Anticonvulsant Pharmacology

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Questions and Answers

Which statement accurately contrasts a generalized seizure and a focal seizure?

  • Generalized seizures typically result from structural abnormalities, whereas focal seizures are often idiopathic.
  • Generalized seizures always involve motor symptoms, whereas focal seizures never do.
  • Focal seizures originate from the entire cortex of both hemispheres, unlike generalized seizures.
  • Generalized seizures involve the entire cortex of both hemispheres from the onset, while focal seizures originate in one cerebral cortex. (correct)

A patient experiences a brief episode characterized by a blank stare and unresponsiveness, lasting approximately 10 seconds, without any preceding aura or postictal confusion. Which type of seizure is most likely?

  • Myoclonic seizure
  • Tonic-clonic seizure
  • Complex partial seizure
  • Absence seizure (correct)

What is the primary rationale for advocating monotherapy over polytherapy in the long-term treatment of epilepsy?

  • Polytherapy inevitably leads to the development of tolerance to all anticonvulsant medications.
  • Monotherapy is invariably more effective at controlling seizure frequency than polytherapy.
  • Monotherapy eliminates the potential for drug-drug interactions and reduces the risk of dose-dependent toxicities. (correct)
  • Monotherapy is significantly cheaper.

Why abrupt withdrawal from anti-epileptic drugs can be dangerous?

<p>It can trigger status epilepticus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) affect epilepsy's course?

<p>They control seizures but need to be taken for life. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is most crucial in selecting an anti-epileptic drug (AED) for a specific patient?

<p>The drug's acceptability of side effects and the dosing schedule's impact on the patient's lifestyle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is associated with phenytoin, fosphenytoin, and carbamazepine?

<p>Blockage of voltage-gated sodium channels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Ethosuximide is a medication primarily used for treating?

<p>Absence Seizures (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property is unique to fosphenytoin compared to phenytoin?

<p>Fosphenytoin can be administered much faster intravenously than phenytoin due to its increased water solubility. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the use of MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors) be discontinued 14 days before starting carbamazepine?

<p>To reduce the risk of serotonin syndrome due to interactions between MAOIs and carbamazepine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking carbamazepine develops ataxia, dizziness, and a skin rash. Which adverse reaction is most concerning?

<p>Stevens-Johnson syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind monitoring HLA-B*1502 allele status in patients of Asian descent prior to initiating treatment with carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine?

<p>To predict the likelihood of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) or toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Lacosamide's mechanism of action is that it binds to?

<p>Collapsin response mediator protein-2 (CRMP-2) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed ethosuximide for absence seizures. Which adverse effect is the most likely to occur?

<p>Gastrointestinal disturbances (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A neonate is experiencing seizures, and phenobarbital is being considered as the first-line treatment. For which seizure type is phenobarbital NOT typically used as a first-line treatment?

<p>Absence seizures (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed a benzodiazepine for emergency management of a seizure. What is the primary mechanism of action of benzodiazepines in this context?

<p>Enhancement of GABAergic neurotransmission (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes gabapentin from other GABAergic medications?

<p>Gabapentin increases GABA release into nerve synapses but has no direct effect on GABA receptors. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with focal seizures is also being treated for diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Which anti-epileptic drug is most appropriate?

<p>Pregabalin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is unique about miscellaneous AEDs?

<p>They do not fall neatly into the defined mechanistic categories due to having multiple mechanisms or unclear mechanisms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Valproic acid is contraindicated under what condition?

<p>Hyperammonemia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is associated with Levetiracetam?

<p>Binding to synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be monitored when Lamotrigine is added to Valproic acid?

<p>Decrease the Lamotrigine dose (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is most closely associated with topiramate?

<p>Metabolic acidosis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking vigabatrin for resistant partial seizures reports progressive dimming of vision. What is the most appropriate course of action?

<p>Immediately discontinue vigabatrin and refer the patient for ophthalmologic evaluation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a classification of the seizures important when choosing an anti-epileptic drug treatment?

<p>To select the right medication. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition can lower the seizure threshold?

<p>Alcohol withdrawal (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be co-administered with anti-epileptic drugs?

<p>Calcium and Vitamin D (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is associated with all anti-epileptic drugs?

<p>CNS depression (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking phenytoin develops nystagmus, ataxia, and lethargy. What should the clinician suspect?

<p>Phenytoin toxicity due to supratherapeutic levels (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed carbamazepine for a seizure disorder. Which baseline laboratory test is most important to obtain prior to initiating therapy?

<p>Complete blood count (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient develops megaloblastic anemia while taking phenytoin. Which action is most appropriate?

<p>Start the patient on folic acid supplementation while continuing phenytoin. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which anti-epileptic drug is most likely to cause hyponatremia, particularly in elderly patients?

<p>Carbamazepine (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with partial seizures, controlled with lacosamide, is started on amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What is the primary concern regarding this drug interaction?

<p>Increased risk of cardiovascular events (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 6-year-old child is newly diagnosed with absence seizures. Which medication is generally considered the first-line treatment?

<p>Ethosuximide (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed phenobarbital for seizure control. Which instruction is most important to emphasize regarding potential drug interactions?

<p>Use non-hormonal contraception due to decreased efficacy of oral contraceptives. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking gabapentin reports new onset peripheral edema. Which action is most appropriate?

<p>Assess renal function and review concomitant medications known to cause edema. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most significant advantage of levetiracetam over older anti-epileptic drugs, particularly in patients with multiple comorbidities?

<p>Fewer drug interactions (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient on lamotrigine develops a rash. What is the most important initial step?

<p>Immediately discontinue the medication and seek medical evaluation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors would most strongly contraindicate the use of vigabatrin in a patient with epilepsy?

<p>Pre-existing visual field defect (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements best captures the complex relationship between anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) and seizure management?

<p>AEDs primarily focus on managing the symptoms of seizures, without necessarily altering the course of the underlying epileptic condition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient experiencing generalized tonic-clonic seizures is being evaluated for long-term anti-epileptic drug (AED) therapy. What critical principle should guide the selection and management of AEDs in this scenario?

<p>Favor monotherapy, if possible, to minimize adverse effects and drug interactions, and replace the drug if the maximum dose does not control seizures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient with newly diagnosed partial seizures is prescribed carbamazepine. What crucial information should the clinician convey to the patient regarding the use of carbamazepine and other medications or substances?

<p>The patient should discontinue any MAO inhibitors 14 days before starting carbamazepine to avoid increased toxicity of MAOIs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient taking carbamazepine reports experiencing visual disturbances (double vision), drowsiness and problems with balance and coordination. What should you determine first to evaluate the concerning adverse effects?

<p>Determine the carbamazepine levels, as these are signs of toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is being treated with an anti-epileptic drug (AED) that is known to induce hepatic enzymes. How does this property most significantly affect the management of their epilepsy and overall health?

<p>It accelerates the metabolism of other drugs, potentially reducing their effectiveness and requiring dosage adjustments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Epilepsy

A chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent (≥2 unprovoked) seizures.

Abnormal electrical discharges in epilepsy

Loss of consciousness, abnormal movements, odd behavior, and distorted perceptions

Generalised seizures

Aberrant electrical discharge diffusely involves the entire cortex of both hemispheres, consciousness is usually lost

Focal (Partial) seizures

Excess neuronal discharge occurring in one cerebral cortex

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Status epilepticus

Involves tonic-clonic seizure activity lasting >5 min or ≥ 2 seizures between which patients do not fully regain consciousness.

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Treatment Goals for Epilepsy

Keep patients free of seizures without dose-dependent toxicity phenomena

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Epilepsy Monotherapy

If possible, it is better to treat a patient with only one anticonvulsant.

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Anticonvulsant withdrawal

The abrupt withdrawal of these drugs may cause status epilepticus.

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Anti-Epileptic drugs

They control the seizures and usually have to be taken for life.

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Sodium Channel Blockers

Sodium Channel Blockers (Phenytoin, Fosphenytoin, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine)

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Phenytoin MOA

blocks voltage-gated sodium channels

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Carbamazepine MOA

Blocks sodium channels → inhibit the generation of repetitive action potentials in epileptic focus and prevents their spread

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Oxcarbazepine MOA

Blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels → stabilises hyper-excited neural membranes → suppresses repetitive neuronal firing → ↓propagation of synaptic impulses

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Lacosamide MOA

Binds to collapsin response mediator protein-2 (CRMP-2)

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Ethosuximide MOA

Inhibits T-type calcium channels → reduced propagation of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

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Benzodiazepines MOA

Bind to GABA inhibitory receptors to reduce firing rate

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Gabapentin MOA

an analogue of GABA (no effects on GABA receptors): increase GABA release into nerve synapses; also block N-type CC

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Pregabalin MOA

Binds to auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels

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Valproic acid MOA

Blockade of sodium channel, GABA transaminase and T-type calcium channels

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Levetiracetam MOA

modulates transmission by binding to synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A)- ↑affinity; partially inhibits N-type calcium currents

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Lamotrigine MOA

Blocks sodium channels and HV-dependent calcium channels

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Topiramate MOA

Blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels, reduces high-voltage calcium currents and targets glutamate (NMDA) sites

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Vigabatrin MOA

Irreversibly inhibits y-aminobutyric acid transaminase (GABA-T) enzyme

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Choosing Antiepileptic Treatments

Drug selection is mainly based on drug toxicities profiles of agents and patient characteristics.

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Summary on Anti-Epileptic Drugs (AEDs)

Selection is PT-specific w/ seizure type, age, pregnancy, S/E and ALL cause CNS Depression

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Drugs lowering seizure threshold

Drugs increasing risk of seizures: ,Meperidine, Metoclopramide, Penicillins, Fluoroquinolones and Theophylline

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Study Notes

  • Anticonvulsant pharmacology covers the use of medications to manage seizures and epilepsy.

Lecture Objectives

  • Define epilepsy and distinguish between different types of seizures.
  • Discuss the pathophysiology of epilepsy.
  • Explain the mechanisms of action of anticonvulsant drugs, including their effects on sodium channels, calcium channels, and GABAergic activity.
  • Categorize anticonvulsant drugs based on chemical structure and action mechanisms.
  • Identify major anticonvulsants and their specific uses for different seizure types.
  • Describe the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of anticonvulsant drugs.
  • Discuss the pharmacodynamic properties and therapeutic targets of anticonvulsants.
  • Outline goals for anticonvulsant therapy.
  • Discuss side effects, adverse reactions, and contraindications of anticonvulsant medications.
  • Highlight important drug interactions and patient management considerations.

Epilepsy

  • Epilepsy is a chronic brain disorder characterized by recurrent, unprovoked seizures.
  • Seizures involve abnormal electrical discharges leading to loss of consciousness, unusual movements, altered behavior, and distorted perceptions.
  • Symptom specifics depend on where the abnormal firing originates.
  • Epilepsy can be idiopathic or caused by brain disorders like malformations, strokes, and tumors, leading to symptomatic epilepsy.
  • Epileptic seizures start in a group of neurons (the epileptogenic focus) that are hyperexcitable and discharge periodically.

Seizure Types

  • Generalized seizures involve aberrant electrical discharge diffusely affecting the entire cortex of both hemispheres from onset, usually causing loss of consciousness.
  • Generalized seizures often result from metabolic or genetic disorders.
  • Generalized seizures include infantile spasms, absence, tonic-clonic, atonic, and myoclonic seizures.
  • Focal (partial) seizures involve excess neuronal discharge in one cerebral cortex.
  • Focal seizures are often due to structural abnormalities.
  • Focal seizures can be simple (no impairment of consciousness) or complex (reduced but incomplete loss of consciousness).
  • Focal seizures may be followed by a generalized seizure.
  • Focal seizures may be preceded by an aura involving sensory, autonomic, or psychic sensations, and typically end spontaneously in 1-2 minutes.
  • Absence seizures manifest as staring spells.

Status Epilepticus

  • Status epilepticus involves at least one of the following:
  • Tonic-clonic seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes
  • Two or more seizures occur between which the patient does not fully regain consciousness.
  • Initial treatment for status epilepticus (5-20 minutes) includes IV lorazepam (Ativan).
  • when IV access isn't available, administer IM midazolam.
  • If no hospital access is available, administer diazepam rectally.
  • Phase 2 treatment (20-40 minutes) may involve IV fosphenytoin, valproic acid, levetiracetam, or phenobarbitone.

Treatment Goals & Principles

  • Treatment goals are to keep patients seizure-free without dose-dependent toxicity.
  • If possible, monotherapy is the preferred long-term treatment strategy.
  • If seizures aren't controlled with the maximum dose of a single drug, replace it with another, gradually decreasing the dose of the old drug while introducing the new one.
  • Abrupt withdrawal of anticonvulsants can cause status epilepticus.

Anti-Epileptic Drugs (AEDs)

  • AEDs control seizures but do not cure epilepsy and are usually taken for life.
  • Drug selection depends on the acceptability of side effects and the number of doses influencing lifestyle.
  • Sodium channel blockers include phenytoin, fosphenytoin, carbamazepine, and oxcarbazepine.
  • T-type calcium channel blockers include ethosuximide.
  • GABA enhancers include phenobarbitone and benzodiazepines. - GABA analogues include gabapentin and pregabalin.
    • Miscellaneous AEDs include valproic acid, levetiracetam, lamotrigine, tiagabine, ezogabine, acetazolamide, and vigabatrin.

Sodium Channel Blockers

  • Phenytoin, Fosphenytoin, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, and Lacosamide are sodium channel blockers.

Phenytoin

  • Phenytoin prodrug is Fosphenytoin
  • Mechanism of action: Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels.
  • Indication: focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures, excluding absence seizures, and status epilepticus.
  • The dose is 200-600 mg daily, with a maximum of 400 mg at night.
  • Pharmacokinetics: non-linear.
  • Drug interactions: hepatic enzyme inducer exhibiting zero-order kinetics.
  • Contraindications: HLA-B*1502 test needed for Asians.
  • Adverse effects: nausea, vomiting, headache, disorientation, megaloblastic anemia, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, and loss of bone density.
  • At increased doses can cause nystagmus, ataxia, lethargy, idiosyncratic rash, and exfoliative dermatitis.
  • Note that Fosphenytoin is always dosed in Phenytoin equivalents, where 1 mg PE of Fosphenytoin = 1 mg of Phenytoin.
  • IV Phenytoin should not exceed 50 mg/min, and IV Fospheytoin should not exceed 150 mg/min.

Carbamazepine

  • Mechanism of action: Blocks sodium channels, inhibiting the generation of repetitive action potentials in the epileptic focus and preventing their spread.
  • Indication: Is a first-line monotherapy for generalized tonic-clonic and partial (focal) seizures, trigeminal neuralgia, and bipolar disorder.
  • The dose is 200 mg twice daily, then 300 mg with a maximum of 900 mg twice daily.
  • Drug interactions: Induces hepatic enzymes, increasing the toxicity of MAOIs like tranylcypromine; MAOIs must be discontinued 14 days before starting carbamazepine.
  • Adverse effects: ataxia, dizziness, sedation, Nausea, Vomiting, rashes including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, jaundice, dry mouth, aplastic anemia, leukopenia, and hyponatremia, especially in the elderly.
  • Contraindications: MAO inhibitors, nefazodone, and NNRTIs.

Oxcarbazepine

  • Mechanism of action: Blocks voltage-gated sodium channels, stabilizes hyper-excited neural membranes, suppresses repetitive neuronal firing, and reduces propagation of synaptic impulses.
  • Indications: First-line monotherapy for generalized tonic-clonic and partial (focal) seizures; also used for trigeminal neuralgia.
  • Adverse effects: Nausea and Vomiting as well as somnolence, dizziness, visual disturbances (double vision), drowsiness, tiredness, tremors, rash, balance and coordination problems.
  • HLA-B*1502 test (Asians) and hyponatremia are a warning.
  • Is better tolerated than carbamazepine.

Lacosamide

  • Works by binding to collapsin response mediator protein-2 (CRMP-2), a phosphoprotein involved in neuronal differentiation and control of axonal outgrowth
  • Sodium channel blocker that slowly inactivates voltage-gated Na+ channels
  • Monotherapy in partial-onset seizures; adjunctive therapy in partial-onset and primary GTC seizures
  • Contraindicated with amiodarone, beta-blockers, CCBs, and alcohol, can induce depression and cardiovascular disease, hepatic impairment, and renal impairment
  • AE: N/V, diplopia, blurred vision
  • BBW: prolong PR-interval, ↑arrhythmias

T-Type Calcium Channel Blockers

  • Ethosuximide blocks T-type calcium channels, reducing the propagation of abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
  • It's a first-line monotherapy for typical absence seizures.
  • Common adverse effects: Fatigue, Gl disturbances (gastric pain), Headache, Itching, skin rashes (e.g. SJS), nausea, vomiting, sedation, ataxia, dizziness, euphoria, bone marrow suppression, weight loss, hiccups, etc.

GABA Enhancers

  • Include Phenobarbitone, Benzodiazepines (Diazepam, Clonazepam)

Phenobarbitone

  • Phenobarbitone treats all forms of epilepsy except absence seizures and is a first-line treatment in neonates.
  • The dose ranges from 60-180 mg/day orally in 1-2 divided doses.
  • Drug interactions: It is a hepatic enzyme inducer, increasing the metabolism of other AEDs, estrogens, progestogens, ARVs, alcohol, or other CNS depressants, leading to additive CNS depression.
  • Common adverse effects include physiological dependence, tolerance, hangover, ataxia, sedation, nystagmus; paradoxical stimulation, behavioural and learning problems (in children); megaloblastic anaemia, and idiosyncratic rash.

Bezodiazepines

  • Clonazepam, clobazam, diazepam, and lorazepam are benzodiazepines.
  • They bind to GABA inhibitory receptors, reducing the firing rate.
  • Reserved for emergencies or seizure attacks (status epilepticus).
  • Clonazepam and clobazam serve as adjunctive therapy for particular types of seizures.
  • Diazepam is available for rectal administration in children and can avoid or interrupt prolonged generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

GABA Analogs

  • Gabapentin and Pregabalin

Gabapentin

  • Gabapentin is an analogue of GABA, where it increases GABA release into nerve synapses and blocks N-Type Calcium Channels.
  • It's used for focal seizures,( post-herpetic neuralgia, chronic pain, migraines, bipolar disorder)
  • Dosage should be adjusted in renal disease and is well-tolerated by the elderly population with partial seizures, with fewer drug interactions.
  • Interacts with antacids, morphine, fluoxetine, antipsychotics, cannabis, heroin, and naproxen.
  • Common adverse effects: peripheral edema, weight gain, mild euphoria, fatigue, dizziness, drowsiness, and ataxia.

Pregabalin

  • Binds to the auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels.
  • Affects focal-onset seizures, diabetic peripheral neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, and fibromyalgia.
  • Requires dosage adjustments in renal disease.
  • Interacts with opioids, BDZs, antihistamines, and alcohol.
  • Adverse effects: weight gain, impaired memory, peripheral oedema, and mild euphoria.

Miscellaneous AEDs

  • Valproic acid, Levetiracetam, Lamotrigine, Topiramate, Tiagabine, Ezogabine, Acetazolamide, and Vigabatrin do not perfectly fit other categories; include drugs falling into more than one.

Valproic Acid

  • Blocks sodium channels, GABA transaminase, and T-type calcium channels.
  • Treats focal and primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures and all forms of epilepsy
  • The first choice for patients on ART.
  • The dose ranges from 500 mg twice daily to a max of 2500 mg daily.
  • Drug interactions: induces hepatic enzymes.
  • Contraindications: hyperammonemia and thrombocytopenia.
  • Adverse effects: weight gain, Nausea, anorexia/ increased appetite, ataxia, sedation, alopecia, oedema, and PCOS.
  • Can also cause hepatic failure, teratogenicity, and neural tube defects.

Levetiracetam

  • Modulates transmission by binding to synaptic vesicle protein 2A (SV2A)- ↑affinity; partially inhibits N-type calcium currents → ↓calcium release from stores.
  • It doesn't exhibit the same actions as classical anticonvulsants by inhibiting voltage-dependent Na+ channels or affecting GABAergic transmission.
  • Used on focal, myoclonic, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures, as well as perioperative neurosurgery.
  • Drug interactions: methotrexate, carbamazepine, sertraline, duloxetine, warfarin, and alcohol.
  • Common adverse effects: mood alterations, ataxia, somnolence, dizziness, agitation, and weakness.

Lamotrigine

  • Lamotrigine works by blocking Sodium Channels as well as HV-dependent calcium channels.
  • Helps with focal, generalized, and absence seizures, Lennox-Gastaut syndrome, and bipolar disorder
  • Slow dose titration is essential to minimize the risk of serious and life-threatening skin reactions (Stevens-Johnson syndrome); Decrease the Lamotrigine dosage if adding VPA
  • Can interact with ARVs, sertraline, and fluoxetine, alcohol.
  • Adverse reactions: ataxia, somnolence, dizziness, blurred vision, rash, and nausea/ vomiting.
  • Black Box Warning is serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN).

Topiramate

  • Topiramate blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels, reduces high-voltage calcium currents, and targets glutamate (NMDA) sites.
  • Treats partial and primary generalized seizures, migraine prophylaxis, and obesity.
  • Interacts with sodium valproate, zonisamide, hormonal contraceptives, CNS depressants, and alcohol.
  • Common side effects include drowsiness, fatigue, weight loss, nervousness, renal stones, glaucoma, hyperthermia, and paraesthesia.
  • Black box warning: metabolic acidosis, oligohydrosis (less sweating), nephrolithiasis, hyperammonaemia, and foetal harm.

Vigabatrin

  • Irreversibly inhibits ꝩ-aminobutyric acid transaminase (GABA-T) enzyme, an enzyme responsible for the metabolism of GABA
  • Helps with resistant partial seizures with or without secondary generalisation and infantile spasms (west syndrome)
  • Can interact with amphetamine, dexamphetamine, levetiracetam, and topiramate
  • Contraindications: vision loss and suicidal ideation, neurotoxicity, as well as peripheral neuropathy
  • Adverse effects can be dizziness, drowsiness, weight gain, mental confusion, and psychosis
  • Black Box Warning is permanent vision loss

Choice of AED Treatment

  • AED treatment should be selected based on classification of the seizures, patient-specific variables like age, co-morbidities, and lifestyle, and drug characteristics such as drug interactions and cost.
  • Drug selection depends on the drug toxicities profiles of agents and patient characteristics.
  • Successful treatment relies on awareness and consideration of antiepileptics' MOA, pharmacokinetics, potential drug interactions, and adverse effects.

Conditions Lowering Seizure Threshold

  • Anti-Psychotics, Anti-Virals, Buproprion, Carbapenems (e.g. Imipenem), Cephalosporins which are drugs and alcohol (ethanol) Withdrawal, Lithium, Lindane, Mefloquine are conditions that lower seizure threshold.
  • Other drugs and conditions that lower seizure threshold include Meperidine, Metoclopramide, Penicillins and Fluoroquinolones, infection & fever, Theophylline, Tramadol, and Varenicline.

Summary of AEDs

  • Selection of AED is patient-specific, considering seizure type, age, pregnancy, and side effects.
  • All AEDs cause CNS depression.
  • Consider other formulations for children with difficulty swallowing.
  • All AEDs can cause bone loss and increase fracture risk.
  • Supplement patients with Calcium and Vitamin D.
  • AEDs have many drug interactions.
  • Many AEDs are teratogenic and decrease oral contraceptive efficacy.
  • Non-hormonal contraceptives should be used in patients taking AEDs.
  • Dosage adjustment is required to maintain therapeutic levels and safety.
  • ALL AEDs require MEDGUIDE information regarding suicide, teratogenicity, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN).
  • For chronic seizure management, avoid medications that lower the seizure threshold.
  • Never stop AEDs abruptly.
  • AEDs with the most drug interactions include carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, fosphenytoin, phenobarbitone, primidone, topiramate, and valproic acid.

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