Approaching and Entering Intersections
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Questions and Answers

What is the primary benefit of reducing speed as you approach an intersection?

  • It gives other vehicles time to react to your approach. (correct)
  • It allows you to accelerate through the intersection.
  • It provides a clear view of traffic signals.
  • It reduces the likelihood of mechanical failure.

    • What should you check for while searching ahead as you approach an intersection?

  • The speed of vehicles already in the intersection.
  • Only vehicles in your direct path.
  • Potential hazards, including pedestrians and blind spots. (correct)
  • The presence of stop signs exclusively.

    • What action must you take if you cannot positively identify that right-of-way has been yielded to you at an intersection?

  • Accelerate to avoid blocking traffic.
  • Stop for each individual lane. (correct)
  • Proceed slowly while scanning for traffic.
  • Honk to alert other drivers of your presence.

    • Which strategy should be employed to identify the path of least resistance at an intersection?

    <p>Identify lane patterns and avoid opposing traffic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does covering the brake mean when approaching an intersection?

    <p>Rest your foot on the brake pedal without applying pressure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should an operator avoid doing when entering an intersection with a green light?

    <p>Using the apparatus as a moving roadblock</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common consequence of jumping the vehicle from a stopped position?

    <p>Potential for at-fault collisions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factors contribute to the 'zone of confusion' when multiple emergency vehicles respond together?

    <p>Civilian drivers observing only one vehicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should vehicles travel during a procession response?

    <p>Single file with the largest vehicle leading</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should each vehicle in a procession response do upon approaching an intersection?

    <p>Use normal precautions and assess the situation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What age groups are especially susceptible to confusion caused by emergency vehicles responding simultaneously?

    <p>Elderly individuals and teenagers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is recommended to avoid dangerous situations in high-traffic intersections?

    <p>Anticipate mistakes made by other drivers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What safety measure is suggested to create a clear path during a procession response?

    <p>Employ contrasting siren tones</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of positioning a blocking apparatus during traffic control?

    <p>To divert or halt the flow of moving traffic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect is crucial when setting up a blocking apparatus?

    <p>Gaps should be avoided to prevent traffic intrusion</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be avoided when deploying a blocking apparatus?

    <p>Occupying the blocking apparatus with personnel</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is defined as the 'shadow' area in a traffic control situation?

    <p>The immediate area downstream of any blocking vehicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When directing upstream traffic using a blocking apparatus, what should be considered?

    <p>Directing traffic into a single lane safely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary consideration when assessing how to protect a crew and the scene from oncoming traffic?

    <p>The type of incident being managed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When is it necessary to establish a work zone?

    <p>Anytime apparatus will affect open traffic lanes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes the terms 'upstream' and 'downstream' in relation to a traffic scene?

    <p>They indicate directions relative to the standard flow of traffic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which lanes are referred to as 'local' lanes in the provided content?

    <p>Formerly known as collector-distributor lanes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What direction do the inner loop and outer loop of the Beltway around DC travel?

    <p>Inner loop travels clockwise and outer loop counterclockwise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which route is highlighted for having hazardous road design?

    <p>River Road to Georgia Avenue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following conditions requires special attention when approaching an incident scene?

    <p>Presence of traffic lanes and their identification</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What impacts how the scene is protected from oncoming traffic?

    <p>The type of apparatus deployed</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How far will a vehicle traveling at 60 mph cover in 7 seconds?

    <p>616 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which method is suggested for reducing glare inside the cab during night driving?

    <p>Dimming panel lights and MDT screen</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is advised to do first when you get stuck in snow?

    <p>Assess the situation and provide a report</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done with standard tire chains to avoid damaging them?

    <p>Avoid rapid spinning of tires</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended strategy regarding parking lots?

    <p>Avoid entering parking lots whenever possible</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should you do if driving while fatigued is unavoidable?

    <p>Take breaks as needed to regain alertness</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one of the primary causes of glare for other drivers when driving at night?

    <p>Warning lights and floodlights</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which technique is NOT recommended when trying to gain traction if stuck?

    <p>Spin tires continuously to free them</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the external accumulator in the retarder system?

    <p>To hold transmission fluid until activated</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the hydraulic type of driveline retarder operate?

    <p>By pumping oil around the driveshaft</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component alerts the driver regarding the status of the Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) system?

    <p>Instrument panel light cluster</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the composition of Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF)?

    <p>32.5% urea and 67.5% de-ionized water</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary purpose of the Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF)?

    <p>To capture and reduce particulate emissions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should the retarder system be deactivated, according to manufacturer recommendations?

    <p>In inclement weather or slippery conditions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does the electromagnetic retarder slow down a vehicle?

    <p>By establishing a magnetic field that interacts with the driveline</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is the DEF tank typically located in relation to the diesel fuel tank?

    <p>Adjacent to the diesel fuel tank</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary reason for emergency vehicle drivers to understand typical traffic patterns in their response area?

    <p>To minimize delays from traffic blockages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What common mistake do emergency vehicle drivers make when approaching gridlocked traffic?

    <p>Attempting to push through the traffic.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What defines an uncontrolled intersection?

    <p>An intersection without any control devices.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the emergency vehicle driver do if they encounter an intersection with high pedestrian activity?

    <p>Wait for pedestrians to cross before proceeding.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can emergency vehicle drivers communicate with other motorists when approaching traffic blockages?

    <p>Through early lane positioning and signaling.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what scenario might moderate use of a siren exacerbate the situation?

    <p>When traffic is already gridlocked or unresponsive.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why might emergency vehicle drivers need to develop different routes for different times of the day?

    <p>To accommodate increased traffic during peak hours.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential hazard that emergency vehicle operators need to scan for at intersections?

    <p>Pedestrians crossing unexpectedly.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of allowing DEF to crystallize?

    <p>It can cause an engine malfunction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the commonly used method for regeneration of the DPF when the vehicle is parked?

    <p>Accessing specific manufacturer instructions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the freezing point of DEF, and how does it affect vehicle operation?

    <p>It freezes at 12°F, but vehicles can still operate normally.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is NOT part of the driveline?

    <p>Brake Assembly</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What material is DEF corrosive to, making prompt cleaning essential?

    <p>Aluminum</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which circumstance does the DPF indicator illuminate?

    <p>When particulate matter accumulation is critical.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is one key function of the differential in a vehicle's driveline?

    <p>It allows wheels on the same axle to turn at varied speeds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a key risk associated with a faulty exhaust system?

    <p>It can produce harmful emissions into the crew area.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the recommended speed for backing up an emergency vehicle?

    <p>At walking speed or slower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following should be established if confusion occurs while backing an emergency vehicle?

    <p>Stop and establish clearer communication</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should drivers be cautious of when backing an emergency vehicle?

    <p>Blind spots created by the vehicle's front corners</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is ideally the best type of spotter for an emergency vehicle?

    <p>Someone who is also an apparatus operator</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor should a driver consider when selecting a parking spot for an emergency vehicle?

    <p>The potential hazards present at the scene</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What practice is discouraged when using mirrors while driving an emergency vehicle?

    <p>Fixating on the driver side mirror</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done in response to identified hazards at an incident scene?

    <p>Alter your route and operational strategies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should a driver consider the location of an emergency vehicle's exhaust outlet?

    <p>Specifically during outdoor responses like vehicle crashes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which item is NOT part of the vehicle interior cab check process?

    <p>Verify transmission fluid level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During a vehicle inspection, excessive play in the steering wheel should not exceed how many degrees?

    <p>10 degrees</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which fluid level is NOT specifically mentioned as needing to be checked in the given content?

    <p>Radiator fluid level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be checked for visual and audible indicators in the vehicle's cabin?

    <p>Chassis warning systems</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is crucial for the proper function of the windshield wipers?

    <p>Washer fluid levels</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should you do with the accelerator pedal before starting the engine?

    <p>Check its tread quality</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following checks is NOT associated with the interior cab inspection?

    <p>Inspect the hydraulic reservoir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which safety device is specifically mentioned as a mandatory check item for the vehicle?

    <p>Hood latches and safety bars</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary advantage of backing a rear-mount aerial into a building?

    <p>It allows for maximum aerial reach and good stability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which positioning method is considered the least stable during aerial operations?

    <p>Paralleling</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority order for removing victims during a rescue operation using an aerial device?

    <p>Most severely threatened, largest number or groups, remainder, exposed areas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation should mid-mount apparatus be parallel parked to a building?

    <p>When deploying aerial devices at ground level</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is the first step in the correct sequence for deploying an aerial device to a victim?

    <p>Raise</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it advisable to approach a target rescue from the upwind side?

    <p>To reduce heat exposure and enhance visibility</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be evaluated before positioning the aerial apparatus?

    <p>The surface hardness and recent precipitation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a disadvantage of pulling the apparatus into position?

    <p>Potential aerial reach may be compromised</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a significant risk when an aerial device is extended far?

    <p>Higher likelihood of crew members losing balance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What option may some aerial ladders have at the tip of the device for improved maneuverability?

    <p>Creeper controls</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does backing the aerial apparatus assist in deploying ground ladders?

    <p>It positions the aerial closer to the building.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should personnel do to prepare before moving the aerial device?

    <p>Confirm readiness of members and secure access doors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be a consideration when determining the aerial's stabilization?

    <p>The angle of the aerial relative to the vehicle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which type of aerial positioning allows for the turntable to be closer to the structure?

    <p>Backing in</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the sequence of deploying an aerial device?

    <p>Raise, rotate, extend, lower</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the potential effect of extending an aerial ladder too close to a victim on the ground?

    <p>It encourages the victim to jump onto the aerial device</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is crucial for determining the optimal placement of the apparatus upon arrival at a scene?

    <p>The general response patterns of nearby companies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When two aerial companies are responding, what should be considered to enhance their effectiveness?

    <p>Adjusting routes to approach from opposite sides</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How can a driver estimate the location of a building on a block using the address number?

    <p>By analyzing the last two digits of the address</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the first-due engine operator do upon arriving at the alarm location?

    <p>Position the engine just past the fire building for ladder access</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What aspect of the situation must the aerial driver stay informed about regarding incoming companies?

    <p>The running order and response locations of the companies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What may indicate that a building is positioned at a corner on a block?

    <p>Extremely low or high digits in the address</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which factor is NOT typically considered by an aerial driver when arriving at a scene?

    <p>The age of nearby structures</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main challenge of driving an apparatus with lights and sirens during a response?

    <p>Navigating while considering multiple external factors</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of counterweights in an elevator system?

    <p>To balance the weight of the elevator car and enhance stability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What initial step should be taken during an elevator rescue when the car is not operational?

    <p>Disengage the door interlock mechanism using elevator keys</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Lock-out/Tag-out procedure involve?

    <p>Locking or removing power from a machine to ensure safety</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which scenario is it advised to utilize forcible entry tools?

    <p>If the elevator pole has failed to unlock the door</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What determines the exit strategy for removing patients from an elevator car?

    <p>Which method affords the greatest safety for both occupants and rescuers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the Fireman's service button in an elevator?

    <p>To return the elevator to the lobby and keep the doors open during emergencies</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is essential to complete prior to entering an elevator hoistway for rescue?

    <p>Perform Lock-out/Tag-out procedures for the main power disconnect</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of using elevator keys during rescue operations?

    <p>To disengage the locking mechanisms enabling access to the car</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary goal of directing an elevated stream at the ceiling during a Blitz Attack?

    <p>To enhance the water droplet formation for better extinguishment</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which situation is a defensive attack deemed necessary?

    <p>When there's evidence of high BTU exposure requiring protection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should an aerial device be positioned during a defensive attack on a structure with heavy fire involvement?

    <p>On the uninvolved side to protect unburned areas</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the primary consideration for using an aerial platform is victim rescue?

    <p>Avoid the use of attack lines for reducing aerial capability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor should be considered when channeling and relieving trapped water in a structure?

    <p>To prevent additional structural loading and collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In which circumstance is utilizing an aerial device as an exterior standpipe recommended?

    <p>In the case of a malfunctioning standpipe system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential consequence of introducing a large quantity of water into a structure during an interior attack?

    <p>It increases the likelihood of ceiling collapse</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following best describes a defensive attack?

    <p>An all exterior assault when safe entry is compromised</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum working pressure of most high pressure air bag systems in psi?

    <p>145 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which function do internal relief valves in the controller perform?

    <p>Prevent over pressurization of the bags</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When the pressure inside the air bag exceeds the max working pressure, what happens next?

    <p>The internal relief valve vents excess pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a notable feature of deadman controls in air bag systems?

    <p>They prevent accidental over pressurization</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What must be monitored to ensure safe operation of air bags?

    <p>The air pressure inside the bag</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is 1 bar related to psi in terms of pressure measurement?

    <p>1 bar = 100 kPa = 14.5 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which valve type functions like an on/off switch but must be manually set?

    <p>Quarter turn valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens during the relief valve reset process once maximum pressure is reached?

    <p>Extra pressure is allowed to escape</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the cubic feet per minute (cfm) rating of an air compressor?

    <p>It indicates the quantity and type of pneumatic tools that can be used effectively.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does ambient air affect the operation of air compressors?

    <p>It introduces moisture which can condense in the storage tank.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a primary function of air treatment devices in pneumatic systems?

    <p>To eliminate moisture and oil that can damage tools.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What role do cascade systems play in air supply?

    <p>They provide a mechanism to equalize pressure among interconnected cylinders.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens to water vapor during the compression of air?

    <p>It condenses as the temperature of the air decreases.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of pulling from only one cylinder in a cascade system?

    <p>It helps maintain higher pressures in the remaining interconnected cylinders.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a potential risk of oil in compressed air?

    <p>It can damage internal components of air tools and equipment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is the quality of air produced by a compressor critical for tool performance?

    <p>It prolongs the service life of tools by preventing internal damage.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What relationship does the area of the piston have with the distance the piston moves in a hydraulic system?

    <p>Directly proportional</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a characteristic feature of an ideal hydraulic fluid?

    <p>Thermal stability</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does increasing the output force affect the lifting height in a hydraulic system?

    <p>It decreases lifting height despite an increase in force</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component of a hydraulic system is primarily responsible for carrying pressure?

    <p>Fluid</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the calculated distance piston 2 moves if it has an area of 10 in² and 10 in³ of liquid volume is displaced?

    <p>1 in</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why are oil-based hydraulic fluids often preferred in hydraulic systems?

    <p>They exhibit fewer operating issues and maintain desired properties</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following is NOT typically a characteristic of an ideal hydraulic fluid?

    <p>Very high surface tension</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation should oil-based hydraulic fluids be avoided?

    <p>In fire/rescue operations</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the main function of a control valve in hydraulic tools?

    <p>To return to the Neutral position when not engaged.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature of spreaders limits the closing force compared to the opening force?

    <p>The design of the double acting cylinder.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when trying to spread using the arms of the tool instead of the tips?

    <p>Damage to the tool.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How do the design of spreaders influence their ability to apply force?

    <p>Longer arms generally increase spreading distance at the cost of maximum force.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the benefit of incorporating check valves in hydraulic tools?

    <p>To hold the load if fluid flow is interrupted.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of cylinder do spreaders utilize for their function?

    <p>Double acting cylinder.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a common characteristic of spreader tip designs?

    <p>Some tips are designed for gripping and others for peeling.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is emphasized as critical during the operation of a spreader?

    <p>A good grip with the tips.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum spreading force provided by the Rabbit Tool?

    <p>8,000 lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which model of the Hydra-Ram tool provides the greatest spreading distance?

    <p>Hydra-Ram II</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary power source for the tools included in the Hurst Mini-Lite kit?

    <p>Hand pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How much cutting force can the cutters in the Mini-Lite kit provide?

    <p>17,000 lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following tools integrates both the hydraulic pump and actuator into one piece?

    <p>Hydra-Ram</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum spreading distance that the standard Rabbit Tool achieves?

    <p>4 inches</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which feature distinguishes the Hydra-Ram II from the original Hydra-Ram?

    <p>Longer spreading distance</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the rated spreading force of the Paratech HydraFusion strut?

    <p>10,000 lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary benefit of a locking differential in vehicles?

    <p>It allows torque to be distributed evenly between wheels with differing traction.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In what situation should the inter-axle differential lock be engaged?

    <p>When the vehicle is stopped or moving at slow speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What potential problem can arise if a vehicle operates with the locking differential engaged on dry pavement?

    <p>Decreased steering ability.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does the Automatic Traction Control (ATC) do when it detects a spinning drive wheel?

    <p>It applies braking to the spinning wheel and may reduce engine speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a recommended practice regarding the use of snow chains?

    <p>Avoid attempting sharp turns while using chains.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Why is it important not to engage the inter-axle differential lock with the rear wheels spinning?

    <p>It may result in mechanical failure of the differential.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a critical condition for disengaging the locking differential once engaged?

    <p>The vehicle is on straight terrain with a low load.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How does engaging the inter-axle differential lock affect its function?

    <p>It prevents the wheels on one axle from turning faster than the other.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the function of the foam manifold drain in the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine?

    <p>To allow for the gravity drainage of foam back into the main pump.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component in the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine lacks an integral pressure relief valve, unlike similar models?

    <p>Large Diameter Discharge</p> Signup and view all the answers

    In the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine, which of the following control systems is responsible for maintaining the engine's performance diagnostics?

    <p>Motor diagnostics</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What characteristic distinguishes the operation of the intake controls on the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine?

    <p>They include intake primers and bleeders for efficiency.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is NOT a noted feature of the deck gun in the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine?

    <p>Integrated pressure relief system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What feature allows the Trident Air Primer to operate without an internal motor?

    <p>Chassis air brake system</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the pump pressure near the impeller drops below 20 psi?

    <p>Auto Primer activates</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a limitation regarding the engagement time of the primer operation?

    <p>Engagement time is unlimited if not running a dry pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component should personnel check if the priming becomes noticeably slow or weak?

    <p>Integral strainer</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which aspect of the primer design helps to prevent freezing?

    <p>Automatic draining feature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the Hale Thermal Relief Valve?

    <p>To prevent overheating of the pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What type of controls does the Trident Air Primer utilize?

    <p>Manual and automatic</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which condition will not automatically engage the primer for the main pump?

    <p>Pump pressure is above 20 psi</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum vertical lift capability of the Trident Air Primer?

    <p>27 feet</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What might occur if the discharge opens too fast when switching sources?

    <p>Pump may cavitate</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What change occurs to the front springs during emergency braking?

    <p>They flatten and take on an 'S' shape.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component helps reduce undesirable steering reactions during emergency braking?

    <p>S-buffers</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the primary function of the air tank drain actuators?

    <p>To prevent moisture accumulation in air tanks.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is necessary when departing slowly from the bay until the rubber molds to the tailpipe?

    <p>Manually disengaging the exhaust hose.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which axle has the highest weight capacity in the described vehicle?

    <p>27,000 lb rear axle</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What specific maintenance task should be performed daily on the S-Buffer Assembly?

    <p>Inspect for loose hardware.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is responsible for maintaining the brake system while parked?

    <p>12v auxiliary air compressor</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the purpose of inspecting welds and surrounding metal of the S-Buffer Assembly?

    <p>To check for signs of failure or cracking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done if the gap between the Rubber Axle Stop and spring is outside the acceptable range?

    <p>Drive cautiously and re-measure the gap after repositioning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When should pads on the Bendix ADB22X Disc be replaced?

    <p>At 11mm, which is approximately 7/16”.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should be taken if the Rubber Axle Stop is found to be torn?

    <p>Place the truck out of service and replace the Rubber Axle Stop.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What condition requires the vehicle to be placed out of service according to the Rubber Axle Stop’s inspection criteria?

    <p>If the gap is found to be greater than 1/2”.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the acceptable range for the gap between the Rubber Axle Stop and spring?

    <p>1/16” to 1/2”.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the consequence of allowing the OnSpot automatic snow chains to activate without a delay?

    <p>It could damage the chains.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How should a vehicle be positioned for the daily inspection?

    <p>On flat level ground with wheels straight.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens if surface cracks are identified on the Rubber Axle Stop?

    <p>Submit a defect report immediately.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What adjustment can be made to ensure proper fitting of the SCBA tank in the upper claw?

    <p>Use the adjustment knob on top of the bracket</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following features indicates a successful pump shift in-cab?

    <p>Command Zone screen activation</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which component is NOT included in the pump specifications for the 2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine?

    <p>Integral Class B foam tank</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is indicated when the pressure rises on the main discharge gauge of the pump panel?

    <p>The pump is successfully engaged assuming a wet pump</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What functionality does the Hale Total Pressure Master (TPM) system provide?

    <p>Controls the foam application ratio</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should be done after donning the SCBA straps while seated to enhance readiness?

    <p>Stow SCBA straps in pre-designated loops</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement accurately reflects the function of the pump shift indicator lights?

    <p>They indicate when the pump is operational</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the significance of the 'pump engaged light' on the pump panel?

    <p>It shows the pump is operating safely</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Approaching Intersections

    • Reduce speed to adjust to the available space
    • Reducing speed gives other vehicles time to react to your approach
    • Search ahead and identify potential hazards, such as other vehicles, pedestrians, bicycles, and blind spots such as buses, trees, and buildings
    • Identify the path of least resistance, including lane patterns and avoiding opposing traffic

    Entering Intersections

    • Entry occurs when the front bumper crosses the cross-traffic
    • If you cannot positively identify that right-of-way has been yielded to you, you must stop, doing so for each lane
    • Make eye contact with other drivers to assess if they see you
    • Avoid using the apparatus as a moving roadblock

    Jumping at Intersections

    • Operator depresses the accelerator hard from a stopped position
    • Vehicle jerks or jumps forward, putting stress on the apparatus
    • Jumping before another vehicle moves forward can cause a low-speed collision

    Other Units at Intersections

    • Zone of confusion is created when two or more emergency vehicles respond together, often causing civilian drivers to make mistakes
    • High-risk situation where other drivers may not see all emergency vehicles and may pull into your path
    • Elderly and teenagers are especially susceptible to confusion

    Procession Response

    • Travel single file with the largest vehicle leading to create a path
    • Maintain space cushions as the leading unit may stop
    • Each vehicle must use normal precautions as though no other units are already in the intersection
    • Use contrasting siren tones, such as an electronic siren with an alternating or pulsing tone

    Night Driving Precautions

    • Reduce speed and increase following distances
    • Avoid driving when fatigued
    • Keep eyes moving to avoid glare
    • Use red overhead lights, dimming the MDT screen, and dimming panel lights to reduce glare inside the cab
    • Keep the windshield, headlights, and warning lights clean

    Winter Weather

    • Assess your situation and provide a Conditions-Actions-Needs report to PSCC or Incident Command via radio
    • Back out or try to rock the vehicle to gain better traction
    • Use the vehicle’s systems to assist with traction
    • Shovel under and around the apparatus to improve traction
    • Standard tire chains – avoid repeatedly and rapidly spinning the tires
    • Automatic tire chains - spinning the tires is required to put the chains below the tires

    Parking Lots

    • Immediately limited clearance due physical hazards such as tight corners, overhanging branches, protective bollards, light poles, and rocks
    • Watch for pedestrians and distracted drivers
    • Avoid entering if possible, and choose your parking spot carefully

    Work Zone

    • Every incident requires establishing a work zone to some degree
    • Assess how best to protect your crew and the scene from oncoming traffic
    • Establish a work zone whenever apparatus will impede or affect open traffic lanes

    Roadway Terms

    • Lane identification is numbered from left to right
    • “Local” lanes are the former collector/distributor or CD lanes
    • “Main” lanes are through lanes
    • Inner loop is clockwise around DC on the Beltway. Outer loop is counterclockwise
    • Upstream and downstream refer to the direction of normal vehicle travel relative to the scene

    Prioritizing the Arriving Unit

    • The arriving unit’s priorities include blocking traffic hazards
    • Set out traffic control devices
    • Protect the loading area for the ambulance and the work area for crews

    Blocking Apparatus

    • Blocking apparatus should not be occupied
    • Avoid blocking partial lanes
    • Beware that gaps behind or in front of the apparatus allow cars to enter the work area
    • A “shadow” is the area immediately downstream of any apparatus or vehicle that blocks moving traffic
    • Work within this “shadow” area for greatest degree of safety and protection from moving traffic

    Driveline Retarder Systems

    • Driveline retarder systems are self-contained and consist of a rotating vaned rotor in a vaned cavity.
    • The rotor is splined to and driven by the output shaft of the transmission.
    • When activated, fluid is pressurized and directed into the retarder cavity.
    • The interaction of fluid with the rotating and stationary vanes slows down the vehicle.
    • Most manufacturers recommend turning off the retarder during inclement weather or slippery road conditions.
    • Both hydraulic and electromagnetic retarders are attached to the driveshaft between the transmission and the rear axle.
    • Hydraulic retarders absorb energy by pumping oil around the driveshaft, slowing the vehicle down.
    • Electromagnetic retarders set up a magnetic field that grabs the driveline, slowing the vehicle down.
    • The absorbed energy is transferred to the surrounding atmosphere as heat.

    Emission Control Systems

    • Diesel engines are equipped with "aftertreatment" systems that include Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) and the Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF).
    • DEF is a non-hazardous solution of 32.5% urea and 67.5% de-ionized water used to break down nitrogen oxide emissions.
    • DEF is stored in a separate tank with a blue filler cap and should only be refilled when it reaches half capacity.
    • The DEF tank is separate from the diesel fuel tank.
    • The DEF level indicator is generally located on the dashboard next to the diesel fuel level indicator.
    • Do not allow the DEF tank to reach empty, or the vehicle will automatically reduce power.
    • DEF crystallizes when stored for prolonged periods as the water evaporates.
    • Do not use DEF that shows signs of crystallization.
    • Use the filler tube supplied to avoid spills or splashes.
    • Spills can be safely washed down with water.
    • DEF is not corrosive to human skin, but it is corrosive to aluminum.
    • The freezing point of DEF is 12°F, but vehicles are equipped to thaw the DEF, preventing it from hindering vehicle operation.
    • The DPF indicator illuminates when sufficient particulate has accumulated in the system to require regeneration.
    • Regeneration occurs automatically when the vehicle is at highway speeds for over 20 minutes or while parked.
    • Parked regeneration is likely required due to the type of driving fire apparatus typically engages in.
    • Consult the manufacturer's instructions for specific regeneration instructions.

    Driveline Components

    • The driveline consists of the transmission, front universal joint, driveshaft, rear universal joint, differential, and the rear axle.
    • The transmission is a system of gears that allows changes in the ratio of engine revolutions to wheel revolutions.
    • The drive shaft connects to the rear of the transmission and is powered to turn the differential.
    • The differential is a component of the rear axle that allows wheels on the same axle to turn at different speeds when making turns.

    Engine and Driveline Maintenance Checks

    • Oil levels
    • Coolant levels
    • Power steering fluid level
    • Transmission fluid level
    • Air compression belts
    • Hydraulic reservoir
    • Brake fluid level
    • Battery fluids (both left and right)
    • Windshield washer fluid levels
    • Belts and wiring harnesses
    • Steering box (ensure it is not leaking)
    • Safety devices (including hood latches and safety bars for tilt cabs)

    Interior Cab Checks

    • Engage the parking brake, chock the wheels, turn the batteries on, turn on the ignition master, place transmission in neutral, and start the engine.
    • Check the instrument/dash gauges for operating voltages, temperatures, pressures, and levels.
    • Check the accelerator pedal tread, in place and not loose.
    • Conduct a brake test and listen for obvious leaks and/or blown diaphragms.
    • Check steering wheel and column for centering, excessive play (greater than 10 degrees), and abnormal movement.
    • Check electric/air horns for equal tone quality from each horn.
    • Check electronic and mechanical sirens for excessive draw on the ammeter and voltage fluctuations.
    • Check windshield wipers and washers as well as heating and defrosting systems.
    • Check radio equipment including fixed, portable, public address system, and cellular phone.
    • Check for onboard documents (accident reports, vehicle registration, insurance card, etc.).
    • Check interior lighting systems for proper operation.
    • Ensure seat adjustment mechanisms (both mechanical and pneumatic) are working properly.
    • Check seatbelt systems (occupant restraints).
    • Check the interaxle differential locking systems (both dual and tandem axle).
    • Check visual and audible chassis warning systems, including oil, water, and transmission fluid level and temperature and open door compartment warning lights.
    • Ensure outside mirrors (both manual and mechanical) can be adjusted and the wiring for the heating system is intact.
    • There should be appropriate maps and accountability rings/systems on board.

    Backing Up the Apparatus

    • Use mirrors and scan all mirrors when backing up, avoiding fixating on just the driver-side mirror.
    • Beware of the front corners of the vehicle, as they can swing into blind spots and strike fixed objects that are not visible to the spotter.
    • Be aware of landscaping rocks, low retaining walls, fire hydrants, protective bollards, and other obstacles that may be out of view of the driver when backing.
    • Maintain a slow speed when backing up.
    • When backing up, be aware of the front corners of the vehicle, as they can swing into blind spots and strike fixed objects that are not visible to the spotter, be particularly wary of obstacles like landscaping rocks, low retaining walls, fire hydrants, and protective bollards.

    Parking the Apparatus

    • Select a parking spot that best supports operations, considering the surrounding conditions and potential hazards.
    • Consider existing hazards and potential hazards as the incident escalates.
    • Remember traffic is always a hazard on every incident scene.
    • Know policies that address positioning on specific incident types (trench rescues, gas leaks, hazardous materials releases).
    • Consider the location of the vehicle's exhaust outlet when responding to outdoor emergencies.
    • Use opposing lanes of traffic to pass other vehicles with extreme caution.
    • Learn typical traffic patterns for the response area, especially during morning and evening commutes, construction zones, or special events.
    • When approaching gridlocked areas, slow down before reaching the blockage to assess the path of least resistance.
    • Do not plow through stopped traffic when a right turn lane is wide open.
    • Communicate the driver's intention to other motorists through early lane positioning.
    • Be wary of motorists who panic and switch lanes unexpectedly, especially in right turn lanes or shoulders.
    • Allow traffic to make a path and avoid trapping the vehicle in a sea of surrounding traffic.
    • If traffic is unable to move, moderate the use of the siren and/or horn, as they may increase confusion or anxiety.

    Negotiating Intersections

    • Intersections are the most dangerous areas for emergency vehicles.
    • An intersection is anywhere that other vehicles may cross the emergency vehicle's path, including parking lot exits, alleys, driveways, trails, or railroad crossings.
    • There are two types of intersections:
      • An uncontrolled intersection is any intersection that does not offer a control device (stop sign, yield sign, traffic signals, or railroad gates).
      • A controlled intersection is defined as any intersection that has a control device that regulates the flow of traffic, including stop signs and traffic signals.
    • Every intersection is a danger to the emergency vehicle operator until cross traffic is confirmed to be controlled or absent.
    • When approaching any intersection, consider the following:
      • Scan the entire intersection for possible hazards (including vehicles turning right on red, pedestrians, vehicles not yielding).

    Blitz Attack

    • During a Blitz Attack direct the water stream at the ceiling to create a broken stream, this enhances extinguishing properties.
    • A large amount of water in a structure creates an un-designed live load, weakening the structure and increasing the risk of collapse.
    • Channel and relieve trapped water to ensure the safety of interior crews.

    Defensive Attack

    • Defensive attack is an exterior assault on a structure, employed when the incident commander deems the structure beyond saving.
    • This attack is also used when the exposure protection of nearby structures is needed, as well as conditions prohibiting safe entry.
    • It’s also used when high GPMs are required to put out the fire.
    • During a defensive attack, position the aerial, if possible, on the uninvolved side of the structure to contain the fire.

    Exterior Standpipe Operations

    • Use aerial devices as exterior standpipes when a standpipe system malfunctions, access to the building is impeded, or in parking garages.
    • The nozzle tip can be removed and converted into a 2 ½’’ adapter for hose line attachment.
    • Some aerial platforms have multiple hose connections for pre-connected lines.
    • Do not use the aerial platform for attack lines if primary use is rescue.

    Driving an Apparatus

    • Consider traffic laws, street conditions, traffic congestion, and pedestrian traffic when driving with lights and sirens.
    • Consider the placement and deployment of the aerial ladder upon arrival.
    • In Montgomery County, typically a full assignment includes five engines, two aerials, one rescue, two chiefs, and one medic unit.
    • Know from where all companies are responding and their dispatched running order (e.g., the location/direction of the first engine and other aerial company).
    • Two truck companies responding should adapt running routes to approach the fire building from opposite directions, providing the best opportunity for access to all sides of the fire building.
    • The first-due engine can position itself just past the fire building to allow hoseline deployment without obstructing the aerial apparatus position.
    • Know the incident address and whether it is an odd or even number to help determine which side of the street the fire building is located.
    • The last two digits of the address can help estimate the location of the building on the block; extremely low or high digits could indicate a corner building.

    Apparatu Positioning

    • Pulling/Nosing:
      • The front of the unit faces the structure.
      • The aerial will be in use over the cab and unit.
      • Some mid-mount apparatus may require the aerial to be elevated above a minimum angle to position over the cab.
      • This is the most stable aerial position.
    • Backing in:
      • Places the rear of the vehicle closest to the building.
      • On rear mount aerials, the turntable is closer to the structure than the cab, providing maximum reach and stability.
      • Use this position when the building is more than 3 stories or the turntable is more than 35 feet away.
      • On mid-mount apparatus, reach is lost as the aerial has to extend over the body of the truck.
      • This position minimizes travel distance for deploying ground ladders.
    • Paralleling:
      • Places the side of the vehicle closest to the building.
      • The turntable can be close enough to the building for maximum reach.
      • This position is the most common because travelways often parallel structures.
      • This position is less inherently stable than the other positions.

    Aerial Operations Safety

    • Secure platform access doors before moving the device.
    • Approach the target using low or slow speed options to allow finer control.
    • Use “creeper” controls if available to move the aerial at a very low speed with a firefighter at the tip.

    Rescue

    • Reach as many victims as possible with the minimum number of aerial movements.
    • Remove victims in the following order of priority:
      • Most severely threatened by fire conditions
      • Largest number or groups of people
      • Remainder of people in the fire area
      • People in exposed areas
    • Attempt rescues on the upwind side (windward) to maximize visibility and minimize heat exposure.
    • Consider positioning the turntable at the corners for buildings with windows on multiple sides.

    Raising the Aerial Device

    • Raise, rotate, extend, lower, and then position near the victim.

    Counterweights

    • Counterweights equal the car’s total dead weight plus 40% of the car’s designed live load.

    Lock-Out/Tag-Out

    • This is the process of locking/removing power from the machine and declaring a safe work area.

    Elevator Car Rescue

    • Access can be made using elevator keys, an elevator pole, or forcible entry tools.
    • Contact occupants, check fireman’s service, and attempt to use keys and poles before using forcible entry.
    • Always protect the hoistway.
    • Remove patients from a non-working elevator only if safe to do so.
    • Follow all standard safety policies.
    • Perform Lock-out/Tag-Out.
    • Stay within the hoistway of the rescue operation.
    • Determine the safest exit for the occupants and rescuers (car top, side exit, or through the doors).
    • No more than two rescuers on top of the elevator car.
    • Always follow Lock-Out/Tag-Out procedures.

    Fireman’s (or Firefighter’s) Service

    • The Fireman’s Service button is activated using a key switch in the lobby.
    • The elevators will come to the lobby with doors open.
    • This function works only if the elevator is activated.
    • Phase 1 is complete when the elevator is in the lobby.
    • This prohibits residents from using the elevator during an emergency.
    • Observe the fireman’s service button once inside the elevator.

    Air Compressors

    • The output of air compressors is measured in cubic feet per minute (cfm).
    • Higher cfm ratings allow for more powerful pneumatic tools.
    • Higher storage tank pressures equate to higher air volume, supporting tools with greater air consumption rates.
    • Water vapor condenses when compressed air cools, potentially causing corrosion and damage to tools and equipment.
    • Oil from lubrication can contaminate compressed air.
    • Air dryers and filters are necessary for extending the life of pneumatic systems.

    Cascade Systems

    • A cascade system uses multiple high-pressure cylinders connected together.
    • These systems are often filled from an external compressor.
    • Air flows from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure until equalized.
    • Drawing from only one cylinder at a time preserves pressure in the remaining cylinders for extended use.

    Airbags

    • Pressure regulators adjust high-pressure air from sources like SCBA cylinders to appropriate operating pressure for airbags.
    • Airbag working pressures range from 7 to 145 psi.
    • Airbag controllers regulate air flow, monitor pressure, and prevent over-pressurization.
    • Controllers utilize “deadman” controls that automatically return to a neutral position when released or quarter-turn valves that require manual operation.

    Hydraulic Systems

    • Hydraulic fluid (or liquid) transmits pressure and transforms it into mechanical force.
    • Ideal hydraulic fluid properties include thermal stability, resistance to water decomposition, low corrosiveness, anti-wear characteristics, longevity, and cost-effectiveness.
    • Oil-based hydraulic fluids often meet these requirements.

    Rescue Hydraulics

    • Porta-power kits offer a range of capacities from 4 to 20 tons.
    • Manually operated portable hydraulic kits, like the Hurst Mini-Lite, are utilized in rescue operations.
    • The Mini-Lite kit includes spreaders, cutters, and rams powered by a hand pump.
    • The Rabbit Tool, also compatible with the Hurst Mini hand pump, provides up to 8,000 lbs of spreading force.
    • The Hydra-Ram integrates a hydraulic pump and actuator into one tool, available in two sizes: 4 inches and 6 inches of spreading distance.
    • The Paratech HydraFusion Strut is a rescue-specific hydraulic tool.

    Control Valves

    • These valves are designed to return to a neutral position upon release, preventing accidental movement.
    • They incorporate check valves to prevent pressure loss in case of fluid flow disruptions.

    Spreaders

    • Spreaders use a piston rod to apply outward force to arms, enabling prying, spreading, lifting.
    • Longer spreader arms provide greater reach but less force.
    • Spreaders utilize double acting cylinders for both opening and closing forces.
    • Closing force is less than opening force due to differences in piston surface area.
    • Spreader tips have various designs for gripping, peeling, and attaching chains for pulling.
    • Spreading should only be done at the tip to prevent tool damage.

    Locking Differentials

    • Locking differentials allow torque to be applied to all wheels on an axle, regardless of traction.
    • This ensures that even if one wheel loses traction, the truck can still move forward.
    • Never engage the differential lock above 25 mph or while the wheels are spinning.
    • Engaging the differential lock increases the steering radius.
    • Always disengage the lock once the vehicle is moving freely and do not drive on dry pavement with the lock engaged.
    • Do not attempt to turn the vehicle with the lock engaged when tire chains are installed.

    Inter-axle Differential Lock

    • The inter-axle differential allows the wheels of each axle to turn at different speeds, accommodating cornering, uneven road surfaces, and tire size differences.
    • Engage the IAD lock only when stopped or moving at slow speed. NEVER lock the IAD lock with the rear wheels spinning.
    • Disengage once the vehicle is freely moving and do not drive on dry pavement with the lock engaged.

    Automatic Traction Control

    • ATC automatically applies brakes to a spinning drive wheel.
    • Engine speed is also reduced until traction is restored.
    • To temporarily disable ATC, depress the mud and snow switch when rocking the vehicle.

    SCBA Storage and Donning

    • Each SCBA-equipped seat has loops to stow SCBA straps
    • Magnets secure the straps
    • Enhances donning while seated

    Pump Details

    • Hale 1500gpm single stage Qmax pump
    • Hale Total Pressure Master (TPM) system
    • Trident air primer
    • Class 1 SmartFOAM proportioner with FoamLogix
    • 6.5 pump
    • 750 gallon water tank
    • 50 gallon class A foam tank
    • No CAFS
    • No integral Class B foam tank
    • No Autofill

    Pump Shift Indicators

    • In-cab signs of successful pump shift
      • Indicator lights beside shift lever
      • Command Zone screen
      • Speedometer rises
    • Pump panel signs of successful pump shift
      • Pump Engaged light illuminated
      • 3rd panel light illuminated
      • Pressure rise on main discharge gauge (assuming a wet pump)
      • Auto light lit on pump primer (assuming AUTO mode)
    • No manual override for the pump shift

    Exhaust and Tailpipe

    • Exhaust outlet is 6” diameter
    • PlymoVent boots accept up to 6 ¼” exhaust outlets
    • Due to a tight fit, check your mirror to ensure the hose disengages from the exhaust when exiting the station

    Chassis

    • 20,000lb front axle
    • 27,000lb rear axle
    • Parking brake locks up all wheels
    • Second actuator located on officer’s side dashboard adjacent to A-post for emergencies
    • Anti-lock disc air brakes front and rear axle
    • 18.7cfm air compressor
    • 12v auxiliary air compressor behind driver seat
    • Heated air dryer on wet tank
    • Stainless steel air storage tanks
    • Air tank drain actuators – driver side beside wheel chock mount

    Front Suspension

    • Front springs flatten and assume an “S” shape during emergency braking
    • “S-buffers” stiffen the springs when compressed to reduce undesired steering reaction during emergency braking

    S-Buffer Assembly Inspection - Daily

    • Inspect for loose hardware
    • Inspect welds and surrounding metal for cracks
    • Look for signs of failure or tearing of the Rubber Axle Stop
    • Placement out of service if cracks are found in metal, loose hardware is found or Rubber Axle Stop is missing, failed, or torn

    S-Buffer Assembly Inspection - Monthly

    • Complete daily inspection
    • Park loaded vehicle on flat level ground with wheels pointed straight
    • Ensure parking brake is applied and wheels are chocked
    • Inspect gap between Rubber Axle Stop and spring
    • Acceptable range is 1/16” to 1/2”
    • If gap is outside of accepted range:
      • Drive cautiously around parking lot, re-position on flat level ground with wheels straight and re-measure the gap

      • 1/2”: place the vehicle out of service and contact CMF

      • < 1/16” or the Rubber Axle Stop is touching: submit a defect report
    • This is not an immediate out of service condition

    Bendix ADB22X Disc Brakes

    • Pads must be replaced at 11mm (approximately 7/16”)

    Meritor DiscPlus EX225 Disc Brakes

    • Pads must be replaced at 3mm (approximately 1/8”)

    Towing

    • Jumper studs accessible below driver’s side cab door when cab is nested
    • Glad hands located below the front bumper to assist with towing

    OnSpot Automatic Snow Chains

    • Located on rear axle
    • Switch on dashboard to the left of the steering wheel
    • 5 second delay before they activate to prevent accidental activation

    Pump Engaged vs Not Engaged Indicators (4th light)

    • 4th light only illuminates when pump is in gear

    Rear Discharges

    • Deck gun
    • Foam controller
    • Throttle
    • TRV

    Command Zone Display

    • Motor diagnostics
    • Alarm silence

    Driver Side Discharge Controls

    • Crosslays
    • Driver Side Discharge 1
    • Booster Reel

    Intake Controls

    • Intake controls
    • Intake primers
    • Intake bleeders

    Discharge Drains

    • No drain for the deck gun; drains by gravity back into the main pump
    • Air outlet and valve
    • Intake relief valve drain
    • Foam manifold drain

    Large Diameter Discharge Controls

    • No integral pressure relief valve on these discharges

    Switch Panel

    • Booster reel rewind
    • Panel lights
    • Pump Engaged indicator
    • Scene lights

    Driver Side Intake

    • MIV override

    Hale Total Pressure Master Controls

    • Hale Total Pressure Master
    • Throttle control
    • Hale Thermal Relief Valve

    Trident Air Primer

    • Utilizes air suppled by the chassis air brake system to operate the pump primer
    • Up to 15.6 cubic feet per minute
    • Very low impact on vehicle electrical system - 0.4 amps
    • 27’ vertical lift capable
    • Two types of controls
      • Manual
      • Automatic
    • Primer located behind curbside pump panel

    Trident Air Primer Features

    • No internal motor, solenoid, or cables
    • Brass and steel construction
    • Primer design provides automatic draining to avoid freezing
    • No lubrication necessary
    • No limitation on primer engagement time

    Trident Air Primer Maintenance

    • No maintenance requirements for operations personnel
    • If priming becomes noticeably slow or weak, check the integral strainer for debris

    Trident Air Primer Internal Operating Mechanism

    Auto Primer Engagement

    • Auto Primer engages when pump pressure measured near the impeller drops below 20psi
    • Can engage for reasons:
      • Air slug
      • Discharge opens too fast
      • Switching from tank water to another source
    • Manual intake primers can be simultaneously engaged with the Auto Primer

    Combination Auto/Manual System

    • Auto for the main pump
    • Manual for the individual intakes

    Automatic Primer Activation

    • Pump is in gear – “OK to PUMP”
    • Pump pressure is

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    Related Documents

    Engine EVO Class B Modules 2-5 PDF
    Engine Training Supplements Modules 1, 7, 13 PDF
    Aerial – Ladder, Tower & Tractor Drawn Training Supplements PDF
    Rescue Squad Modules 3-7, 12 PDF
    Driver Training Knowledge Base PDF
    2018 Pierce Enforcer Engine Training Material PDF

    Description

    This quiz covers essential rules and safety practices for approaching and entering intersections. It includes strategies for identifying hazards, ensuring right-of-way, and the implications of vehicle movements such as jumping. Test your knowledge on safe intersection navigation.

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