Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs Overview
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Questions and Answers

Which of the following is a primary effect of Alpha 1 receptor stimulation?

  • Vasoconstriction (correct)
  • Increased heart rate
  • Vasodilation
  • Bronchodilation

A patient is prescribed Mirabegron (Myrbetriq). What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

  • Relaxing the detrusor muscle of the bladder. (correct)
  • Stimulating cholinergic receptors in the urinary tract.
  • Blocking alpha-adrenergic receptors in the bladder.
  • Inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine in the bladder.

A patient is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction. Which medication and route is most appropriate for initial management?

  • Metoprolol IV
  • Mirabegron PO
  • Dopamine IV
  • Epinephrine 1-10mg/ml (correct)

What is the classification of Tamsulosin (Flomax)?

<p>Alpha-adrenergic blocker (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking Sotalol (Betapace) should be educated to report which of the following adverse effects?

<p>Irregular heartbeats and unusual tiredness (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiemetic drug is contraindicated in patients with pheochromocytoma, seizure disorders, or breast cancer?

<p>Metoclopramide (Reglan) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is an important nursing implication to monitor when a patient is taking Metoprolol (Lopressor)?

<p>Blood pressure and pulse (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed an antiemetic prior to chemotherapy. When is the best time for the nurse to administer the medication?

<p>30-60 minutes before the chemotherapy begins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Dopamine (Inotropen)?

<p>Pheochromocytoma (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with motion sickness is prescribed Scopolamine transdermal patch. Which condition should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering this medication?

<p>Glaucoma (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiemetic drug has a primary mechanism of action that involves blocking dopamine receptors in the CTZ and causing desensitization to impulses from the GI tract?

<p>Metoclopramide (Reglan) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of Memantine (Namenda)?

<p>Antagonizes NMDA receptors in the brain (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the effect of stimulating Beta 2 receptors?

<p>Bronchodilation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is receiving promethazine (Phenergan) intravenously. Which of the following is an important administration guideline the nurse should follow?

<p>Dilute in at least 10ml of fluid and administer via a running IV line and at the port farthest from the patient’s vein (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which antiemetic is classified as an antihistamine (H1 receptor blocker) and is used to treat motion sickness and allergy symptoms?

<p>Meclizine (Antivert) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is taking an adrenergic agonist. Which of the below indicates a potential adverse effect?

<p>Palpitations (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication has a contraindication of 'children less than 2 years' because of risk of fatal respiratory depression?

<p>Promethazine (Phenergan) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking Ondansetron (Zofran) should be educated about which of the following side effects which can be exacerbated by the use of alcohol?

<p>Severe central nervous system depression (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common adverse effect specifically associated with long-term use of metoclopramide (Reglan)?

<p>Irreversible tardive dyskinesia (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is released through a transdermal patch over 72 hours and is used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness by blocking ACh receptors in the inner ear?

<p>Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking dicyclomine (Bentyl) should be educated to report which of the following adverse effects?

<p>Difficulty urinating, severe constipation, or vision changes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of dicyclomine?

<p>Angle-closure glaucoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The primary mechanism of action of dicyclomine involves blocking which neurotransmitter?

<p>Acetylcholine (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is educating a patient on dicyclomine. What advice should the nurse provide regarding medication administration to minimize dry mouth?

<p>Take the medication with food or milk (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking dicyclomine reports experiencing severe dry mouth. What nursing intervention is most appropriate?

<p>Reassure the patient that dry mouth is an expected effect of the medication (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which principle is associated with maintaining patient privacy, as it relates to a patient's medical information?

<p>Confidentiality (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is making treatment decisions, and believes in the principle of nonmaleficence. How would the nurse proceed?

<p>Avoid harm or injury to the patient. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient refuses a recommended treatment. Which ethical principle is the nurse upholding by respecting this decision?

<p>Autonomy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A nurse is ensuring equitable allocation of resources among patients, regardless of their backgrounds. Which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating?

<p>Justice (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does a nurse's duty to a patient entail, in the healthcare setting?

<p>Providing competent care that meets the standard of care (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is primarily used to treat overactive bladder?

<p>Oxybutynin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism of action of pyridostigmine?

<p>Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, thereby increasing acetylcholine levels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient reports dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision. Which medication are they most likely experiencing side effects from?

<p>Oxybutynin (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with myasthenia gravis is prescribed a medication to improve muscle strength. Which drug is most likely prescribed?

<p>Pyridostigmine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of pyridostigmine?

<p>Mechanical obstruction of the GI tract (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking memantine for dementia experiences confusion and a headache. According to the text, how should the nurse respond?

<p>Recognize these as potential side effects of the medication. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which medication is contraindicated with uncontrolled angle-closure glaucoma?

<p>Oxybutynin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is newly prescribed oxybutynin. What is an important education point by the nurse?

<p>Take with food or milk to minimize dry mouth. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is going for surgery, and is taking Pyridostigmine. What is an important nursing implication following surgery?

<p>Check for GI obstruction (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects are associated with Memantine?

<p>Confusion and headache (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

A drug that blocks dopamine receptors in the CTZ (Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone), desensitizing it to signals from the GI tract. It also stimulates stomach emptying.

Ondansetron (Zofran)

A drug that blocks serotonin receptors in the GI tract, CTZ, and VC (Vomiting Center), preventing signals from reaching the brain.

Meclizine (Antivert)

An antihistamine that blocks acetylcholine (ACh) receptors, reducing cholinergic stimulation in the vestibular and reticular areas.

Promethazine (Phenergan)

A drug that blocks dopamine receptors in the CTZ, preventing nausea and vomiting.

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Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop)

A transdermal patch that releases scopolamine, an anticholinergic that blocks acetylcholine receptors in the inner ear and brain.

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Antiemetics

A group of drugs used to treat nausea and vomiting.

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Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ)

An area in the brain that is responsible for triggering the sensation of nausea and vomiting.

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Prokinetic Drug

A type of drug that promotes the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract.

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Serotonin Blocker

A medication that blocks serotonin receptors.

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Anticholinergic

A type of drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors.

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What type of drug is Dicyclomine?

Dicyclomine is a type of medication that blocks the action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal tract.

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What conditions does Dicyclomine treat?

Dicyclomine is used to treat irritable bowel syndrome and functional digestive disorders.

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Who should not take Dicyclomine?

Individuals with angle-closure glaucoma, GI tract obstructions, myasthenia gravis, paralytic ileus, GI atony, or toxic megacolon should avoid Dicyclomine.

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What are some common side effects of Dicyclomine?

Dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, drowsiness, dizziness, and tachycardia are common side effects of Dicyclomine.

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What is veracity in the context of healthcare?

Veracity is the principle of being truthful and honest in communication and actions.

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What does nonmaleficence mean in healthcare?

Nonmaleficence is the principle of avoiding harm or injury to others.

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What is autonomy in healthcare?

Autonomy is the right of patients to make decisions about their own medical care without coercion.

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What is beneficence in healthcare?

Beneficence is the principle of doing good and promoting well-being for the patient.

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What is confidentiality in healthcare?

Confidentiality is the principle of protecting patient information and privacy.

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What is justice in healthcare?

Justice is the principle of fairness and equal treatment in healthcare.

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What are adrenergic agonists?

Adrenergic agonists (sympathomimetics) are medications that mimic the effects of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). They work by stimulating adrenergic receptors, which are located on various cells throughout the body.

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Where are alpha-1 receptors located and what do they do?

Alpha-1 receptors are located on postsynaptic cells, also known as effector cells. When stimulated, they cause vasoconstriction, narrowing of blood vessels.

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What are beta-1 receptors known for?

Beta-1 receptors are mainly located in the heart, causing vasoconstriction and increasing heart rate and contractility. Medications targeting Beta-1 receptors are known as 'cardioselective drugs' as they primarily affect the heart.

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Where are Beta-2 receptors located and what do they do?

Beta-2 receptors are primarily found in the lungs and arteries. Stimulation of Beta-2 receptors leads to bronchodilation (widening of airways) and vasodilation (widening of blood vessels).

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What is Epinephrine and what is it used for?

Epinephrine is a powerful adrenergic agonist used in emergencies such as anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, cardiac arrest, and asthma. It binds to both Alpha and Beta receptors causing vasoconstriction and increased heart rate.

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What is Dopamine and how does it work?

Dopamine is another adrenergic agonist used for various conditions. It can dilate blood vessels, improve cardiac contractility, and cause vasoconstriction depending on the dosage.

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What is Mirabegron and where does it work?

Mirabegron is a medication that specifically targets Beta-3 adrenergic receptors within the bladder, leading to relaxation of the detrusor muscle and increased bladder capacity.

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What are alpha-adrenergic blockers?

Alpha-adrenergic blockers work by blocking alpha receptors, mainly those located in the bladder and prostate, leading to relaxation of smooth muscle and improved urinary flow.

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What are beta-blockers and how do they work?

Beta-blockers are medications that block the effects of the SNS on the heart. They can be nonselective (block both Beta-1 and Beta-2) or selective (target only Beta-1 receptors).

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What are the properties of Sotalol?

Sotalol, a nonselective Beta-blocker, also has Class III antiarrhythmic properties. It blocks potassium channels, prolonging the heart's refractory period and suppressing abnormal rhythms.

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Memantine's mechanism of action

A medication that blocks the stimulation of specific receptors in the brain, which is believed to play a role in dementia. This blockage helps to reduce or slow down the progression of cognitive symptoms.

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Pyridostigmine: How does it work?

A drug that works by increasing the amount of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that helps with muscle function, by preventing its breakdown.

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Oxybutynin: How does it help an overactive bladder?

A medication that blocks the action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle cells in the bladder, preventing involuntary contractions and increasing bladder capacity.

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Oxybutynin: What is it used for?

An anticholinergic drug used to treat an overactive bladder and as an antispasmodic for bladder issues related to spinal cord injuries or conditions like spina bifida.

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Dry Mouth: A side effect of Oxybutynin?

A common side effect of anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin, which can lead to dryness in the mouth and difficulty swallowing.

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Anticholinergic Drugs

Medications that block the action of acetylcholine in the body, often leading to side effects like dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision.

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Myasthenia Gravis

A condition where the body's immune system attacks the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue.

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Myasthenia Gravis: Key Symptom

Muscle weakness and fatigue common in Myasthenia Gravis, often aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.

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Mechanical Obstruction: Contraindication

Conditions involving obstruction in the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tracts, a contraindication for various medications like Pyridostigmine and Oxybutynin.

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Cholinergic Drugs: What do they do?

A group of drugs that directly affect muscle function through their influence on the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

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Study Notes

Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs

  • Antiemetics are medications used to treat nausea and vomiting.
  • Seven categories exist, with varying mechanisms of action, primarily via blocking pathways that initiate vomiting.
  • Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) is the brain area involved in nausea and vomiting sensations.

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

  • Class: Prokinetic Drug
  • Routes: Oral, Parenteral (injection), prescription-only
  • Indications include Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD), delayed gastric emptying, and nausea/vomiting (N/V).
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks dopamine receptors in the CTZ, desensitizing it to GI tract impulses; stimulates GI tract peristalsis to enhance stomach emptying.
  • Contraindications: seizure disorders, pheochromocytoma (adrenal gland tumor), breast cancer, and GI obstruction.
  • Allergies to metoclopramide or related drugs (procaine, procainamide) are also contraindications.
  • Adverse effects include long-term tardive dyskinesia (movement disorder) and extrapyramidal effects (tremors, muscle contractions, eye spasms, lip smacking, tongue protrusion).

Ondansetron (Zofran)

  • Class: Serotonin Blocker
  • Routes: Oral, injectable (IV push over 2 minutes)
  • Indications include nausea/vomiting associated with chemotherapy and post-surgical procedures; also used for hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy).
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks serotonin receptors in the GI tract, CTZ, and vomiting center, preventing nausea and vomiting.
  • Contraindications: known drug allergies, some concerns about use during the first trimester of pregnancy related to potential effects on fetal development (cat B medication).

Meclizine (Antivert)

  • Class: Antihistamine (H1 receptor blocker)
  • Route: Oral
  • Indications include motion sickness, non-productive cough, allergy symptoms, and vertigo.
  • Mechanism of Action: Inhibits acetylcholine (ACh) action in the vestibular and reticular areas, which prevents nausea and vomiting.
  • Contraindications include shock and breastfeeding (lactation).

Promethazine (Phenergan)

  • Class: Antidopaminergic
  • Routes: Oral, Intramuscular (IM, preferred), Intravenous (IV).
  • Indications include psychotic disorders, intractable hiccups, hay fever, and allergic conjunctivitis.
  • Mechanism of action: Blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
  • Contraindications: Children under 2 years old due to risk of fatal respiratory depression.

Scopolamine (Transderm-Scop, Scopace)

  • Class: Anticholinergic (acetylcholine blocker)
  • Route: Transdermal patch (72-hour release)
  • Indications include nausea/vomiting associated with motion sickness, post-surgical procedures, and pre-operative use to reduce secretions.
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks acetylcholine receptors in the inner ear labyrinth, CTZ, and the reticular formation to prevent nausea and vomiting.
  • Contraindications for use include glaucoma, pyloric obstruction, urinary bladder neck obstruction.

Adrenergic Agonists (Sympathomimetics)

  • Catecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine) play a role as endogenous adrenergic agonists.
  • Alpha 1 receptors are located on postsynaptic cells (effector cells).
  • Alpha 2 receptors are on presynaptic cells.
  • Beta 1 receptors are mainly in the heart; Beta 2 receptors are primarily in the lungs and some arteries.
  • Dopamine receptors dilate blood vessels in renal, mesenteric, coronary, and cerebral regions.
  • Indications: include cardiovascular conditions (heart failure, shock); respiratory conditions (bronchodilation, nasal congestion); some urinary conditions.

Epinephrine (Epi-Pen)

  • Class: Alpha and Beta adrenergic agonist
  • Indications for use include anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, cardiac arrest, and asthma.
  • Mechanism of Action: binds to alpha receptors causing vasoconstriction
  • Contraindications: hypertension, hypersensitivity, CAD, tachyarrhythmias.
  • Adverse effects include palpations, leading to dysrhythmias; seizures and stroke (extreme BP).
  • Antidotes include sympatholytic medications, frequently clonidine

Dopamine (Inotropen)

  • Class: Beta 1 adrenergic agonist.
  • Route: Intravenous (IV)
  • Indications: Low to moderate doses dilate blood vessels in the brain, increasing blood flow; higher doses improve cardiac contractility and output; highest dose indicated for vasoconstriction.

Mirabegron (Myrbetriq)

  • Class: GU Adrenergic Agonist (Beta 3 adrenergic)
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications: overactive bladder
  • Mechanism of Action: relaxes detrusor muscles to increase bladder capacity

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

  • Class: Alpha adrenergic blocker
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications include benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in males; kidney stones or urinary retention in females.
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks alpha adrenergic receptors in the prostate and bladder to improve urinary flow

Sotalol (Betapace)

  • Class: Nonselective beta blocker
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications: difficult to treat dysrhythmias
  • Mechanism of Action: Class III antiarrhythmic properties

Metoprolol (Lopressor)

  • Class: Beta-1 blocker
  • Routes: IV and PO
  • Indications: hypertension; Angina, heart failure
  • Mechanism of Action: acts on beta-1 receptors in the heart to reduce the effects of catecholamines on cardiac function

Memantine (Namenda)

  • Class: NMDA receptor antagonist
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications: Alzheimer's dementia
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks the stimulation of NMDA receptors, reducing the development or progression of dementia symptoms

Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

  • Class: Indirect-Acting Cholinergic Drugs
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications: Myasthenia gravis, to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular drugs after surgery
  • Mechanism of Action: increases acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase

Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

  • Class: Anticholinergic
  • Route: Oral (PO), Transdermal patch
  • Indications: overactive bladder (OAB), neurogenic bladder associated with spinal cord injuries and congenital conditions
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks muscarinic action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle cells in the bladder to inhibit involuntary contractions and increase bladder capacity

Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

  • Class: Synthetic Antispasmodic Cholinergic Blocker
  • Route: Oral (PO)
  • Indications: irritable bowel syndrome, functional disturbances of the GI tract
  • Mechanism of Action: blocks the muscarinic action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle cells in the GI tract

Cultural and Ethical Considerations

  • Veracity: truthfulness and honesty.
  • Nonmaleficence: avoiding harm to patients.
  • Autonomy: patients' right to make medical decisions.
  • Beneficence: doing good and promoting wellbeing for patients.
  • Confidentiality: protecting patient information.
  • Justice: fairness and equal treatment.
  • Breach of Duty: deviating from the expected standard of care.
  • Causation: establishing a direct link between the breach and harm.
  • Damage: the harm or injury suffered by the patient.
  • Cultural Assessment: systematic process to understand patient's background, beliefs, values, and preferences, including language, family, diet, traditional healing, views of health, illness, suffering, spirituality, and death.

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Description

Explore the classifications, mechanisms, and indications of antiemetic and antinausea drugs. This quiz covers various drug categories, with a focus on Metoclopramide (Reglan), its uses, contraindications, and adverse effects. Test your understanding of how these medications work to alleviate nausea and vomiting.

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