterol in the body?

<p>Increased dietary fat intake (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of protein accumulation in cells, as seen in Alzheimer's disease?

<p>Formation of intracellular inclusions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary characteristic feature of steatosis in liver tissue?

<p>Intracellular accumulation of triglycerides (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following mechanisms primarily distinguishes necrosis from apoptosis?

<p>Rupture of lysosomal membranes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What microscopic feature is typically associated with early cellular injury?

<p>Clear cytoplasmic vacuoles (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following substances accumulates in cytosol and organelles during severe cellular injury?

<p>Myeline figures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of cell death is mitochondrial damage and ATP depletion predominantly involved?

<p>Necrosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the gross appearance of an organ affected by steatosis?

<p>Yellow and greasy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular structure is particularly affected by swelling and dilation in response to injury?

<p>Endoplasmic reticulum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the fate of lipids within a phagosome?

<p>Lipids remain undigested and contribute to residual bodies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary regulatory function of autophagy-related genes (Atgs)?

<p>They control the formation of autophagosomes from organelles. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT known to activate the process of autophagy?

<p>Nutrient excess (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of autophagy in cells?

<p>It facilitates the removal of damaged organelles and proteins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of autophagosomes in the autophagy process?

<p>They encapsulate organelles and cytoplasm for degradation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for apoptosis in embryogenesis?

<p>To allow for the formation of digits by eliminating interdigital tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of apoptosis in normal physiological conditions?

<p>Apoptosis helps maintain cell turnover in proliferating cell populations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are caspases involved in the process of apoptosis?

<p>They activate enzymes that lead to cell death (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily triggers the apoptosis process in autoreactive T cells?

<p>Activation of p53 gene due to DNA damage (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the consequence of failure to clear necrotic cells in tissues?

<p>Calcification due to dystrophic changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario describes the primary effect of apoptosis in pathological conditions?

<p>Eliminates irreparably damaged cells without triggering inflammation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a physiological condition that normally utilizes apoptosis?

<p>Withdrawal of ovarian hormones during the menstrual cycle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the extracellular matrix play in apoptosis?

<p>It prevents apoptosis by providing survival signals (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the 'execution phase' of apoptosis?

<p>Activation of intrinsic enzymes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do microtubules play during cell division?

<p>They facilitate the separation of chromatids by forming the mitotic spindle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature of microtubules explains their dynamic nature?

<p>They consist of multiple subunits that can be assembled or disassembled. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug specifically inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to tubulin?

<p>Colchicine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the primary functions of microtubules within a cell?

<p>Regulating the intracellular movement of organelles and vesicles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural components primarily make up a microtubule?

<p>Protofilaments composed of α- and β-tubulin heterodimers (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the average half-life of a microtubule during rapid polymerization?

<p>It decreases significantly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements characterizes the contribution of microtubules to cell shape?

<p>They offer rigidity and maintain cell shape. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the centrosome related to microtubules?

<p>It serves as a nucleation site for microtubule formation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do microtubules contribute to ciliary and flagellar motion?

<p>By enabling the sliding of adjacent microtubules against each other. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary component do microtubules rely on for their dynamic behavior?

<p>Reversible polymerization of tubulin subunits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the role of tRNA in the translation process?

<p>tRNA carries amino acids and serves as a bridge between mRNA and the ribosome. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the start codon AUG in the genetic code?

<p>It is the only codon that codes for Methionine, initiating the translation process. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of the genetic code allows multiple codons to specify the same amino acid?

<p>The genetic code is degenerate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following components is essential for the formation of peptide bonds during translation?

<p>Ribosomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) play in the translation process?

<p>They terminate the translation process. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the flow of genetic information during translation?

<p>The information flows from mRNA to polypeptide chains. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which feature of genetic code implies that it is read in a specific direction?

<p>The genetic code is read from 5’ to 3’ direction. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one reason vincristine and colchicine are utilized in cancer chemotherapy?

<p>They disrupt the formation of the mitotic spindle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the genetic code encode information from nucleic acids to proteins?

<p>By converting nucleotide sequences into amino acid sequences. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia in response to stress?

<p>Hypertrophy leads to an increase in organ size through larger cells, whereas hyperplasia increases organ size through additional cell proliferation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the physiological and pathological forms of hypertrophy?

<p>Physiological hypertrophy is associated with increased functional demand, while pathological hypertrophy is a result of excess hormones or growth factors. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are common triggers for hypertrophy in skeletal and cardiac muscle?

<p>Increased workload and muscle fiber damage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would hypertrophy and hyperplasia coexist?

<p>During pregnancy, as the uterus enlarges to support fetal growth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition arises if the limits of adaptive responses are exceeded?

<p>Cell injury, which may be reversible or irreversible. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary characteristic of the hypertrophied organ?

<p>It has no new cells, only larger cells. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a consequence of sustained hypertrophy in muscle cells?

<p>Enhanced force generation and work capacity of the muscle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of autophagy during starvation?

<p>To degrade proteins and organelles for macromolecular precursors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the ubiquitination process influence protein degradation in cells?

<p>It marks proteins for degradation by attaching multiple ubiquitin molecules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario does autophagy function as a potential survival mechanism for tumor cells?

<p>In conditions of limited angiogenesis leading to cell starvation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does proteasomal activity play in the cellular regulation of proteins?

<p>It is responsible for breaking down malformed and ubiquitin-tagged proteins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one effect of pharmacological stimulation of autophagy on body weight?

<p>It can reduce weight gain and associated obesity alterations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the sex chromatin found in females compared to males?

<p>It remains tightly coiled in one of the X chromosomes in females. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main function of the nucleolus within the nucleus?

<p>Synthesis of ribosomal subunits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

<p>S phase. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cells are typically used to study sex chromatin?

<p>Epithelial cells lining the cheek. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of heterochromatin in relation to the nucleolus?

<p>It is frequently found attached to the nucleolus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which ribonucleoproteins are synthesized in the nucleolus?

<p>Ribosomal subunits. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary component of nucleoplasm?

<p>Fluid and proteinaceous matrix. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens during the G1 phase of the cell cycle?

<p>Macromolecule synthesis begins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is rRNA associated with ribosomal proteins within the nucleolus?

<p>They associate to form ribosomal subunits. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary structural component of microtubules?

<p>Heterodimers of globular α- and β-tubulin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do microtubules contribute to cellular motion?

<p>They act as pathways for the movement of organelles and vesicles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the average lifespan of a microtubule in a cell?

<p>10 minutes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the centrosome in relation to microtubules?

<p>It houses the centrioles and γ-tubulin ring complexes for microtubule nucleation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical effect does colchicine have on microtubules?

<p>It prevents the polymerization of tubulin molecules into microtubules (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a function of microtubules?

<p>Regulating protein synthesis in the cytoplasm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the dynamic nature of microtubules?

<p>They constantly grow and shrink at their plus ends. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is part of the structure of microtubules?

<p>Heterodimeric α- and β-tubulin proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which process do microtubules undergo rapid polymerization?

<p>Cell division (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural arrangement do microtubules consist of?

<p>13 parallel protofilaments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do proto-oncogenes primarily control within the cell?

<p>Cell proliferation pathways (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a factor that stimulates a cell to enter the cell cycle?

<p>Aging of the cell (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How can alterations in proto-oncogenes lead to cancer development?

<p>By promoting uncontrolled cell division (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of a mutation in proto-oncogenes?

<p>Formation of oncogenes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure connects the two sister chromatids in a chromosome?

<p>Centromere (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to chromatin fibers as a cell prepares for mitotic or meiotic activity?

<p>They undergo extensive condensation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the chromosomal configuration in somatic cells of humans?

<p>Diploid with 46 chromosomes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism does NOT alter oncogene activity?

<p>Gene silencing (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these statements best describes the effect of growth factors in cell signaling?

<p>They induce the expression of proto-oncogenes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical function do cyclins perform in the cell cycle?

<p>Activate cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is primarily synthesized during the G1 phase of the cell cycle?

<p>RNA and regulatory proteins (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle?

<p>DNA replication occurs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key event occurs in the G2 phase prior to mitosis?

<p>Microtubule formation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the G0 phase of the cell cycle?

<p>Permanent cessation of division (B), Temporary halt with potential for re-entry (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do highly differentiated cells, like neurons, exit the cell cycle?

<p>To maintain their specialized functions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the centrioles during the cell cycle?

<p>They begin to duplicate in G1 and finish in G2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the cell ensure the integrity of DNA before mitosis?

<p>By analyzing and correcting any errors (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes what happens during mitosis?

<p>The cell divides both its nucleus and cytoplasm into two daughter cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates a cell has completed mitosis and re-entered the interphase?

<p>Cellular growth and synthesis activities (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which drug type is used to decrease the synthesis of Angiotensin-II to manage high blood pressure?

<p>Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do receptor antagonists like Valsartan have on Angiotensin-II?

<p>They block the action of Angiotensin-II. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which communication mode do mediators like neurotransmitters primarily operate between neurons?

<p>Synaptic signaling (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a method of suppressing disease-related mediators?

<p>Increasing their receptor density (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What systemic communication happens when a signal is released into the bloodstream?

<p>Hormonal signaling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism behind hyperplasia in tissue?

<p>Proliferation of cells capable of division (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of hyperplasia occurs as a response to hormonal stimulation during puberty?

<p>Hormonal hyperplasia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is most likely to result in concentric left ventricular hypertrophy?

<p>Aortic valve disease (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes pathologic hyperplasia from physiologic hyperplasia?

<p>It results from inappropriate hormonal stimulation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common physiological response of the liver following donation of one lobe?

<p>Compensatory hyperplasia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a risk associated with pathologic hyperplasia of the endometrium?

<p>Malignant transformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is primarily responsible for stimulating compensatory hyperplasia in response to liver damage?

<p>Release of signaling pathways from stem cells (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin binds to CDK4 and CDK6 during the early G1 phase?

<p>Cyclin D (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway for cyclins?

<p>To degrade cyclins into their component molecules (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which checkpoint is responsible for ensuring proper chromosome segregation before the cell leaves its current phase?

<p>M checkpoint (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle does cyclin B facilitate the transition to the M phase?

<p>G2 phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cellular activities are supported by gel-like networks in the cell cortex?

<p>Cell migration and vesicle transport (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin is involved in permitting the cell to enter the G2 phase and induces cyclin B formation?

<p>Cyclin A (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cellular structure do focal points refer to in relation to cell activities?

<p>Contact points with the extracellular matrix (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process initiates the degradation of cyclins after they fulfill their function in the cell cycle?

<p>Ubiquitin-proteasome pathway (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin is synthesized in the late G1 phase and binds to CDK2 to help the cell progress to the S phase?

<p>Cyclin E (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the checkpoints in the cell cycle?

<p>To delay progression for DNA repair and growth (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism do Shiga toxin and ricin both utilize to inhibit eukaryotic translation?

<p>Preventing tRNA binding (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with diphtheria toxin's mechanism of action?

<p>Inhibition of ribosomal translocation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cellular process is NOT facilitated by lysosomes?

<p>Protein synthesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of hydrolytic enzymes found in lysosomes?

<p>Breaking down macromolecules (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What environment is required for lysosomal enzymes to function optimally?

<p>Acidic pH (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following pathways do substances destined for lysosomal degradation NOT use?

<p>Secretory vesicles (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are lysosomal enzymes initially processed within the cell?

<p>Manufactured in rough endoplasmic reticulum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes a role of autophagy?

<p>Removing damaged organelles (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cellular structure do lysosomes primarily digest?

<p>Macromolecules and cellular debris (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cell health, what consequence could result from lysosomal dysfunction?

<p>Accumulation of waste materials (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the nucleolus in a cell?

<p>Synthesis of ribosomal subunits (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of the cell cycle involves the duplication of DNA?

<p>S phase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of cells is sex chromatin most commonly studied?

<p>Epithelial cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic describes the visible sex chromatin in females?

<p>It remains tightly coiled and genetically inactive. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which components are found in the nucleoplasm?

<p>Histones and ribonucleoproteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of heterochromatin's association with the nucleolus?

<p>Its functional significance is unknown. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following correctly describes the G1 phase of the cell cycle?

<p>Cell growth and macromolecule synthesis begin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What chromosomal configuration is present in human males?

<p>XY (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following stages does NOT occur during mitosis?

<p>Synthesis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes first condense and become visible under a microscope?

<p>Prophase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of spindle fibers during mitosis?

<p>To ensure proper chromosome alignment and separation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component is involved in organizing the microtubules during mitosis?

<p>Centrosome (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many total chromosomes are found in human somatic cells?

<p>46 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily differentiates germ cells from somatic cells?

<p>Germ cells are haploid (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the process called where the inactive X chromosome in female somatic cells is randomly determined?

<p>X-inactivation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements is true regarding the inactive X chromosome in females?

<p>It remains inactive throughout the individual's life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following proteins is likely to have an extended half-life?

<p>Crystallins in the lens of the eye (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect do destabilizing N-terminal amino acids have on proteins?

<p>They lead to rapid turnover and degradation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of protein degradation, what triggers the process of poly-ubiquination?

<p>Addition of free ubiquitin to already bound proteins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following enzymes is NOT commonly found in peroxisomes?

<p>Acetyl CoA carboxylase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary function of inclusions within a cell?

<p>To store non-living components like pigments and crystals (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) play in peroxisomes?

<p>It is a byproduct of fatty acid catabolism (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about glycogen is accurate?

<p>It is abundant in muscle and liver cells (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What can result from the failure to degrade misfolded proteins in the cell?

<p>Development of neurodegenerative diseases (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes PEST sequences within proteins?

<p>They promote rapid ubiquination and degradation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature distinguishes peroxisomes from mitochondria?

<p>Self-replicating ability (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary result of meiosis that ensures genetic variability in gametes?

<p>Crossing over during prophase I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which phase of meiosis is characterized by the lining up of homologous pairs of chromosomes on the equatorial plate?

<p>Metaphase I (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes migrate away from each other?

<p>Anaphase I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does meiosis contribute to the reduction of chromosome number in gametes?

<p>By separating homologous chromosomes in Meiosis I (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical event occurs during prophase I of meiosis that is pivotal for genetic diversity?

<p>Crossing over between homologous chromosomes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs to the chromosomes during telophase after mitosis?

<p>They uncoil into chromatin. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structure is crucial for spindle fibers to attach during metaphase?

<p>Kinetochore (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates the initiation of cytokinesis during anaphase?

<p>Formation of the cleavage furrow (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the absence of centrioles, what impact does it have on mitosis?

<p>Mitosis proceeds improperly. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of spindle fibers during mitosis?

<p>To bind to the kinetochore and separate chromatids. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key feature of the chromosomes during metaphase?

<p>Chromosomes align along the equator of the spindle. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to sister chromatids during anaphase?

<p>They separate and migrate to opposite poles. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the contractile ring play during cytokinesis?

<p>It helps separate the two daughter cells. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the result of the separation of chromatids during mitosis?

<p>Creation of two identical daughter cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What occurs to the spindle apparatus during telophase?

<p>It disappears. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which category of intermediate filaments is primarily found in epithelial cells?

<p>Keratins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional purpose of occluding junctions?

<p>To create an impermeable barrier (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of junction is described as resembling spot welds on the cell surface?

<p>Macula junctions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cell has desmin intermediate filaments within its structure?

<p>Muscle cells (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which intermediate filament type is associated with astrocytes?

<p>Glial fibrillary acidic proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily causes increased hypertrophy in skeletal muscle fibers during strength training?

<p>Increase in cellular demand and workload (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does pathologic hyperplasia differ from physiologic hyperplasia?

<p>Pathologic hyperplasia is initiated by hormonal imbalances (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which example best illustrates compensatory hyperplasia?

<p>Liver regrowth after lobe donation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant consequence of excessive estrogen on target tissues?

<p>Can lead to endometrial and breast hyperplasia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the cellular mechanism behind hyperplasia?

<p>It is driven by stem cell activation and growth factor influence (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario would you expect to see bone marrow hyperplasia?

<p>Following acute blood loss (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes concentric left ventricular hypertrophy?

<p>Thickening of the heart wall in response to increased pressure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary aim of protein maturation?

<p>To activate proteins to their functional form and localize them (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key role of molecular chaperones during protein folding?

<p>They help proteins to fold into their proper 3D structures (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What process involves the removal of signal peptides from proteins after they have reached their final destination?

<p>Proteolysis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which post-translational modification is critical for blood clotting and bone ossification?

<p>γ-carboxylation of glutamic acid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which modification helps stabilize glycoproteins against degradation?

<p>Glycosylation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does acylation primarily affect proteins?

<p>It helps anchor proteins to cellular membranes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of errors in translation?

<p>Production of dysfunctional or misfolded proteins (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What clinical application is attributed to tetracyclines and macrolides like erythromycin?

<p>Altering bacterial translation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of amino acid modification is essential for collagen synthesis?

<p>Hydroxylation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of glycosylation in protein maturation?

<p>To help stabilize proteins and provide proper conformation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) in the cell?

<p>To prevent depolymerization of microtubules and assist organelle transport. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the movement of dynein and kinesin along microtubules?

<p>Dynein moves vesicles toward the minus end, while kinesin moves them toward the plus end. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What structural configuration do centrioles exhibit?

<p>Nine microtubule triplets arranged in a cylindrical structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which cellular process do centrioles participate in forming the spindle apparatus?

<p>Mitosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the structure of actin filaments in a contractile bundle?

<p>Actin filaments are loosely arranged and alternate direction at their ends. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of actin's plus and minus ends in cellular dynamics?

<p>The plus end grows faster, allowing for rapid filament elongation and cell movement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specifically triggers the formation of cilia and flagella in cells?

<p>Centrioles acting as basal bodies in the cytoplasm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property of microtubules allows for bidirectional movement of organelles?

<p>Their dynamic instability and polarity facilitate movement in both directions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition is characterized by excessive, abnormal accumulations of triglycerides within parenchymal cells?

<p>Steatosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of pigment is a yellow-to-brown pigment found in long-lived cells such as neurons and cardiac muscle?

<p>Lipofuscin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary implication of abnormal lipid accumulation in tissues?

<p>Steatosis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of cellular inclusions, which of the following statements is true regarding exogenous pigments?

<p>They originate from external sources. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition may result from excessive sun exposure leading to increased melanin production?

<p>Hyperpigmentation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of lipids within cells aside from storage?

<p>Serve as a potential source of energy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions does not directly relate to the accumulation of endogenous pigments?

<p>Carbon deposits in lungs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of cells primarily store triglycerides in their cytoplasm?

<p>Adipocytes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What condition describes the accumulation of carbon pigment in the lungs and lymph nodes due to heavy smoking or coal exposure?

<p>Anthracosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is one of the main adverse effects of macrophages phagocytosing tattoo ink?

<p>Permanent pigment retention (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of cadherins in cell adhesion?

<p>To reinforce tight junctions formed by claudins and occludins. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes desmosomes in epithelial cells?

<p>They are 'spot weld'-like structures composed of attachment plaques. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do gap junctions facilitate intercellular communication?

<p>Through connexons that form aqueous pores between adjacent cells. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical width of the intercellular space at zonula adherens?

<p>15 to 20 nm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of protein accumulates at the cytoplasmic aspect of desmosome attachment plaques?

<p>Intermediate filaments of cytokeratin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes reversible cell injury?

<p>Characterized by mild functional and structural alterations (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a feature consistently seen in reversibly injured cells?

<p>Formation of extensive necrotic tissue (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers fatty change in cells?

<p>Rapid accumulation of triglycerides in cytoplasm (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary cause of hydropic change in cells under mild to moderate injury?

<p>Failure of ATP-dependent Na+-K+ plasma membrane pump (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does squamous metaplasia occur in response to chronic irritation?

<p>Stem cells are stimulated and reprogrammed (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with columnar cell intestinal metaplasia?

<p>Chronic exposure to acidic gastric juice (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common consequence of ATP depletion in cells?

<p>Failure of cellular ion pumps leading to swelling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes the disappearance of the nuclear envelope during mitosis?

<p>It happens early in the metaphase phase. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is primarily responsible for the separation of sister chromatids during mitosis?

<p>Karyokinesis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following occurs during telophase?

<p>Nuclear envelope reconstitution (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the kinetochore play in mitosis?

<p>It helps in the migration of chromatids. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about the cleavage furrow is correct?

<p>It appears during anaphase and indicates cytokinesis. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the outcome for daughter cells after mitosis?

<p>They are genetically identical to each other. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase does the contractile ring begin to form?

<p>Anaphase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the organization of chromosomes after mitosis?

<p>They remain highly condensed and organized. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to improper formation of spindle fibers in the absence of centrioles?

<p>Dispersed microtubule-nucleating material (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key distinction between metaphase and anaphase?

<p>Sister chromatids separate in anaphase. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular structures are primarily involved in exocytosis and endocytosis?

<p>Gel-like networks and actin filaments (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase of the cell cycle does the assembly of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex occur?

<p>G1 phase (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What quality control mechanism does the cell utilize before progressing to the next phase of the cell cycle?

<p>Cellular checkpoints (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism for the degradation of cyclins after their functions are completed?

<p>Ubiquitin-proteasome pathway (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin is synthesized during the late G1 phase that allows the cell to enter the S phase?

<p>Cyclin E (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What facilitates the proper segregation of chromosomes during mitosis?

<p>Cyclin A-CDK2 complex (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which types of cell structures serve as points of contact for the cell with the extracellular matrix?

<p>Focal points (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the outcome of unchecked progression through the cell cycle?

<p>Tumor formation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amino acids are coded by only one codon in genetic coding?

<p>Tryptophan and Methionine (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the wobble theory suggest about codons?

<p>The third nucleotide is often less important for amino acid specificity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic of the genetic code states that each codon specifies only one amino acid?

<p>Unambiguous Code (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the initiation stage of protein biosynthesis, which component is NOT required?

<p>DNA (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following describes the reading mechanism of the genetic code?

<p>Read continuously without punctuation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of GTP during the initiation of protein biosynthesis?

<p>To stabilize the formation of the initiation complex (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of translation elongation, what does the A site of the ribosome do?

<p>Provides access for new aminoacyl-tRNA binding (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of hydrolysis of ATP to ADP + Pi during the initiation stage?

<p>It facilitates the binding of mRNA to the ribosome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the components of the initiation complex?

<p>Comprises eIFs, mRNA, and initiator tRNA (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which description best identifies tRNA charging?

<p>Recognition and attachment of amino acids to tRNA (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily drives the process of hyperplasia?

<p>Growth factor-driven proliferation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common physiological trigger for hormonal hyperplasia?

<p>Increased estrogen during pregnancy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition exemplifies pathologic hyperplasia?

<p>Increased breast tissue due to hormonal changes (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances does compensatory hyperplasia typically occur?

<p>Following the removal of a damaged organ (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines concentric left ventricular hypertrophy?

<p>Enlargement of individual cardiac muscle fibers from pressure overload (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best illustrates a situation that cannot lead to hyperplasia?

<p>Inadequate oxygen supply to tissues (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do growth factors play in hyperplasia?

<p>They stimulate the activation of signaling pathways for proliferation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the role of cadherins in cell adhesion?

<p>They connect the cytoplasmic aspect of the cell membrane to actin filaments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of gap junctions in cellular communication?

<p>They allow the direct exchange of small molecules and ions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes desmosomes from other types of cell junctions?

<p>They provide mechanical strength through intermediate filaments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the process of intercellular fusion at focal points?

<p>It entails a selective merging of cell membranes at specific sites. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is unique to the composition of zonula adherens compared to tight junctions?

<p>Presence of cadherins as extracellular components. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of eEF-1 in the binding of aminoacyl t-RNA to the A site?

<p>It binds GTP to activate aminoacyl t-RNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What initiates the hydrolysis of the bond between the peptide chain and t-RNA during termination?

<p>The recognition of a stop codon by releasing factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is responsible for the translocation of the newly formed peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site?

<p>eEF-2. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the anticodon in tRNA during translation?

<p>It pairs with a codon on the mRNA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many high energy phosphate bonds are consumed for the formation of one peptide bond?

<p>4 bonds. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of enzyme is peptidyl transferase during the peptide bond formation?

<p>A ribozyme. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily happens to the discharged t-RNA after translocation?

<p>It quickly dissociates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism by which termination occurs during protein synthesis?

<p>Recognition of stop codons by releasing factors. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following codons is recognized as a start codon during translation?

<p>AUG. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the 80S ribosome subunit after termination of translation?

<p>It dissociates into its subunits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which amino acid is coded by only one codon?

<p>Tryptophan (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary importance of the first two nucleotides in a codon according to the wobble theory?

<p>They dictate the specific amino acid that is incorporated. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement correctly describes the genetic code?

<p>It is non-overlapping and read in fixed triplet sequences. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is NOT a component required for the initiation complex in protein biosynthesis?

<p>DNA polymerase (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During elongation, where does the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA occur?

<p>A site (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does eIF-3 play in the initiation stage of protein biosynthesis?

<p>Prevents the reassociation of ribosomal subunits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes tRNA charging?

<p>It involves the attachment of amino acids to the 3' hydroxyl terminus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to GTP during the process of protein elongation?

<p>It is hydrolyzed, providing energy for translocation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about the universal nature of the genetic code is true?

<p>The same codons code for amino acids in nearly all organisms. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism is primarily used by lysosomes to obtain substances for degradation?

<p>Phagosomes, pinocytotic vesicles, or autophagosomes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of toxin inhibits tRNA binding by acting on the ribosome's 60S subunit?

<p>Shiga toxin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements regarding lysosomal enzymes is incorrect?

<p>They are active at neutral pH. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary role of autophagy in a cell?

<p>Serving as a cellular sink for excess materials (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism does diphtheria toxin utilize to impede cellular functions?

<p>Interference with translocation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of organelles receive digestive contents from late endosomes?

<p>Lysosomes (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the composition of lysosomes?

<p>They have at least 40 different types of acid hydrolases. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process best describes how lysosomal enzymes are manufactured?

<p>Synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and packaged in Golgi (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main consequence of improper lysosomal function?

<p>Accumulation of undigested substances (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the proteasome play in cellular function?

<p>Degrading misfolded or damaged proteins (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characterizes reversible cell injury?

<p>Functional and structural alterations that can revert (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes hydropic change in reversibly injured cells?

<p>Generalized swelling of the cell and its organelles (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What leads to the occurrence of fatty change in the liver?

<p>Disruption of mitochondrial metabolic pathways (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism primarily causes cell swelling in reversible injury?

<p>Failure of the Na+-K+ pump due to ATP depletion (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is associated with squamous metaplasia due to chronic irritation?

<p>Long-term smoking or stones (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary feature observed in cells undergoing hydropic change?

<p>Blebbing of plasma membrane (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cyclin is responsible for the transition from the G2 phase to the M phase?

<p>Cyclin B (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these is a common cause for the occurrence of columnar cell intestinal metaplasia?

<p>Irritation by acidic gastric juice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to cyclins after they have performed their functions in the cell cycle?

<p>They enter the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway for degradation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During which phase is cyclin E synthesized, and which CDK does it bind to?

<p>Late G1 phase, binds to CDK2. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature refers to the points of contact between the cell and the extracellular matrix?

<p>Focal points (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary mechanism leads to the breakdown of cellular components during necrosis?

<p>Release of lysosomal enzymes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What morphological change characterizes necrotic cells under electron microscopy?

<p>Dilation of mitochondria and amorphous densities (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What effect does the leakage of ATP from damaged cells have on the immune response?

<p>It triggers phagocytosis and cytokine production. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following nuclear changes is associated with significant DNA breakdown in necrotic cells?

<p>Karyolysis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which pathological process is NOT commonly linked to the initiation of necrosis?

<p>Hormonal signaling (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What histological characteristic is used to identify necrotic cellular changes in tissue samples?

<p>Glassy homogeneous appearance (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of reactive oxygen species in the pathogenesis of necrosis?

<p>They cause damage to mitochondria and phospholipids. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of cellular protein change occurs due to denaturation during necrosis?

<p>Loss of protein function and structural integrity (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular event is likely to occur after lysosomal enzyme leakage during necrosis?

<p>Enzymatic digestion of cellular structures (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the nuclear pores?

<p>To provide controlled pathways for substance exchange between the nucleus and cytoplasm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which component of the nucleus is primarily responsible for the synthesis of RNA?

<p>Nucleolus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What feature distinguishes the nuclear envelope from the cytoplasmic membrane?

<p>It has two parallel membranes separated by a space. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are molecules larger than 9 nm transported into the nucleus?

<p>By receptor-mediated active transport requiring ATP. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the basic structural unit of chromatin?

<p>Nucleosome (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key characteristic of the nuclear envelope?

<p>It is continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes chromatin from other nuclear components?

<p>It is composed of DNA and proteins like histones. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do nuclei appear dark blue or black in hematoxylin and eosin-stained preparations?

<p>Because of the staining affinity for the DNA and associated proteins. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does ATP play in the nuclear transport of larger molecules?

<p>It is required for the active transport of these molecules through nuclear pores. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines the continuity between the nuclear envelope and the endoplasmic reticulum?

<p>The fusion points where the membranes join. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of necrosis preserves the architecture of dead tissue for several days?

<p>Coagulative necrosis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primarily causes coagulative necrosis in organs such as the heart and kidneys?

<p>Ischemia or impaired blood supply (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which cellular change is associated with the process of necrosis?

<p>Membrane integrity disturbance (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which biochemical marker is typically elevated in cases of myocardial infarction?

<p>Creatine kinase-MB (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes necrosis from apoptosis in cells?

<p>Necrosis leads to an inflammatory response (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following conditions is most likely to exhibit caseous necrosis?

<p>Tuberculosis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common feature observed in fatty necrosis?

<p>Death of adipose tissue (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key feature of liquefactive necrosis?

<p>Transformation of tissue into a viscous liquid (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following findings would be most helpful in diagnosing necrosis early?

<p>Elevated intracellular proteins in circulation (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which plasma marker is associated with liver cell damage?

<p>Alanine transaminase (ALT) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Hypertrophy

Increase in the size of cells, NOT the number of cells, in response to increased workload.

Hyperplasia

Increase in the number of cells in response to a stimulus.

Physiological Hyperplasia

Increase in cell number due to normal bodily functions, not disease.

Pathological Hyperplasia

Increase in cell number caused by abnormal stimuli or disease.

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Hypertrophy of the heart

Increase in the size of the heart muscle cells in response to increased blood pressure or heart valve problems.

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Compensatory Hyperplasia

Increase in cell number in response to tissue damage or removal.

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Hormonal Hyperplasia

Increase in cell number caused by an increased hormonal stimulus.

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Steatosis

Abnormal intracellular fat accumulation in parenchymal cells.

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Fat accumulation

Excessive triglycerides buildup in cells, often in the liver, heart, muscle, or kidney.

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Fatty Liver

A condition of fat buildup in liver cells.

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Necrosis

A type of cell death due to severe injury, causing cell breakdown.

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Apoptosis

A programmed, controlled cell death process.

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Causes of Steatosis

Alcohol abuse, diabetes, obesity, toxins, poor protein intake, and lack of oxygen.

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Morphological changes in Steatosis

Grossly, a yellow, greasy, soft organ; Histologically, fat vacuoles, nucleus shifted against membrane.

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Cell death types

Necrosis and Apoptosis ; Autophagy exists as the 3rd type now considered.

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Necrosis Mechanism

Severe injury, extensive damage to internal cell structures, depletion of ATP and rupture of membranes.

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Protein Half-Life

The time it takes for half of a protein to be broken down in a cell. It can vary widely depending on the protein, ranging from minutes to years.

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N-end Rule

The amino acid at the N-terminus (beginning) of a protein influences its half-life. Certain amino acids like arginine make it short, while others like serine stabilize it.

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PEST Sequence

A protein sequence rich in proline, glutamate, serine, and threonine that marks it for rapid breakdown by ubiquitination.

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Ubiquitination

The tagging of a protein with ubiquitin molecules, signaling its breakdown by proteasomes. Poly-ubiquitination speeds up the process.

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Peroxisome Function

Small organelles responsible for breaking down long-chain fatty acids and producing hydrogen peroxide.

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Actin Function

Actin filaments play diverse roles within cells, including facilitating organelle and vesicle movement, supporting the cell cortex, forming the core of microvilli, and establishing points of contact with the extracellular matrix.

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Cyclin-Dependent Kinases (CDKs)

CDKs are enzymes that regulate the progression of the cell cycle by controlling the phosphorylation of specific proteins, which activates or inactivates them.

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Cyclins

Cyclins are regulatory proteins that bind to CDKs, forming complexes that regulate the transition between phases of the cell cycle.

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What is the role of Cyclin D?

Cyclin D, synthesized during the early G1 phase of the cell cycle, forms complexes with CDK4 and CDK6, helping to initiate the transition into the S phase.

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What is the role of Cyclin E?

Cyclin E, synthesized in the late G1 phase, forms complexes with CDK2, playing a crucial role in the cell's entry into the S phase.

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What is the role of Cyclin A?

Cyclin A binds to CDK2 and CDK1, driving the cell's transition from the S phase to G2, and preparing the cell for mitosis.

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What is the role of Cyclin B?

Cyclin B binds to CDK1, forming a complex that triggers the entry into the M phase (mitosis) of the cell cycle.

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Ubiquitin-Proteasome Pathway

This cellular pathway is responsible for the degradation of cyclin proteins once their specific functions in the cell cycle are completed.

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Cell Cycle Checkpoints

These internal checkpoints play a quality control role, ensuring crucial events like DNA replication and chromosome segregation are properly completed before the cell progresses to the next phase.

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What is the significance of checkpoints?

Checkpoints prevent errors in cell division, protecting against genetic mutations and potentially cancerous growth.

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A site

The binding site on a ribosome where a new aminoacyl tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide chain binds.

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P site

The binding site on a ribosome where the tRNA carrying the growing peptide chain resides.

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eEF-1

A eukaryotic elongation factor that binds to aminoacyl tRNA and GTP, facilitating the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A site of the ribosome.

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Peptidyl transferase

An enzyme found in the ribosome that catalyzes the formation of a peptide bond between the amino acid on the A site tRNA and the growing peptide chain on the P site tRNA.

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Translocation

The movement of the tRNA bound to the growing peptide chain from the A site to the P site on the ribosome.

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eEF-2

A eukaryotic elongation factor that assists in the translocation of the peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site by binding to GTP.

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Stop codon

A three-base nucleotide sequence on mRNA that signals the end of translation.

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Release factor

A protein that recognizes stop codons on mRNA and promotes the release of the completed polypeptide chain from the ribosome.

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Energy cost of peptide bond formation

The formation of a single peptide bond during translation requires the hydrolysis of 4 high-energy phosphate bonds.

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Importance of GTP hydrolysis

GTP hydrolysis is required for both the binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A site and for the translocation of the peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site during protein synthesis.

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Liquefactive Necrosis

A type of necrosis where cells are digested by released hydrolytic enzymes, turning the tissue into a viscous liquid.

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Clinical Example: Abscess

A localized collection of pus, often caused by bacterial or fungal infections, where dead tissue cells and bacteria form a creamy yellow fluid due to liquefactive necrosis.

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Clinical Example: Hypoxic Brain Death

Oxygen deprivation in the brain can lead to liquefaction of the tissue, although the reason is unclear.

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Gangrenous Necrosis

A condition where necrosis is complicated by bacterial infection, causing putrefaction.

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Caseous Necrosis

A combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis, characteristic of tuberculosis infection.

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Fat Necrosis

Death of fat cells due to the action of lytic enzymes, leading to fat saponification (forming chalky white areas).

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Fate of Necrotic Tissue

Necrotic cells are typically cleared by enzymatic digestion and phagocytosis by leukocytes in a living organism.

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Cell Cycle Delays

Cells can delay progression through the cell cycle by activating inhibitory pathways or suppressing activating pathways.

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Triggers for Cell Cycle Entry

Factors that stimulate a cell to enter the cell cycle include mechanical force, tissue injury, and cell death.

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Ligands and Growth Factors

Triggers like mechanical force, injury, and cell death release ligands, often growth factors, that indirectly induce the expression of proto-oncogenes.

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Proto-oncogenes and Cell Proliferation

Proto-oncogenes are genes that control cell proliferation. Their expression must be tightly regulated to prevent uncontrolled growth.

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Oncogenes and Cancer

Mutations in proto-oncogenes, called oncogenes, can lead to uncontrolled cell growth and cancer.

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Chromosomes During Mitosis/Meiosis

Chromatin fibers condense and coil into visible structures called chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis.

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Sister Chromatids

Each chromosome is composed of two identical sister chromatids attached at the centromere.

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Somatic Cells

Somatic cells are body cells produced by mitosis, containing 46 chromosomes (23 homologous pairs).

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Homologous Chromosome Pairs

One chromosome from each pair in somatic cells is derived from the mother, the other from the father.

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Lysosomes

Membrane-bound organelles with acidic pH, containing hydrolytic enzymes for digestion.

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Types of Lysosomal Enzymes

At least 40 types, including sulfatases, proteases, nucleases, and lipases, all active in acidic pH.

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Lysosome Origins

Enzymes are made in the rER, packaged in the Golgi, and released in vesicles from the trans Golgi network.

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Lysosomal Digestion

They digest phagocytosed microorganisms, cellular debris, old organelles (mitochondria, RER), and excess or senescent materials.

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Autophagy

The process where a cell 'eats' itself by engulfing its own components within double-membrane autophagosomes.

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Autolysosome

A lysosome that fuses with an autophagosome, allowing the autophagosome's contents to be digested.

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Phagolysosome

A lysosome that fuses with a phagosome (containing ingested particles) to digest the engulfed material.

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Shiga Toxin/Ricin

These toxins inhibit tRNA binding to the 60S subunit of ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis.

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Diphtheria Toxin

This toxin inhibits translocation of the ribosome during protein synthesis, preventing the growing polypeptide chain from moving.

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Proteasome

A large protein complex that degrades proteins tagged with ubiquitin, a small protein label.

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Efficacy vs. Potency

Efficacy refers to the maximum effect a drug can produce, while potency relates to the amount of drug needed to achieve a specific effect.

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Synergism

When two drugs acting on different receptors, combine to produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.

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Therapeutic Index (TI)

A measure of drug safety, calculated as the ratio of the toxic dose (TD50) to the effective dose (ED50).

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Quantal Dose-Response Curve

A graph showing the proportion of a population that responds to a drug at different doses, used to assess drug safety and efficacy.

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Therapeutic Monitoring

Regularly checking blood drug levels to ensure safe and effective drug dosage.

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Glycogen Storage

Glycogen, a branched glucose polymer, is stored as granules in cells, primarily in liver and muscle, providing a readily accessible energy source.

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Lipid Storage

Lipids, mainly triglycerides, are stored as droplets in both specialized cells (adipocytes) and various other cell types like liver cells (hepatocytes).

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Pigment Storage

Pigments, such as hemoglobin in blood cells, melanin in skin, and lipofuscin in long-lived cells, can accumulate as inclusions within cells.

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Steatosis (Fatty Change)

Abnormal buildup of triglycerides within parenchymal cells, often caused by conditions like alcohol abuse, diabetes, and obesity.

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Atherosclerosis

A disease where cholesterol and cholesterol esters accumulate within blood vessel walls, leading to plaque formation and reduced blood flow.

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Alzheimer's Disease

A neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein aggregates called amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain.

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Diabetes Mellitus (Glycogen Storage)

A metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to impaired insulin production or action, leading to abnormal glycogen storage.

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Glycogen Storage Diseases

A group of genetic disorders characterized by defects in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism, causing abnormal glycogen accumulation in organs.

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Anthracosis

A condition caused by the accumulation of carbon particles (coal dust) in the lungs and lymph nodes, often seen in coal miners and smokers.

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Lipofuscin Accumulation

A yellow-brown pigment, lipofuscin, accumulates in long-lived cells like neurons and cardiac muscle, indicating cellular aging.

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What is Steatosis?

Abnormal accumulation of triglycerides within parenchymal cells, often in the liver, heart, muscle, or kidney.

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What are the main causes of Steatosis?

Alcohol abuse, diabetes mellitus, obesity, toxins, protein malnutrition, and anoxia.

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What is Necrosis?

A form of cell death caused by severe injury that damages the cell's vital components, causing it to 'fall apart'.

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What is Apoptosis?

A programmed, controlled 'suicide' of a cell, which occurs in a process called 'programmed cell death'.

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What is the difference between Necrosis and Apoptosis?

Necrosis is accidental and violent, caused by injury or stress. Apoptosis is a deliberate process, often for the good of the organism.

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What are the gross morphological features of Steatosis?

The affected organ becomes pale, with increased turgor, and increased weight. Grossly, it appears yellow, greasy, and soft.

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What are the microscopic morphological features of Steatosis?

Small clear vacuoles representing distended Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) can be seen within the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm appears red (eosinophilic) when stained with hematoxylin and eosin.

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Dystrophic Calcification

The deposition of calcium salts and other minerals in necrotic tissue, often occurring when cellular debris is not cleared promptly.

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Physiological Apoptosis

Apoptosis that occurs as part of normal bodily processes, such as development, hormone-dependent involution, and cell turnover.

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Pathological Apoptosis

Apoptosis that occurs in response to disease or injury, eliminating cells that are damaged beyond repair.

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Apoptosis During Embryogenesis

Apoptosis plays a crucial role in shaping tissues during embryonic development, for example, the formation of digits.

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Apoptosis and Cell Turnover

Apoptosis maintains a constant cell number in proliferating cell populations, such as immature lymphocytes.

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Apoptosis to Eliminate Harmful Cells

Apoptosis eliminates cells infected with viruses, damaged DNA, or autoreactive T cells, preventing harm to the organism.

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Apoptosis to Limit Collateral Damage

Apoptosis eliminates injured cells without causing an inflammatory response, minimizing tissue damage.

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Necrosis vs. Apoptosis

Necrosis is cell death caused by injury, characterized by cell swelling and rupture, while apoptosis is programmed cell death, involving organized cellular self-destruction.

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Microtubules as drug targets

Microtubules are crucial for cell division, intracellular transport, and maintaining cell structure. Disrupting microtubule function through drugs can have clinical applications.

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Colchicine: Microtubule inhibitor

Colchicine binds to tubulin molecules, preventing their polymerization into microtubules. This disrupts cell division, particularly in leukocytes (white blood cells).

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How do microtubules maintain cell shape?

Microtubules act like structural beams, providing rigidity and maintaining the overall form of the cell. They also contribute to the organization of intracellular compartments.

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What are microtubules made of?

Microtubules are composed of 13 parallel protofilaments, each made up of α-tubulin and β-tubulin heterodimers.

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What is the role of the centrosome?

The centrosome serves as the microtubule organizing center (MTOC). It contains γ-tubulin ring complexes, which nucleate microtubule growth.

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What is the function of actin filaments?

Actin filaments are involved in cell movement, organelle and vesicle transport, forming the cell cortex, and establishing points of contact with the extracellular matrix.

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How does actin correlate to its function?

Actin is a globular protein (G-actin) that polymerizes into long filaments (F-actin). The flexibility and dynamic nature of these filaments allow them to perform various functions.

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Explain the dynamic nature of microtubules

Microtubules are constantly changing their length by adding or removing tubulin subunits. This dynamic instability allows them to adapt to cellular needs.

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Role of MTs in cell division

Microtubules form the mitotic spindle, which pulls chromosomes apart during cell division. Their rapid polymerization and depolymerization are crucial for this process.

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How are intermediate filaments different from microtubules?

Intermediate filaments provide structural support for cells, but they are not involved in movement or transport like microtubules. They are more stable and less dynamic compared to MTs.

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Genetic Code

The set of rules that determines which amino acid is coded for by each codon (3-nucleotide sequence) in mRNA.

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Degeneracy of Genetic Code

Multiple codons can code for the same amino acid.

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Role of tRNA

tRNA acts as an adapter molecule, recognizing a specific amino acid on one end and its corresponding codon on mRNA on the other end.

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Role of Ribosomes

Ribosomes are the molecular machines that coordinate the interaction between mRNA, tRNA, enzymes, and factors needed for protein synthesis.

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Clinical Implications of Translation

Errors in translation can lead to diseases or disorders. Understanding translation is valuable in drug development, as drugs can sometimes target this process.

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Post-Translational Modifications

Modifications that occur after protein synthesis, changing the protein structure and function.

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Vincristine and Colchicine

Drugs that disrupt the mitotic spindle, arresting cells in mitosis. They are used in cancer chemotherapy and for studying individual chromosomes and karyotyping.

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Phagosome

A vesicle formed when a cell engulfs a particle, like bacteria, for digestion.

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Autophagosome

A double-membrane vesicle that encloses damaged organelles or parts of the cell during autophagy.

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Residual body

A spent lysosome that remains after digestion, containing undigested material.

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What are cell adaptations?

Reversible changes in cells, like size, number, or function, in response to changes in their environment.

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Types of cell adaptations

Hypertrophy (cell growth), hyperplasia (increased cell number), atrophy (cell shrinkage), and metaplasia (cell type change).

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How does hypertrophy happen?

Increased cell size due to increased workload, typically involving protein synthesis and growth factors.

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Physiological vs. Pathological hypertrophy

Physiological is due to normal increased demand (pregnancy), pathological is from abnormal stimuli (high blood pressure).

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What is hyperplasia?

An increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ, often due to growth factors.

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What is atrophy?

A decrease in cell size, often due to reduced workload, decreased nutrients, or lack of stimulation.

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What is metaplasia?

A reversible change where one adult cell type is replaced by another, often due to chronic irritation.

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Sex Chromatin

A densely packed, inactive X chromosome found in females, visible as a small granule in the nucleus. The other X chromosome remains uncoiled and inactive.

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Nucleolus

A spherical structure within the nucleus, rich in rRNA and protein, responsible for ribosomal subunit synthesis.

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Heterochromatin

Densely packed, inactive DNA that appears dark under a microscope. It is often associated with the nucleolus but its function is not fully understood.

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Interphase

The longest phase of the cell cycle, where the cell grows, duplicates its DNA, and prepares for division.

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G1 Phase

The first phase of interphase, where the cell synthesizes molecules needed for DNA replication and grows in size.

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S Phase

The phase of interphase where the cell's DNA is replicated, resulting in two identical copies of each chromosome.

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G2 Phase

The last phase of interphase, where the cell undergoes final preparations for mitosis, ensuring everything is ready for division.

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Cytoskeleton

A network of protein filaments within the cytoplasm of cells, responsible for cell shape, movement, and organization.

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Microtubules

Long, hollow tubes made of tubulin proteins, acting as intracellular pathways for transport and providing structural support.

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Centrosome

A region near the nucleus that houses centrioles and γ-tubulin ring complexes, which are nucleation sites for microtubules.

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Dynamic Instability of Microtubules

Microtubules can rapidly grow and shrink, with constant turnover. Growth occurs at the plus end, oriented away from the nucleus.

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Microtubule Function

They provide rigidity, maintain cell shape, transport organelles, establish compartments, and play a role in cell division.

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Colchicine: Microtubule Disruptor

A drug that binds to tubulin, preventing microtubule polymerization. This disrupts cell division, particularly in leukocytes.

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Actin Filaments

Thin, filamentous structures made of actin protein, involved in cell movement, muscle contraction, and maintaining cell shape.

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Intermediate Filaments

Fibrous proteins assembled into strong, durable cables, providing structural support and anchoring organelles.

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Cytoskeletal Components

The cytoskeleton is composed of three main components: microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. Each provides a specific function.

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Clinical Importance of Microtubules

Microtubules are critical for cell division. Drugs targeting them (like colchicine) have clinical applications to disrupt cell growth, particularly in cancer.

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What are chromosomes made of?

Chromosomes are made of chromatin fibers, which are composed of DNA tightly wound around histone proteins.

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What is autophagy?

A process where a cell 'eats' itself, engulfing its own components within double-membrane autophagosomes to produce macromolecules, like amino acids, fatty acids, and nucleotides, during starvation or other stress.

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How does autophagy relate to cancer?

Autophagy has a complex role in cancer. While it can act as an anticancer mechanism, it can also help tumor cells survive under starvation conditions caused by limited blood supply.

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What is the function of proteasomes?

Small organelles composed of protein complexes that break down unwanted or malformed proteins, ensuring the cell’s protein content is monitored and maintained.

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What is ubiquination?

The process of tagging a protein for degradation by attaching ubiquitin molecules, a small chain of amino acids.

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How does the amino terminus affect protein degradation?

The composition of amino acids at the amino terminus (N-terminus) of a protein influences how quickly it will be ubiquinated and degraded, thus its half-life.

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What is the G1 phase?

The first stage of interphase where cells grow, synthesize RNA and proteins, and prepare for DNA replication. The centrioles also begin to duplicate during this phase.

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What is the S phase?

The synthesis phase where the cell replicates its entire genome, doubling the amount of DNA.

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What is the G2 phase?

The phase between DNA replication and mitosis, during which cells synthesize proteins and store energy for cell division. The centriole duplication completes and any DNA replication errors are corrected.

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Mitosis

The process of cell division that results in two daughter cells with an identical number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

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What is cell differentiation?

The process by which a cell specializes and acquires unique characteristics for a specific function, becoming specialized in structure and function.

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What are microtubules?

Long, hollow cylinders composed of tubulin protein that provide structural support, facilitate intracellular transport, and play a crucial role in cell division.

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What are motor proteins?

Proteins that interact with microtubules to move organelles and vesicles around the cell.

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CDKs

Enzymes that regulate the cell cycle by controlling phosphorylation. Activation or inactivation of specific proteins by phosphorylation determines the progression through different phases.

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Modulation of Transmitters

Altering the activity of signaling molecules (transmitters) to control disease processes by either increasing (upregulation), decreasing (downregulation), or correcting their function.

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Drugs to Suppress Mediator Action

Medications that reduce the effects of signaling molecules by inhibiting their production, blocking their receptors, or promoting their breakdown.

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Angiotensin-II Inhibitors

Drugs like Ramipril that reduce blood pressure by lowering the levels of Angiotensin-II, a hormone that increases blood pressure.

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Angiotensin-1 Receptor Blockers

Drugs like Valsartan that directly block the receptors for Angiotensin-II, preventing it from raising blood pressure.

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Drugs for Disease Control

Medications targeting specific signaling molecules can treat diseases by restoring balance to their abnormal activity.

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Sex Chromosomes

The pair of chromosomes that determine an individual's gender, with XX for females and XY for males.

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Genome

The complete set of genetic material in an organism, including all chromosomes.

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Germ Cells

Sperm and egg cells, responsible for reproduction, containing half the number of chromosomes (23) compared to somatic cells.

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Karyokinesis

The division of the nucleus during mitosis, where chromosomes are separated into two equal sets.

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Cytokinesis

The division of the cytoplasm during mitosis, forming separate daughter cells.

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Prophase (Mitosis)

The first stage of mitosis, where chromosomes condense, the nuclear envelope breaks down, and the mitotic spindle forms.

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Metaphase (Mitosis)

The stage of mitosis where chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell, attached to spindle fibers.

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Meiosis I: Reductional Division

The first stage of meiosis where homologous chromosomes pair up, exchange genetic material, and then separate, resulting in two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes.

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Chiasmata

Cross-shaped structures formed during prophase I of meiosis where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material (crossing over).

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Meiosis II: Equatorial Division

The second stage of meiosis where sister chromatids within each chromosome separate, similar to mitosis, resulting in four haploid daughter cells (gametes).

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Haploid vs. Diploid

Haploid cells have one set of chromosomes (n), while diploid cells have two sets (2n). Gametes are haploid, while somatic cells are diploid.

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Centrioles and Mitosis

Centrioles are essential for proper formation of microtubules, which are crucial for spindle fibers in mitosis. Without them, mitotic spindle fibers cannot form correctly, disrupting chromosome separation and cell division.

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Metaphase: Chromosome Alignment

Metaphase is characterized by the precise alignment of duplicated chromosomes along the equator of the mitotic spindle. Spindle fibers attach to the kinetochore of each chromosome, ensuring proper separation during anaphase.

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Anaphase: Sister Chromatid Separation

During anaphase, sister chromatids, held together at the centromere, separate and begin migrating towards opposite poles of the cell. This is driven by the shortening of spindle fibers attached to the kinetochores.

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Telophase: Cell Division Completion

Telophase marks the end of mitosis. It involves the reconstitution of the nuclear envelope around each set of chromosomes, the disappearance of the spindle fibers, and cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm.

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Kinetochore: Attachment Point

A kinetochore is a protein structure located on the centromere of each chromosome. It serves as the attachment point for spindle fibers, enabling the movement of chromosomes during mitosis.

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Cytokinesis: Cytoplasmic Division

Cytokinesis refers to the final step of cell division where the cytoplasm divides into two equal daughter cells. This typically occurs by the formation of a cleavage furrow, a constriction that pinches off the cell.

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Diploid (2n) Chromosomes

Diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes (2n), one from each parent. Daughter cells produced by mitosis inherit an identical diploid number of chromosomes.

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Cleavage Furrow: Cell Division Line

A cleavage furrow is an indentation that appears in the cell membrane during cytokinesis, marking the region where cell division will take place.

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Contractile Ring: Muscle-like Structure

A contractile ring, composed of actin and myosin filaments, forms during cytokinesis and helps to constrict the cleavage furrow, further separating the daughter cells.

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Homologous Chromosomes: Matching Pairs

Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes that share the same genes, but may carry different alleles (versions) of those genes. One chromosome in the pair is inherited from the mother, the other from the father.

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What is the difference between hypertrophy and hyperplasia?

Hypertrophy involves an increase in cell size, while hyperplasia involves an increase in cell number. Though both can occur in response to increased demand or stimulus, the underlying mechanisms are different.

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Microtubule-associated proteins

Motor proteins that facilitate the movement of organelles and vesicles inside cells.

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Dynein's function

Moves vesicles towards the minus end of microtubules.

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Kinesin's function

Moves vesicles towards the plus end of microtubules.

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Centriole function

Organize microtubule formation, self-duplicate before cell division, and form the spindle apparatus during cell division.

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What are centrioles made of?

Small, cylindrical structures made of nine microtubule triplets.

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Thin filaments (microfilaments)

Made of two chains of globular subunits (G-actin) coiled around each other forming filamentous protein (F-actin).

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Functional forms of actin

  1. Contractile bundles: Involved in cell division. 2. Actin filaments for cell movement and structure.
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Plus end of actin filaments

The faster-growing end.

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Minus end of actin filaments

The slower-growing end.

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Protein Maturation

The process of converting a newly synthesized protein into its functional form, involving folding, modifications, and localization.

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Protein Folding

The process by which a linear polypeptide chain adopts its unique three-dimensional structure, guided by interactions between amino acids.

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Molecular Chaperones

Proteins that assist in the correct folding of other proteins, preventing misfolding and aggregation.

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Post-Translational Processing

Modifications to a protein after its synthesis, including proteolysis, amino acid modifications, and addition of groups.

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Proteolysis

The removal of amino acid sequences from a protein, often removing specific parts to activate or regulate its function.

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Glycosylation

The attachment of sugar chains (carbohydrates) to a protein, influencing its stability, function, and localization.

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Signal Peptides

Short amino acid sequences that guide proteins to their correct destination within a cell.

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Phosphorylation

The addition of a phosphate group to a protein, often acting as a switch that activates or deactivates its function.

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Acylation

The addition of a fatty acid to a protein, often anchoring it to cell membranes or influencing its interactions with other molecules.

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Protein Degradation

The process of breaking down proteins into their component amino acids, regulated by cellular mechanisms to remove faulty or unnecessary proteins.

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Types of intermediate filaments

There are different types of intermediate filaments, each with specific functions and found in different cell types. Examples include keratins in epithelial cells, desmin in muscle cells, and neurofilaments in neurons.

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Cell junctions

Specialized attachment areas, present on cells in close contact, that connect cells and provide various functions like sealing, anchoring, and communication.

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Occluding junctions

A type of cell junction that forms an impermeable barrier, preventing material from passing between cells. They are also known as 'tight junctions'.

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Anchoring junctions

These junctions hold cells together, providing mechanical stability to tissues that are under stress. They include 'zonula adherens' and 'macula adherens'.

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Metaplasia

A reversible change where one mature cell type is replaced by another mature cell type, often due to chronic irritation or deficiency.

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Squamous Metaplasia

Transition from a normally columnar or cuboidal epithelium to a stratified squamous epithelium.

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Columnar Metaplasia

Conversion from a stratified squamous epithelium to a columnar epithelium, often seen in the esophagus with chronic acid reflux.

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Hydropic Change

Cellular swelling caused by water influx due to failure of the sodium-potassium pump, often a sign of reversible cell injury.

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Fatty Change

Accumulation of triglycerides in cells, particularly in the liver, often caused by toxins or disruptions in metabolism.

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Causes of Hydropic Change

Oxygen deficiency, toxins, and radiation damage can all disrupt mitochondrial function and lead to ATP depletion, causing failure of the sodium-potassium pump and subsequent water influx.

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Reversible Cell Injury

Early, non-lethal cell damage that can be reversed if the damaging stimulus is removed.

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Wobble Theory

The third nucleotide in a codon is less important than the first two in determining the amino acid it codes for.

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Unambiguous Genetic Code

Each codon specifies only one amino acid.

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Non-Overlapping Genetic Code

The code is read continuously, three bases at a time, without any gaps or overlaps.

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Universal Genetic Code

The same codons specify the same amino acids in almost all living organisms.

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Initiation Complex

The complex formed when the small ribosomal subunit (40S), mRNA, and initiator tRNA (Met-tRNA) come together.

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tRNA Charging

The process of attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule.

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A Site (Ribosome)

The site on the ribosome where the incoming aminoacyl-tRNA binds.

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P Site (Ribosome)

The site on the ribosome where the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain resides.

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Centrioles Role in Mitosis

Centrioles are essential for proper formation of the mitotic spindle, which is crucial for chromosome separation and cell division.

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What happens in Metaphase?

Chromosomes align themselves on the equator of the mitotic spindle, guided by spindle fibers, becoming maximally condensed, ready for separation.

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Kinetochore Function

A protein complex located on the centromere of a chromosome that binds to spindle microtubules, facilitating the movement of chromosomes during mitosis.

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What happens in Anaphase?

Sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles of the cell due to spindle fiber shortening, while a cleavage furrow begins to form.

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Telophase: Final Stages of Mitosis

This phase involves cytokinesis (cell splitting), nuclear envelope reformation, spindle fiber disappearance, and chromosome decondensation.

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Cleavage Furrow

A groove in the plasma membrane that forms during cell division, eventually pinching the cell in two.

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Cytokinesis: Dividing the Cytoplasm

The division of the cytoplasm into two equal parts following the separation of chromosomes during mitosis.

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Daughter Cells: Identical Copies

The two cells produced by mitosis are genetically identical to the parent cell, containing the same number and kind of chromosomes.

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Diploid Number of Chromosomes

The normal number of chromosomes in somatic cells (body cells), with two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent.

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Heterochromatin and Euchromatin

Heterochromatin is tightly packed DNA, less active in transcription, while euchromatin is loosely packed, more active in gene expression.

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Tight Junctions

A type of cell junction that forms a seal between cells, preventing leakage of molecules between them.

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Zonula Adherens

A type of cell junction that connects cells together, providing structural support.

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Gap Junctions

Specialized junctions that allow direct communication between cells via channels formed by connexons.

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What are the 4 main types of cell junctions?

The four main types of cell junctions are tight junctions, zonula adherens, desmosomes, and gap junctions.

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Commaless Genetic Code

The genetic code is read continuously, without any punctuation or gaps between codons. The ribosome just keeps reading three bases at a time.

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Ribosomal Binding Sites

The ribosome has three binding sites for tRNA molecules: A site (aminoacyl site), P site (peptidyl site), and E site (exit site). These sites play key roles in the elongation stage of translation.

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Elongation Stage

The second stage of protein synthesis, where amino acids are added to a growing polypeptide chain. It involves a cyclic process of aminoacyl-tRNA binding to the A site, peptide bond formation, and translocation.

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Connexons

Channel-forming proteins that assemble into structures called connexons, which are responsible for creating the communication channels in gap junctions.

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Fatty Change (Steatosis)

An abnormal buildup of triglycerides (fat) within cells, especially in organs involved in lipid metabolism (like the liver).

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Causes of Fatty Change

Common causes include alcohol abuse, diabetes, obesity, toxins, poor protein intake, and lack of oxygen.

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ATP Depletion and Cell Injury

Depletion of ATP, often due to oxygen deficiency or mitochondrial damage, disrupts essential cellular processes, leading to cell injury.

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Causes of Necrosis

Necrosis is caused by severe injury such as loss of oxygen supply (ischemia), toxins, infections, trauma, or chemical damage.

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What are the morphological features of Necrosis?

In necrosis, cells swell, their membranes break down, and their internal contents leak out. They appear eosinophilic (reddish) under a microscope.

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What are the morphological features of Apoptosis?

Apoptosis is characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies. Cells don't burst.

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What are examples of Physiological Apoptosis?

Normal developmental processes like shaping tissues during embryogenesis, hormone-dependent involution, and cell turnover are examples.

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What are examples of Pathological Apoptosis?

Cells with damaged DNA, virus-infected cells, or autoreactive T cells die via apoptosis to prevent harm.

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What is the role of Microtubules in cells?

Microtubules provide structure, help transport materials within cells, and are essential for cell division.

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Coagulative Necrosis

A type of necrosis where the cell's architecture is preserved, but the cells become eosinophilic (pinkish) due to protein denaturation. It's commonly caused by ischemia (lack of blood flow).

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Clinical Applications of Biochemical Changes in Necrosis

Early detection of cell necrosis in blood tests is possible by identifying cell-specific proteins released from damaged cells.

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Early Biochemical Testing for Necrosis

This involves identifying cell-specific markers in blood samples, such as troponin for heart damage, transaminases for liver damage, and alkaline phosphatase for bile duct damage.

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Irreversibility of Necrosis

Necrosis is considered irreversible when mitochondrial dysfunction continues despite resolution of the initial injury. This is often marked by membrane damage and leakage of lysosomal enzymes.

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Nuclear Envelope

A double membrane surrounding the nucleus, composed of two parallel membranes separated by a narrow space called the perinuclear cisterna.

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Nuclear Pores

Openings in the nuclear envelope that allow controlled passage of molecules between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

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Chromatin

A complex of DNA and proteins, mainly histones, that makes up chromosomes.

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Nucleosome

The basic structural unit of chromatin, consisting of a core of histones wrapped around DNA.

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Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

A type of RNA that forms the structural and catalytic core of ribosomes, the protein synthesis machinery.

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Messenger RNA (mRNA)

A type of RNA that carries genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to ribosomes in the cytoplasm, coding for protein synthesis.

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Transfer RNA (tRNA)

A type of RNA that carries specific amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis.

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Nuclear Matrix

A protein scaffold that provides structural support to the nucleus and organizes chromatin.

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Polyribosomes

Groups of ribosomes attached to a single mRNA molecule, translating the same mRNA strand into multiple copies of a protein.

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What is the significance of cell cycle checkpoints?

These checkpoints ensure the meticulous completion of essential events in the cell cycle, such as cell growth, DNA replication, and chromosome segregation, before allowing the cell to move to the next phase. This guards against errors in cell division, preventing mutations and cancer.

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