Podcast
Questions and Answers
What is the mechanism of action for Cephalosporins?
What is the mechanism of action for Cephalosporins?
- Disrupt RNA polymerase function
- Inhibit DNA gyrase
- Bind to penicillin binding proteins to inhibit cell wall synthesis (correct)
- Inhibit folate production
Which of the following drugs works by disrupting bacteria through nitro reductases?
Which of the following drugs works by disrupting bacteria through nitro reductases?
- Cefazolin
- Tetracyclines
- Metronidazole (correct)
- Rifampin
What is a defining characteristic of fluoroquinolones?
What is a defining characteristic of fluoroquinolones?
- They inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosome
- They are bacteriostatic
- They cause extreme deadly diarrhea
- They inhibit DNA gyrase and are bactericidal (correct)
What distinguishes Glycopeptides from β-lactams?
What distinguishes Glycopeptides from β-lactams?
Which of the following best describes the action of Chloramphenicol?
Which of the following best describes the action of Chloramphenicol?
What is the grading system for a heart murmur that is loud and has a palpable thrill audible with a stethoscope held away from the chest wall?
What is the grading system for a heart murmur that is loud and has a palpable thrill audible with a stethoscope held away from the chest wall?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for performing an ECG?
Which of the following is NOT an indication for performing an ECG?
Which lead placement corresponds to the left fifth intercostal space at the level of the olecranon?
Which lead placement corresponds to the left fifth intercostal space at the level of the olecranon?
What effect does atrial fibrillation have on cardiac output?
What effect does atrial fibrillation have on cardiac output?
What is the primary treatment step for atrial fibrillation once underlying pathology has been ruled out?
What is the primary treatment step for atrial fibrillation once underlying pathology has been ruled out?
In which of the following scenarios is a horse advised NOT to be ridden or driven?
In which of the following scenarios is a horse advised NOT to be ridden or driven?
Which drug is commonly used for the cardioversion of atrial fibrillation?
Which drug is commonly used for the cardioversion of atrial fibrillation?
What are the primary factors leading to Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
What are the primary factors leading to Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
What are the clinical signs of the exudative form of Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
What are the clinical signs of the exudative form of Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
Which diagnostic method is NOT typically used for Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
Which diagnostic method is NOT typically used for Equine Pastern Dermatitis?
Which of the following forms of Equine Pastern Dermatitis is characterized by excessive granulation tissue?
Which of the following forms of Equine Pastern Dermatitis is characterized by excessive granulation tissue?
How is Chronic Progressive Lymphedema most commonly diagnosed?
How is Chronic Progressive Lymphedema most commonly diagnosed?
What does Chronic Progressive Lymphedema primarily affect?
What does Chronic Progressive Lymphedema primarily affect?
Which UV wavelength range is associated with photosensitivity in horses?
Which UV wavelength range is associated with photosensitivity in horses?
What is a common clinical sign of Chronic Progressive Lymphedema?
What is a common clinical sign of Chronic Progressive Lymphedema?
Which type of dermatitis is characterized by scalp lesions and epidermal hyperplasia?
Which type of dermatitis is characterized by scalp lesions and epidermal hyperplasia?
What is a common complication associated with cryotherapy?
What is a common complication associated with cryotherapy?
How does topical Fluorouracil function in cancer treatment?
How does topical Fluorouracil function in cancer treatment?
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided for general use?
Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided for general use?
What classification of photosensitivity is characterized by hepatotoxic plants?
What classification of photosensitivity is characterized by hepatotoxic plants?
Which clinical sign is NOT typically associated with photosensitivity?
Which clinical sign is NOT typically associated with photosensitivity?
What defines time dependent antibiotics?
What defines time dependent antibiotics?
What is a key difference between Cisplatin injections and Cisplatin beads used for chemotherapy?
What is a key difference between Cisplatin injections and Cisplatin beads used for chemotherapy?
What is the main cause of Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)?
What is the main cause of Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)?
Which of the following is a common clinical sign of PPID in horses?
Which of the following is a common clinical sign of PPID in horses?
What provides the mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
What provides the mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
What is the treatment method for periocular sarcoids?
What is the treatment method for periocular sarcoids?
What is a key component of the ACTH production process in the normal pars intermedia?
What is a key component of the ACTH production process in the normal pars intermedia?
Which testing method is NOT recommended for diagnosing PPID?
Which testing method is NOT recommended for diagnosing PPID?
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when choosing antibiotics?
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when choosing antibiotics?
What would be an appropriate step to take before conducting a TRH stimulation test?
What would be an appropriate step to take before conducting a TRH stimulation test?
What process does surgical excision aim to avoid during the treatment of sarcoids?
What process does surgical excision aim to avoid during the treatment of sarcoids?
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with older horses?
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with older horses?
Radiation therapy is considered for which of the following conditions?
Radiation therapy is considered for which of the following conditions?
Which method is part of the basic procedure for baseline ACTH testing?
Which method is part of the basic procedure for baseline ACTH testing?
What is the primary role of dopamine in the normal functioning of the pars intermedia?
What is the primary role of dopamine in the normal functioning of the pars intermedia?
Flashcards
Atrial Fibrillation (A-fib)
Atrial Fibrillation (A-fib)
A condition where the atria of the heart beat irregularly and rapidly, often due to random re-entry of electrical impulses.
Systolic Murmur
Systolic Murmur
A heart sound or murmur caused by turbulent blood flow across heart valves during the contraction of the heart (systole).
Diastolic Murmur'
Diastolic Murmur'
A heart sound or murmur caused by turbulent blood flow across heart valves during the relaxation of the heart (diastole).
Quinidine Sulfate
Quinidine Sulfate
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Cardiac Output
Cardiac Output
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Re-entry (in the context of heart arrhythmia)
Re-entry (in the context of heart arrhythmia)
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Cardioversion
Cardioversion
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Equine Pastern Dermatitis
Equine Pastern Dermatitis
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Perpetuating Factors of Equine Pastern Dermatitis
Perpetuating Factors of Equine Pastern Dermatitis
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Chronic Progressive Lymphedema
Chronic Progressive Lymphedema
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Photosensitivities
Photosensitivities
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Phototoxicity
Phototoxicity
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UVA Wavelength
UVA Wavelength
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Photodynamic Agent
Photodynamic Agent
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Mild Equine Pastern Dermatitis
Mild Equine Pastern Dermatitis
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Chronic Proliferative Equine Pastern Dermatitis
Chronic Proliferative Equine Pastern Dermatitis
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Equine Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)
Equine Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)
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What causes PPID?
What causes PPID?
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How does the pars intermedia normally function?
How does the pars intermedia normally function?
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Explain the pathogenesis of PPID.
Explain the pathogenesis of PPID.
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What is the primary product produced by melanocytes of the pars intermedia?
What is the primary product produced by melanocytes of the pars intermedia?
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What is the enzyme involved in ACTH processing in the pars intermedia?
What is the enzyme involved in ACTH processing in the pars intermedia?
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What is the epidemiology of PPID?
What is the epidemiology of PPID?
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What are some clinical signs of PPID?
What are some clinical signs of PPID?
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What tests are used to diagnose PPID?
What tests are used to diagnose PPID?
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What is the basic procedure for baseline ACTH testing?
What is the basic procedure for baseline ACTH testing?
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Excisional biopsy
Excisional biopsy
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Sarcoids
Sarcoids
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Cryotherapy
Cryotherapy
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Cisplatin
Cisplatin
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Fluorouracil
Fluorouracil
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Penicillin
Penicillin
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Aminoglycosides
Aminoglycosides
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Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
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Time dependent antibiotics
Time dependent antibiotics
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Concentration dependent antibiotics
Concentration dependent antibiotics
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Cephalosporins
Cephalosporins
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Imipenem
Imipenem
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Potentiated Sulfas
Potentiated Sulfas
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Fluoroquinolones
Fluoroquinolones
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Tetracyclines
Tetracyclines
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Study Notes
Horse Ophthalmology
- Horse's field of vision is large, 350 degrees, with narrow blind spots. Rod cells (light/motion) make up 90% of the retina, and cone cells (color) make up 10%
- Epiphora is tearing.
- Blepharospasm is squinting.
- Common ocular problems in horses include epiphora, blepharospasm, vision loss, behavioral changes, conjunctivitis, and discharge.
- Important aspects of an ophthalmic exam include assessing vision (ambient and dim light), menace response, obstacle course (with one eye blindfolded), and cranial nerve function (CN 2, 3, 5, 7).
- The menace response in foals is learned and not evident until after 2-3 weeks of age.
- Cranial nerves checked during an exam include 2, 3, 5, and 7. Specifically, the ophthalmic exam checks the following cranial nerves: CN2 (optic nerve), CN3 (oculomotor nerve), CN5 (trigeminal nerve), and CN7 (facial nerve).
- An equine ophthalmic exam involves evaluation of the orbit, eyelids, nictitating membrane, conjunctiva, anterior segment (tears, cornea, iris, lens, ciliary body), and posterior segment (vitreous, retina, choroid, optic nerve).
- Typical sedation/blocking protocol for equine ophthalmic exams include xylazine (150-250 mg for a 1,000 pound horse) for 10 minutes, followed by an auriculopalpebral block for motor and supraorbital block for sensory.
- Fluorescein stain is a diagnostic test for all horses.
- Schirmer tear test measures tear production. A value of less than 10 mm/minute is considered abnormal. Alpha 2 agonists can cause increased lacrimation, so it's important to perform the test prior to any medications and sedation.
- Intraocular pressure (IOP) is normal in horses at 16-30 mmHg. Normal IOP is 16-28 mmHg. High IOP indicates glaucoma, and low IOP indicates inflammation or uveitis.
- Rose Bengal staining helps visualize tear film deficiencies, and is especially useful for chronically affected horses.
- A Nasolacrimal flush can be used to treat blockages of the tear duct.
- Tropicamide is a mydriatic (pupil dilating) drug, commonly used for thorough retinal examination.
- Corneal ulcers are a common condition in horses, and are diagnosed using corneal cultures and scrapes prior to medication.
- Ultrasounds are used to view the different structures in the eye such as cornea, lens, retina, iris, ciliary body, optic nerve and vitreous.
Other Horse Eye Conditions
- Corneal ulcers, keratitis, and stromal abscesses are common eye problems in horses.
- Corneal ulcerations necessitate aggressive treatment to prevent complications like globe rupture and blindness.
- Uncomplicated corneal ulcer healing time is typically 7-10 days.
- Blood vessel formation in corneal ulcers takes approximately 3-5 days.
Additional treatments for eye problems
- Topical and systemic medications are used to reduce inflammation and treat infections.
- Fungal corneal ulcers require specific antifungal medications.
- Corneal lacerations/perforations may require surgical intervention or plugs.
- Viral keratitis treatment usually involves topical NSAIDs and antivirals.
- Eosinophilic keratoconjunctivitis is treated with topical steroids and cetirizine.
- Immune-mediated keratitis (IMMK) is managed with cyclosporine and topical NSAIDs.
- Treatments for stromal abscesses include aggressive medical/surgical therapy.
Other Equine Eye Conditions
- Equine recurrent uveitis (ERU), is a common inflammatory condition, and is managed with corticosteroids, NSAIDs, and cyclosporine.
- Cataracts are lens opacities that may be congenital or secondary to other conditions, including uveitis.
- Glaucoma is an elevated Intraocular blood pressure, it is treated with topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, miotics, and beta blockers.
- Exophthalmos is a forward displacement of the eye. Buphthalmos is a bulging of both eyes,
- Chorioretinitis is an inflammation of the choroid/retina, and can be caused by infection, immune-mediated diseases, or trauma.
- Corneal ulcers and abrasions/perforations frequently require aggressive treatment.
- Alopecia areata, is an immune-mediated inflammatory skin disease.
- Dermatophilosis, causes a scaling/crusting dermatitis due to a facultative anaerobic, gram-positive bacterium.
- Pemphigus foliaceus: is an autoimmune skin disease characterized by scaling, crusting lesions.
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