Antibiotics and Tetracyclines

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson
Download our mobile app to listen on the go
Get App

Questions and Answers

What is the primary mechanism by which tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

  • Preventing the binding of tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex on the 30S subunit. (correct)
  • Interfering with the translocation steps on the 50S ribosomal subunit.
  • Causing misreading of the genetic code by the 30S ribosomal subunit.
  • Inhibiting the peptidyl transferase reaction on the 50S ribosomal subunit.

Which of the following is a common mechanism of bacterial resistance to tetracyclines?

  • Production of enzymes that degrade the bacterial ribosome.
  • Alteration of the bacterial cell wall to prevent drug entry.
  • Enzymatic activation of the drug within the bacterial cell.
  • Efflux pump that expels the drug out of the bacterial cell. (correct)

Why should tetracyclines not be administered with dairy products or antacids?

  • These substances enhance the metabolism of tetracyclines, reducing their efficacy.
  • These substances compete with tetracyclines for absorption in the small intestine.
  • These substances alter the pH of the stomach, which degrades tetracyclines
  • These substances contain divalent and trivalent cations that form non-absorbable chelates with tetracyclines. (correct)

Which tetracycline is preferred in patients with renal dysfunction?

<p>Doxycycline (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is most associated with minocycline due to its high concentration in the endolymph?

<p>Vestibular dysfunction (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tigecycline is a derivative of which antibiotic?

<p>Minocycline (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tigecycline is NOT typically used to treat infections caused by which of the following organisms?

<p>Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary route of elimination for tigecycline?

<p>Biliary/fecal excretion (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a significant adverse effect associated with tigecycline, highlighted by a boxed warning?

<p>Higher all-cause mortality (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which mechanism of action is unique to aminoglycosides compared to other protein synthesis inhibitors?

<p>Causing misreading of the genetic code. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are aminoglycosides typically administered parenterally?

<p>Because their polar structure prevents adequate oral absorption. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which aminoglycoside is NOT typically administered parenterally due to severe nephrotoxicity?

<p>Neomycin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What strategy in the dosing of aminoglycosides, reduces the risk of nephrotoxicity and increases convenience?

<p>High-dose extended-interval dosing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects of aminoglycosides is most likely to be irreversible?

<p>Ototoxicity (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides and ketolides?

<p>Binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting translocation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which macrolide is known for its effectiveness against Haemophilus influenzae and intracellular pathogens?

<p>Clarithromycin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a common mechanism of resistance to macrolides?

<p>Methylation of adenine in the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which macrolide's absorption is increased when taken with food?

<p>Clarithromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is specifically associated with the estolate form of erythromycin?

<p>Cholestatic jaundice (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fidaxomicin's mechanism of action involves disrupting bacterial transcription by acting on which of the following?

<p>Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fidaxomicin is primarily used for its bactericidal activity against which specific organism?

<p>Clostridium difficile (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Due to its minimal systemic absorption, where does fidaxomicin primarily remain after oral administration?

<p>Gastrointestinal tract (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is chloramphenicol use restricted to life-threatening infections?

<p>Risk of severe toxicity, including bone marrow suppression (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What reaction does chloramphenicol inhibit to disrupt protein synthesis?

<p>Peptidyl transferase (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following toxicities is specifically associated with chloramphenicol use in neonates?

<p>Gray baby syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The mechanism of action of clindamycin is most similar to which class of antibiotics?

<p>Macrolides (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major limitation of oral clindamycin use?

<p>Gastrointestinal intolerance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Clindamycin use is increasingly limited against gram-negative anaerobes like Bacteroides sp. due to what?

<p>Increasing resistance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Quinupristin/dalfopristin is typically reserved for severe infections caused by what?

<p>Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do quinupristin and dalfopristin synergistically interrupt protein synthesis?

<p>By binding to separate sites on the 50S ribosome, disrupting elongation and causing release of incomplete peptide chains. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is commonly associated with quinupristin/dalfopristin administration through a peripheral line?

<p>Venous irritation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Linezolid and tedizolid are developed to combat which type of organisms?

<p>Gram-positive organisms (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which step of bacterial protein synthesis is inhibited by oxazolidinones?

<p>Formation of the 70S initiation complex (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the fact that oxazolidinones (linezolid and tedizolid) possess nonselective monoamine oxidase activity?

<p>They can lead to serotonin syndrome. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What adverse effect limits the utility of linezolid and tedizolid for extended-duration treatments?

<p>Irreversible peripheral neuropathies and optic neuritis (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient receiving erythromycin is also taking theophylline. Which of the following is a potential consequence of this drug interaction?

<p>Inhibition of theophylline metabolism, potentially leading to toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism by which aminoglycosides exert their bactericidal effects?

<p>They interfere with the assembly of the functional ribosomal apparatus and cause misreading of the genetic code. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is prescribed tetracycline for acne. Which instructions should the healthcare provider include when counseling the patient about taking the medication?

<p>Take the medication on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely mechanism by which Enterococcus faecalis, a gram-positive bacterium intrinsically resistant to aztreonam, might develop high-level resistance to daptomycin following prolonged exposure during therapy?

<p>Mutations in genes involved in cell membrane phospholipid metabolism and cell wall biosynthesis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A 68-year-old male is prescribed clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection. He is also taking warfarin for chronic atrial fibrillation and simvastatin for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following potential drug interactions is of greatest concern, and what monitoring is most appropriate?

<p>Increased risk of bleeding due to inhibition of warfarin metabolism; monitor international normalized ratio (INR). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding the mechanism of resistance to macrolides is LEAST accurate?

<p>Target site modification involving methylation of 23S rRNA is often plasmid-mediated and transferable. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic distinguishes bacterial ribosomes from mammalian cytoplasmic ribosomes?

<p>Bacterial ribosomes are composed of 30S and 50S subunits, whereas mammalian ribosomes have 40S and 60S subunits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are high concentrations of tetracyclines potentially toxic to mammalian cells?

<p>They interact with mammalian mitochondrial ribosomes, which share structural similarities with bacterial ribosomes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which bacteria become resistant to tetracyclines?

<p>Production of an efflux pump that removes the drug from the cell. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is tetracycline absorption reduced when taken with dairy products?

<p>The calcium in dairy products forms non-absorbable chelates with tetracycline. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tetracycline achieves therapeutic levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

<p>Doxycycline and Minocycline (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which patient population should avoid tetracyclines due to the risk of permanent tooth discoloration?

<p>Pregnant women and children under 8 years old (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is tigecycline NOT typically used to treat bloodstream infections?

<p>It penetrates tissues well but achieves low plasma concentrations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary mechanism of bacterial resistance to tigecycline?

<p>Overexpression of efflux pumps. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following adverse effects is specifically associated with tigecycline and highlighted by a boxed warning?

<p>Increased risk of all-cause mortality (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism allows aminoglycosides to cross the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria?

<p>An oxygen-dependent transport system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which property of aminoglycosides leads to high-dose extended-interval dosing?

<p>Their concentration-dependent bactericidal activity and postantibiotic effect. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aminoglycosides are often used in combination with β-lactam antibiotics for synergistic effect, particularly in treating infective endocarditis caused by which organisms?

<p>Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why do aminoglycosides require dose adjustments in patients with renal dysfunction?

<p>They are primarily excreted unchanged in the urine, and accumulation occurs with renal dysfunction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What mechanism explains aminoglycoside-induced nephrotoxicity?

<p>Retention of aminoglycosides by the proximal tubular cells disrupts calcium-mediated transport processes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which structural feature is common to all macrolide antibiotics?

<p>Macrocyclic lactone ring (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do macrolides and ketolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

<p>By binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting translocation steps. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is erythromycin often considered an alternative to penicillin?

<p>It is effective against many of the same organisms as penicillin G and can be used in patients with penicillin allergy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which macrolide is more active against respiratory pathogens compared to erythromycin?

<p>Azithromycin (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which clarithromycin is eliminated from the body?

<p>Hepatic metabolism followed by excretion of the active drug and its metabolites in the urine. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should patients with hepatic dysfunction be cautious about when taking macrolides?

<p>The drugs accumulate in the liver, potentially leading to increased toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does fidaxomicin selectively target Clostridium difficile?

<p>By acting on the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase, disrupting bacterial transcription. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does fidaxomicin exhibit minimal systemic absorption after oral administration?

<p>It primarily remains within the gastrointestinal tract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of chloramphenicol inhibiting protein and ATP synthesis in mammalian mitochondria?

<p>It results in bone marrow toxicity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are dose reductions of chloramphenicol necessary in patients with liver dysfunction?

<p>Chloramphenicol is primarily metabolized by the liver, and impaired function leads to drug accumulation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary target of clindamycin's antibacterial action?

<p>Gram-positive organisms and anaerobic bacteria (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the major clinical concern associated with clindamycin usage?

<p>Pseudomembranous colitis caused by <em>C. difficile</em> (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of quinupristin/dalfopristin being a synergistic combination?

<p>Each component binds to a separate site on the 50S bacterial ribosome leading to enhanced activity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is quinupristin/dalfopristin typically administered through a central line?

<p>To prevent venous irritation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific step in bacterial protein synthesis is inhibited by oxazolidinones?

<p>Initiation complex formation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Against which type of organisms are linezolid and tedizolid primarily effective?

<p>Gram-positive organisms, including resistant isolates (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are oxazolidinones not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for MRSA bacteremia?

<p>They exhibit primarily bacteriostatic activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a potential consequence of the nonselective monoamine oxidase activity of oxazolidinones?

<p>Serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs or tyramine-rich foods (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is thought to be the mechanism behind macrolide-induced digoxin toxicity?

<p>Macrolides eliminate intestinal flora that inactivate digoxin, leading to greater reabsorption. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors

Antibiotics that target bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis, usually exhibiting bacteriostatic activity.

Tetracyclines: Action

Bacteriostatic antibiotics that bind reversibly to the 30S ribosomal subunit, preventing tRNA binding.

Tetracyclines: Spectrum

Wide spectrum, effective against gram-positive, gram-negative bacteria, protozoa, spirochetes, mycobacteria, and atypical species; commonly used for acne and Chlamydia.

Tetracyclines: Resistance

Efflux pumps that expel the drug, enzymatic inactivation, and bacterial proteins preventing ribosome binding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines: Absorption Interference

Absorption decreased by dairy products and substances containing divalent/trivalent cations due to chelation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines: Distribution

Concentrate well in bile, liver, kidney, skin and tissues undergoing calcification. Minocycline and doxycycline achieve therapeutic levels in CSF.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines: Elimination

Tetracycline is eliminated unchanged in urine; doxycycline is eliminated via bile into feces.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines: Adverse Effects

Epigastric distress, effects on calcified tissues, hepatotoxicity, phototoxicity, vestibular dysfunction, and pseudotumor cerebri.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tetracyclines: Contraindications

Should not be used in pregnant/breast-feeding women or children under 8 years old.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tigecycline: Action

Exhibits bacteriostatic action by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tigecycline: Spectrum

Broad-spectrum activity including MRSA, multidrug-resistant streptococci, VRE, and extended-spectrum β-lactamase-producing gram-negative bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tigecycline: Resistance

Overexpression of efflux pumps.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tigecycline: Pharmacokinetics

Penetrates tissues well but achieves low plasma concentrations; eliminated primarily via biliary/fecal route.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Action

Binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit, interfering with ribosomal apparatus assembly and causing misreading of the genetic code.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Activity

Concentration-dependent bactericidal activity and postantibiotic effect (PAE).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Spectrum

Effective for most aerobic gram-negative bacilli; often combined with β-lactam antibiotics for synergy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Resistance

Efflux pumps, decreased uptake, and/or modification and inactivation by plasmid-associated enzymes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Absorption

Poor oral absorption; given parenterally (except neomycin, which is topical or oral).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aminoglycosides: Adverse Effects

Ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neuromuscular paralysis, and allergic reactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides/Ketolides: Action

Bind irreversibly to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, inhibiting translocation steps of protein synthesis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Erythromycin: Spectrum

Effective against many organisms as penicillin G; alternative in patients with penicillin allergy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clarithromycin: Spectrum

Clarithromycin has activity similar to erythromycin, but also effective against Haemophilus influenzae and intracellular pathogens.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Azithromycin: Spectrum

Less active than erythromycin against streptococci/staphylococci, but more active against respiratory pathogens like H. influenzae.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Telithromycin: Spectrum

Similar to azithromycin; structural modification neutralizes common macrolide resistance mechanisms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides: Resistance

The inability of the organism to take up the antibiotic, efflux pumps, or decreased affinity of the 50S ribosomal subunit.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Macrolides: Adverse Effects

Gastric distress, cholestatic jaundice, ototoxicity, QTc prolongation, and potential drug interactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fidaxomicin: Action

Acts on the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase, disrupting bacterial transcription and terminating protein synthesis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fidaxomicin: Spectrum

Very narrow spectrum, limited to gram-positive aerobes and anaerobes; primarily used for Clostridium difficile.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chloramphenicol: Action

Binds reversibly to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis at the peptidyl transferase reaction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chloramphenicol: Spectrum

Active against many microorganisms including chlamydiae, rickettsiae, spirochetes, and anaerobes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chloramphenicol: Adverse Effects

Anemias, gray baby syndrome, and drug interactions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Clindamycin: Use

Similar to macrolides, used for gram-positive organisms, including MRSA and streptococcus, and anaerobic bacteria.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin: Action

Each component binds to a separate site on the 50S bacterial ribosome, synergistically interrupting protein synthesis.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin: Spectrum

Primarily active against gram-positive cocci, including those resistant to other antibiotics, used for E. faecium infections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oxazolidinones: Action

Linezolid and tedizolid bind to the bacterial 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit, inhibiting the formation of the 70S initiation complex.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oxazolidinones: Spectrum

Primarily against gram-positive organisms such as staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. Main clinical use is to treat infections caused by drug-resistant gram-positive organisms.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Oxazolidinones: Adverse Effects

Gastrointestinal upset, thrombocytopenia, potential for serotonin syndrome, and irreversible neuropathies with prolonged use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

  • Many antibiotics target bacterial ribosomes to inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, generally resulting in bacteriostatic activity.
  • Bacterial ribosomes (30S and 50S subunits) differ structurally from mammalian cytoplasmic ribosomes (40S and 60S subunits), allowing for selective targeting.
  • High concentrations of some drugs like chloramphenicol and tetracyclines can affect mammalian mitochondrial ribosomes, which resemble bacterial ribosomes, leading to toxic effects.

Tetracyclines

  • Mechanism: Enter bacteria via passive diffusion and energy-dependent transport, bind reversibly to the 30S ribosomal subunit, and prevent tRNA binding, thus inhibiting protein synthesis.
  • Spectrum: Effective against a broad range of organisms, including gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, protozoa, spirochetes, mycobacteria, and atypical species; commonly used for acne and Chlamydia infections.
  • Resistance: Primarily via efflux pumps, enzymatic inactivation, or production of proteins that prevent tetracycline binding to ribosomes.
  • Pharmacokinetics include:
    • Adequate oral absorption, but decreased by divalent and trivalent cations (e.g., in dairy products, antacids).
    • Doxycycline and minocycline available in oral and IV forms.
    • Concentrates in bile, liver, kidney, gingival fluid, and skin, as well as calcifying tissues and tumors with high calcium content.
    • Minocycline and doxycycline can reach therapeutic levels in CSF; minocycline also in saliva and tears.
    • Tetracycline primarily eliminated unchanged in urine.
    • Minocycline undergoes hepatic metabolism.
    • Doxycycline is eliminated via bile into feces, making it suitable for patients with renal dysfunction.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Gastric discomfort is common.
    • Deposition in calcifying tissues can cause tooth discoloration, hypoplasia, and temporary stunting of growth in children.
    • Hepatotoxicity may occur at high doses, especially in pregnant women and those with liver or kidney issues.
    • Phototoxicity can cause severe sunburn with sun exposure.
    • Vestibular dysfunction (dizziness, vertigo, tinnitus) is more common with minocycline.
    • Pseudotumor cerebri (benign intracranial hypertension) may occur rarely in adults.
    • Avoid use in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 8 years old.

Glycylcyclines

  • Tigecycline is a derivative of minocycline used for complicated skin and soft tissue infections, intra-abdominal infections, and community-acquired pneumonia.
  • Mechanism: Bacteriostatic, it reversibly binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
  • Spectrum: Broad-spectrum, including MRSA, multidrug-resistant streptococci, VRE, extended-spectrum β-lactamase-producing gram-negative bacteria, Acinetobacter baumannii, and many anaerobic organisms.
    • Inactive against Morganella, Proteus, Providencia, and Pseudomonas species.
  • Resistance: Primarily due to overexpression of efflux pumps.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Large volume of distribution but low plasma concentrations, making it unsuitable for bloodstream infections.
    • Primarily eliminated via biliary/fecal route.
    • Dose reduction recommended in severe hepatic dysfunction; no adjustment needed for renal impairment.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Significant nausea and vomiting.
    • Acute pancreatitis (potentially fatal) reported.
    • Elevations in liver enzymes and serum creatinine may occur.
    • Higher all-cause mortality compared to other agents.
    • Other effects similar to tetracyclines: photosensitivity, pseudotumor cerebri, tooth discoloration, fetal harm.
    • May decrease warfarin clearance, requiring close monitoring of INR.
    • Should be reserved for situations where alternative treatments are unsuitable.

Aminoglycosides

  • Mechanism: Diffuse through porin channels, transported across the cytoplasmic membrane (oxygen-dependent), bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit, interfering with ribosomal assembly or causing misreading of the genetic code.
  • Exhibit concentration-dependent bactericidal activity and a postantibiotic effect (PAE).
  • High-dose, extended-interval dosing is commonly used.
  • Spectrum: Effective against most aerobic gram-negative bacilli, including multidrug-resistant strains like Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Enterobacter sp.
    • Often combined with a β-lactam antibiotic for synergistic effect, especially against Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium endocarditis.
  • Resistance: Via efflux pumps, decreased uptake, or enzymatic modification and inactivation.
    • Amikacin is less vulnerable to enzymatic inactivation.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Poor oral absorption, requiring parenteral administration (except for neomycin).
    • Neomycin is not given parenterally due to nephrotoxicity; used topically or orally for GI decontamination.
    • Tissue concentrations may be subtherapeutic; variable penetration into body fluids.
    • CSF concentrations are inadequate, requiring intrathecal or intraventricular administration for CNS infections.
    • Crosses the placental barrier.
    • Primarily excreted unchanged in urine, requiring dose adjustments in renal dysfunction.
    • Neomycin is excreted unchanged in feces.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Ototoxicity (vestibular and auditory) is related to high peak plasma concentrations and treatment duration; may be irreversible.
    • Nephrotoxicity results from retention in proximal tubular cells, disrupting calcium-mediated transport.
    • Neuromuscular paralysis can occur with high doses or concurrent neuromuscular blockers; treat with calcium gluconate or neostigmine.
    • Allergic reactions (contact dermatitis) are common with topical neomycin.

Macrolides and Ketolides

  • Macrolides have a macrocyclic lactone structure with attached deoxy sugars.
  • Erythromycin was the first, used as a first-line drug or alternative to penicillin.
  • Clarithromycin and azithromycin have some improvements over erythromycin.
  • Telithromycin is a semisynthetic ketolide derivative.
  • Mechanism: Bind irreversibly to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, inhibiting translocation steps of protein synthesis.
    • Generally bacteriostatic but can be bactericidal at higher doses.
    • Binding site is near clindamycin and chloramphenicol binding sites.
  • Spectrum:
    • Erythromycin: Similar to penicillin G.
    • Clarithromycin: Similar to erythromycin, but also effective against Haemophilus influenzae and intracellular pathogens.
    • Azithromycin: Less active against streptococci and staphylococci but more active against respiratory pathogens like H. influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis.
    • Telithromycin: Similar to azithromycin; structural modification neutralizes common macrolide resistance mechanisms.
  • Resistance:
    • Inability of the organism to take up the antibiotic.
    • Efflux pumps.
    • Decreased affinity due to methylation of adenine in 23S rRNA.
    • Plasmid-associated erythromycin esterases in gram-negative organisms.
    • Erythromycin use is limited due to increasing resistance.
    • Telithromycin may be effective against macrolide-resistant organisms.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Erythromycin base is destroyed by gastric acid, so enteric-coated tablets or esterified forms are used.
    • Clarithromycin, azithromycin, and telithromycin are stable in stomach acid and readily absorbed; food interferes with erythromycin and azithromycin absorption but increases clarithromycin absorption.
    • Erythromycin and azithromycin are available in IV formulations.
    • Erythromycin distributes well to all body fluids except CSF and accumulates in macrophages.
    • Clarithromycin, azithromycin, and telithromycin are widely distributed in tissues.
    • Erythromycin and telithromycin undergo hepatic metabolism, inhibiting the cytochrome P450 system.
  • Excretion:
    • Azithromycin is concentrated and excreted in bile as active drug.
    • Erythromycin and its metabolites are excreted in bile.
    • Clarithromycin is hepatically metabolized, and the active drug and metabolites are excreted in urine; dosage should be adjusted in renal impairment.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Gastric distress is the most common side effect.
    • Cholestatic jaundice occurs with the estolate form of erythromycin.
    • Transient deafness is associated with erythromycin, especially at high dosages; azithromycin is associated with irreversible sensorineural hearing loss.
    • Macrolides and ketolides may prolong the QTc interval.
  • Contraindications:
    • Use cautiously in patients with hepatic dysfunction.
    • Severe hepatotoxicity with telithromycin has limited its use.
  • Drug Interactions:
    • Erythromycin, telithromycin, and clarithromycin inhibit the hepatic metabolism of other drugs.
    • Interaction with digoxin may occur.

Fidaxomicin

  • Macrocyclic antibiotic similar to macrolides with a unique mechanism of action.
  • Mechanism: Acts on the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase, disrupting bacterial transcription, terminating protein synthesis, and causing cell death.
  • Spectrum: Narrow spectrum limited to gram-positive aerobes and anaerobes.
    • Primarily used for bactericidal activity against Clostridium difficile.
  • No documented cross-resistance with other antibiotic classes.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Minimal systemic absorption after oral administration, remaining primarily in the gastrointestinal tract.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
    • Anemia and neutropenia observed infrequently.
    • Hypersensitivity reactions (angioedema, dyspnea, and pruritus) have occurred.
    • Use with caution in patients with a macrolide allergy due to increased risk of hypersensitivity.

Chloramphenicol

  • Broad-spectrum antibiotic restricted to life-threatening infections with no alternatives.
  • Mechanism: Binds reversibly to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis at the peptidyl transferase reaction.
    • May inhibit protein and ATP synthesis in mammalian mitochondrial ribosomes at high concentrations, causing bone marrow toxicity.
  • Spectrum: Active against many microorganisms, including chlamydiae, rickettsiae, spirochetes, and anaerobes.
    • Primarily bacteriostatic, but can be bactericidal depending on dose and organism.
  • Resistance: Via enzymes that inactivate chloramphenicol, decreased penetration, or altered ribosomal binding site.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Administered intravenously and widely distributed throughout the body, reaching therapeutic concentrations in CSF.
    • Primarily undergoes hepatic metabolism to an inactive glucuronide, which is secreted by the renal tubule and eliminated in the urine.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Anemias: Dose-related anemia, hemolytic anemia (in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency), and aplastic anemia.
    • Gray baby syndrome: Due to low glucuronidation capacity and underdeveloped renal function in neonates, leading to drug accumulation and mitochondrial ribosome interference.
  • Drug Interactions:
    • Chloramphenicol inhibits hepatic mixed-function oxidases, preventing the metabolism of drugs like warfarin and phenytoin.

Clindamycin

  • Mechanism: Similar to macrolides.
  • Used primarily for infections caused by gram-positive organisms (including MRSA and streptococcus) and anaerobic bacteria.
  • Resistance mechanisms are the same as for erythromycin.
    • C. difficile is resistant to clindamycin.
  • Available in IV and oral formulations.
    • Oral use is limited by gastrointestinal intolerance.
  • Distributes well into all body fluids but has poor entry into the CSF.
  • Undergoes extensive oxidative metabolism and is excreted into bile and urine.
    • Low urinary excretion limits its utility for urinary tract infections.
  • Accumulation reported in patients with severe renal impairment or hepatic failure.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Skin rash and diarrhea, which may represent pseudomembranous colitis caused by C. difficile overgrowth.

Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

  • Mixture of two streptogramins (30:70 ratio).
  • Reserved for severe infections caused by vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE) when other options are unavailable.
  • Mechanism: Each component binds to a separate site on the 50S bacterial ribosome, synergistically interrupting protein synthesis.
    • Dalfopristin disrupts elongation.
    • Quinupristin prevents elongation and causes release of incomplete peptide chains.
    • Bactericidal against most susceptible organisms and has a long PAE.
  • Spectrum: Active primarily against gram-positive cocci, including those resistant to other antibiotics.
    • Primary use is for E. faecium infections (including VRE strains), against which it is bacteriostatic.
    • Not effective against E. faecalis.
  • Resistance: Enzymatic processes, such as ribosomal enzyme methylation or acetyltransferase inactivation of dalfopristin, or active efflux pumps.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Available intravenously; does not achieve therapeutic concentrations in CSF.
    • Undergoes hepatic metabolism, with excretion mainly in the feces.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Venous irritation is common.
    • Hyperbilirubinemia occurs in about 25% of patients.
    • Arthralgia and myalgia reported at higher doses.
    • Quinupristin/dalfopristin inhibits the cytochrome P450 CYP3A4 isoenzyme.

Oxazolidinones

  • Linezolid and tedizolid are synthetic oxazolidinones developed to combat gram-positive organisms, including resistant isolates like MRSA, VRE, and penicillin-resistant streptococci.
  • Mechanism: Bind to the bacterial 23S ribosomal RNA of the 50S subunit, inhibiting the formation of the 70S initiation complex and translation of bacterial proteins.
  • Spectrum: Primarily against gram-positive organisms such as staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci, Corynebacterium species and Listeria monocytogenes.
    • Moderately active against Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
    • Linezolid is an alternative to daptomycin for VRE infections.
  • Resistance: Primarily occurs via reduced binding at the target site.
    • Cross-resistance with other protein synthesis inhibitors does not occur.
  • Pharmacokinetics:
    • Well absorbed after oral administration; IV formulations are also available.
    • Distribute widely throughout the body.
    • Linezolid is metabolized via oxidation to two inactive metabolites.
    • Tedizolid is metabolized by sulfation, and the majority of elimination occurs via the liver.
  • Adverse effects:
    • Gastrointestinal upset, nausea, diarrhea, headache, and rash.
    • Thrombocytopenia reported, usually in patients taking the drug for longer than 10 days.
    • May lead to serotonin syndrome if given with large quantities of tyramine-containing foods, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, or monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
    • Irreversible peripheral neuropathies and optic neuritis have been associated with greater than 28 days of use.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

More Like This

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser