Airworthiness Regulations and Dash 8 Q400
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Questions and Answers

The Dash 8 Q400 is certified under the Airworthiness regulations of:

  • JAR 23, FAR 23. (correct)
  • JAR 25, FAR 25.
  • JAR 21, FAR 21.
  • None of the above are correct.

    • The Forward and Aft baggage compartments are classified as class:

  • B.
  • B and C respectively.
  • C. (correct)
  • A and B respectively.

    • The Dash 8 Q400 is certified for:

  • Ditching.
  • Fuel dumping.
  • Ditching provided the required safety equipment is installed. (correct)
  • CAT 3 C operations.

    • The number of infants carried is limited By:

    <p>the number of infant's life vests.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The AFCS is approved for autopilot (AP) approaches to:

    <p>CAT 1 Limits.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn?

    <p>26 Meters.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The minimum N1 required to air-start an engine without a starter assist is:

    <p>8%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is correct with regards to Vmo:

    <p>at 20 000 ft: 275 KIAS and at 25 000 ft: 248 KIAS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Minimum Ambient Temperature is:

    <p>-54 C°.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The automatic Take Off Power Uptrim value is :

    <p>10% Torque (Nominal).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Vfe-Flap 10° is:

    <p>181 KIAS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Maximum Tailwind limit on a dry& wet runway for T/O and Landing is:

    <p>10 Kts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Maximum Crosswind limit on a contaminated runway for T/O and Landing is :

    <p>14 Kts.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The maximum operating altitude for T/O and Landing on a contaminated runway is:

    <p>6000 Feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the Maximum Certified Operating Altitude of the Dash-8-400?

    <p>25 000ft.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Use of VOR without associated DME in APPR mode is :

    <p>Prohibited.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The use of flap 35° in APPR mode with AP engaged is :

    <p>Prohibited.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum structural zero fuel weight?

    <p>25 855 Kg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum structural ramp weight?

    <p>29 347 Kg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum structural takeoff weight?

    <p>29 257 Kg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum structural landing weight ?

    <p>28 009 Kg.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum altitude for an Air Start?

    <p>20 000 Feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    VLo is:

    <p>200 KIAS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    After a Take Off and a GA the minimum height for AP engagement is:

    <p>1000 Feet.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    V MAX TIRE is:

    <p>182 Kts Ground Speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which is correct with regards to the maneuvering limit load factors:

    <p>Flaps retracted / +2.5 g and -1.0 g, Flaps extended/ +2.0 g and 0.0 g.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    The maximum runway slope for T/O and Landing is:

    <p>+2.0% uphill and -2.0% downhill.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pushing the GO-AROUND button on the Power Levers displays the FD command bars:

    <p>10° pitch up.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For non-precision approaches the AP must be disengaged at or above:

    <p>200 Feet AGL.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    AP and FD approaches are approved for G/S angles of:

    <p>2.5° to 4.0°.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Is the autopilot disengaged when the TCS button is pushed?

    <p>No, but the flight director bars are removed from view.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    VAQUAPLANING for T/O is:

    <p>107 Kts GS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Pushing the VNAV mode (momentary action):

    <p>VNAV mode is only active when the LNAV mode is also active.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How would you change the NAV SOURCE?

    <p>Turn the NAV SOURCE selection knob on the FGCP (Flight Guidance Control Panel).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the PLAN mode selected on the MFD?

    <p>Push FORMAT button for &lt; 2 seconds (SHORT PUSH).</p> Signup and view all the answers

    An AP approach must not be commenced and continued when an engine is inoperative?

    <p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When will the FADEC automatically abort the start?

    <p>If the engine does not light within 16 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 920 C° is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 70 seconds.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What happens when the F/A position on the cabin temperature control knob is selected ?

    <p>Both 2 and 3 are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many fans does the avionics cooling system has ?

    <ol start="3"> <li></li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

    When selecting ONE pack to AUTO or MAN, the ECS controller will ?

    <p>All are incorrect.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    If both air conditioning packs fail, how is the airflow to the cabin and flight compartment provided ?

    <p>RAM Air Ventilation.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    During normal operation, how is the airflow distributed to the cabin and flight compartment?

    <p>100% from the right pack and 50% from the left pack go to the cabin, and 50% from the left pack goes to the flight compartment.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    FLT COMPT PACK HOT" Caution light illuminate, what does it means:

    <p>Flight compartment pack is too hot and ECU automatically shuts down the pack.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When PACKS switch is set to MAN, Full cool targets is ______ & Full warm targets is ______:

    <p>2,8C° &amp; 71 C°.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    FANS FAIL Message:

    <p>Is displayed on ED if 2 avionic fans fail.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How many ACM are provided for the environmental control system?

    <ol start="2"> <li></li> </ol> Signup and view all the answers

    In what positions must bleed switches be for takeoff and landing?

    <p>Bleeds Min &amp; OFF.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When do the emergency lights turn on automatically?

    <p>When there is a loss of electrical power from the LEFT MAIN BUS.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How is the emergency light system armed?

    <p>1 and 2 are correct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What approximate engine speed is indicated by 'HYD 1071 rpm'?

    <p>Hydraulic pump rotational speed.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the provided information, what does 'FADEC 1173 rpm' indicate?

    <p>The rotational speed of the Full Authority Digital Engine Control.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the maximum torque at NTOP indicated in the text?

    <p>100%</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does 'Or (600 Lbs)' likely refer to in this context?

    <p>An alternative weight limit related to specific loading requirements.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Where is 'PTM2' likely found, in the context of the text?

    <p>In the Aircraft Operating Manual</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Airworthiness Regulations

    • The Dash 8 Q400 is certified under JAR 25, FAR 25 regulations.

    Baggage Compartments

    • The forward and aft baggage compartments are classified as class C.

    Dash 8 Q400 Certification

    • The Dash 8 Q400 is certified for ditching, provided the required safety equipment is installed.

    Infant Passenger Limits

    • The number of infants carried is limited by the number of infant life vests.

    Autopilot Approaches

    • The AFCS is approved for autopilot (AP) approaches to CAT 1 Limits.

    Minimum Pavement Width

    • The minimum pavement width for a 180° turn is 26 meters.

    Minimum N1 for Air-Start

    • The minimum N1 required to air-start an engine without a starter assist is 8%.

    Vmo

    • All Vmo values for different altitudes are correct.

    Minimum Ambient Temperature

    • The minimum ambient temperature is -54 C°.

    Automatic Take-Off Power Uptrim

    • The automatic take-off power uptrim value is 10% torque (nominal).

    Vfe-Flap 10°

    • The Vfe-Flap 10° value is 181 KIAS.

    Vmca-Flap 10°

    • The Vmca-Flap 10° value is 95 KCAS.

    Vmcg-Flap 10°

    • The Vmcg-flap 10° value is 89 KCAS.

    Vfe-Flap 15°

    • The Vfe-Flap 15° value is 172 KIAS.

    Maximum Tailwind Limit

    • The maximum tailwind limit on a dry and wet runway for takeoff and landing is 10 knots.

    Maximum Crosswind Limit

    • The maximum crosswind limit on a contaminated runway for takeoff and landing is 14 knots.

    Maximum Operating Altitude

    • The maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing on a contaminated runway is 6000 feet.

    Maximum Certified Operating Altitude

    • The maximum certified operating altitude of the Dash-8-400 is 25,000 feet.

    VOR and DME in APPR Mode

    • Using a VOR without associated DME in APPR mode is prohibited.

    Flap 35° in APPR Mode

    • Using flap 35° in APPR mode with AP engaged is prohibited.

    Maximum Structural Zero Fuel Weight

    • The maximum structural zero fuel weight is 25,855 kg.

    Maximum Structural Ramp Weight

    • The maximum structural ramp weight is 29,347 kg.

    Maximum Structural Takeoff Weight

    • The maximum structural takeoff weight is 29,257 kg.

    Maximum Structural Landing Weight

    • The maximum structural landing weight is 28,009 kg.

    Vfe-Flap 35°

    • The Vfe-Flap 35° value is 158 KIAS.

    Maximum Ambient Temperature

    • The maximum ambient temperature is +50°C or ISA +35, whichever is lower.

    Maximum Altitude for Air Start

    • The maximum altitude for an air start is 20,000 feet.

    Vlo

    • The Vlo value is 200 KIAS.

    VLe

    • The VLe value is 215 KIAS.

    VRA

    • The VRA value is 210 KIAS.

    Minimum Height for AP Engagement

    • The minimum height for AP engagement after takeoff and a general aviation flight is 1000 feet.

    VA

    • The VA value is 204 KIAS.

    V MAX TIRE

    • The V MAX TIRE value is 182 Kts Ground Speed.

    Maneuvering Limit Load Factors

    • Flaps retracted / +2.5 g and -1.0 g, Flaps extended/ +2.0 g and 0.0 g are correct.

    Maximum Runway Slope

    • The maximum runway slope for takeoff and landing is +2.0% uphill and -2.0% downhill.

    FD Command Bars

    • Pushing the GO-AROUND button displays 10° pitch up on the command bars.

    AP Disengagement for Non-Precision Approaches

    • The AP must be disengaged at or above 200 feet AGL for non-precision approaches.

    AP and FD Approaches

    • The approved G/S angles for AP and FD approaches are 2.5° to 4.0°.

    TCS Button and Autopilot

    • The autopilot is not disengaged when the TCS button is pushed.

    VAQUAPLANING for T/O

    • The VAQUAPLANING for T/O is 107 Kts GS.

    VNAV Mode (Momentary Action)

    • VNAV mode is only active when LNAV mode is also active.
    • Turn the NAV SOURCE selection knob on the FGCP.

    PLAN Mode Selection

    • Push FORMAT button for <2 seconds.

    AP Approach and Engine Inoperability

    • Commencing and continuing an AP approach is not permitted when an engine is inoperative.

    FADEC Automatic Abort

    • If the engine does not light within 16 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 920˚C is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 70 seconds the FADEC will automatically abort the start.

    F/A Cabin Temperature Control

    • Both turning on the F/A Control enable light and cabin temperature control to the flight attendant are correct.

    Avionics Cooling Fans

    • The avionics cooling system has 3 fans.

    ECS Controller

    • Selecting one pack to AUTO or MAN will result in only one pack being operational.

    Airflow in Cabin and Flight Compartment

    • During normal operation, 100% of airflow from the right pack and 50% from the left pack proceed to the cabin, and 50% from the left pack goes to the flight compartment.

    FLT COMPT PACK CAUTION Light

    • The CAUTION light illuminates if the flight compartment pack is too hot and the ECU automatically shuts down the pack.

    PACKS Switch and Full Cool Targets

    • When the PACKS switch is set to MAN, the full cool targets are 2.8°C & 71°C.

    FANS FAIL Message

    • The message of FANS FAIL shows on the ED and MFDs if two avionic fans fail.

    ACM for Environmental Control System

    • There are two ACM provided for the environmental control system.

    Bleed Switches for Takeoff and Landing

    • The bleed switches must be in the MIN and OFF positions for takeoff and landing.

    Emergency Lights

    • Emergency lights turn on automatically when there is a loss of electrical power from the LEFT MAIN BUS.

    Emergency Light System Armed

    • The emergency light system is armed by setting the emergency switch to ARM and Flight Attendants switch set at NORM and by setting the Anti Collision light to Red.

    Emergency Light Battery Charging Position

    • The emer lights must be in ARM or OFF to charge the battery packs, and flight attendants switch set at NORM.

    Emergency Exit Lights

    • The Dome and Boarding lights are operated off the hot battery bus.

    TAXI Light and Gear Retraction

    • The TAXI light automatically turns off after gear retraction, except if landing lights are ON.

    Normal Cabin Pressure Differential Limit

    • The normal cabin pressure differential limit is 5.46 PSI +/- 0.1 psid.

    Maximum Cabin Pressure Differential Limit

    • The maximum cabin pressure differential limit is 5.95 psid.

    Maximum Pressure Differential for Taxi, T/O, and Idg

    • The maximum pressure differential limit during taxi, t/o, and Idg is 0.5 psid..

    Maximum Cabin Altitude

    • The maximum cabin altitude is 8000 feet.

    Q400 Pressurization System Control

    • The Q400 pressurization system can be controlled via AUTO & MAN modes, Pressure Dump Mode, and Emergency/Smoke Removal.

    FWD Safety Valve Function

    • The FWD safety valve is for emergency operations and smoke removal from the flight compartment.

    Cabin Altitude Indication

    • The Master Warning + CABIN PRESS Warning Light Flashing indicates cabin altitude above 9800ft.

    Takeoff Memorization Mode Operation

    • The takeoff memorization mode operates when the AUTO/MAN/DUMP Switch is in AUTO.

    AFT Safety Valve Purpose

    • The AFT safety valve prevents the aircraft from pressurizing while on the ground.

    Safety Valves

    • The safety valves can be operated by suction (pneumatic) and by increasing the cabin rate.

    Component Controlling APU Operation

    • The APU FADEC controls and monitors APU operation.

    APU Fuel Tank

    • The APU takes fuel from the Left Tank.

    APU Bleed Air Use

    • APU bleed air can be used for air conditioning if the RECIR FAN is switched ON.

    APU Statements

    • The APU is approved for ground operations only, must be shut down before takeoff, not operated unattended with passengers onboard, and not operated during gravity refueling.

    APU Shut Down in Case of Fire

    • The APU automatically shuts down in case of fire, and the bottle will discharge after 7 seconds.

    FIRE TEST Button

    • If FIRE TEST is pushed while the APU is operating, the APU will stop, and the fuel valve will close.

    Fire Extinguisher Quantities

    • There are 4 portable fire extinguishers in the flight compartment, and 3 in the cabin, with additional provisions for VIP flights.

    Fire and Overheat Detection

    • Fire or overheat detection is via 02 fire loops, 01 fire loop, and 03 heat sensors...

    Lavatory Smoke Detector and Fire Bottle

    • The lavatory has one smoke detector and one thermally activated fire bottle.

    Baggage Compartment Fire Extinguisher Quantity

    • Each baggage compartment has one high-rate discharge fire extinguisher.

    Fuel/Hyd Off Handle

    • Pulling the PULL FUEL/HYD OFF handle shuts off both fuel and hydraulic valves, and arms the fire bottle squibs.

    Cargo Compartment Smoke Detectors

    • There are two smoke detectors in the aft cargo compartment and one in the fwd cargo compartment.

    Cargo Compartment Fire Bottles

    • There are 2 high and 1 low rate fire bottles for the cargo compartments.

    PBE Quantity

    • There are 4 PBEs on the aircraft.

    Main Landing Gear Doors

    • The two aft doors on the main landing gear are hydraulically operated.

    Emergency Exits

    • There are four emergency exits in the cabin.

    Flight Crew Escape Hatch

    • There is no caution/warning light for the flight crew escape hatch.

    Baggage Compartments as Emergency Exits

    • The baggage compartments are not usable as emergency exits.

    Doors with Inflatable Rubber Seals

    • The forward passenger and aft baggage doors have inflatable rubber seals.

    Hydraulic System Count

    • The Q400 has four hydraulic systems.

    Minimum Hydraulic Quantity for Dispatch

    • The minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch is 40%.

    Hydraulic System Reservoir Volume

    • The volume of the #1 Hydraulic system reservoir is 8 US Quarts.

    No.1 Hydraulic System Component Powering

    • The No. 1 HYD/SYS powers all of the above: FLAPS, INBD SPLR, BRAKES/ANTI-SKID, RUDDER, ELEVATOR, and the PTU MOTOR

    Hydraulic System Service Powering with #1 HYD ISO Valve Closed

    • Rudder, Elevator, Flaps, and PTU will still be powered when the #1 hydraulic ISO valve is closed.

    Hydraulic System Powering with #2 HYD ISO Valve Closed

    • Rudder and Elevator are still powered with the #2 hydraulic ISO valve closed

    Hydraulic System Reservoir Volume #2

    • The volume of the #2 Hydraulic system reservoir is 12 US Quarts.

    Hydraulic System Reservoir Volume #3

    • The volume of the #3 Hydraulic system reservoir is 2.6 US Quarts.

    No. 3 Hydraulic System Component Powering

    • The No. 3 HYD/SYS powers the Nose wheel Steering, the elevators, and the rudder.

    Standby Pump Pressure Indicator Location

    • The standby pump pressure indicator is on the PSA of the MFD 2.

    ELEV PRESS Caution Light

    • The ELEV PRESS caution light means #1, 2 & 3 hydraulic systems are supplying pressure to the elevator PCU's.

    Hydraulic Fire Wall

    • Hydraulic fire wall shut-off valves close if the Fuel/HYD OFF handle is pulled, fluid temperature in a reservoir exceeds 275°F, or a reservoir is empty.

    Fuel System of the Q400

    • The fuel system of the Q400 may be gravity or pressure refueled, and has only tank-to-tank transfer availability.

    Tank Fuel Low Caution Light

    • If the #1 TANK FUEL LOW caution light turns on during descent out of FL 190, the remaining fuel in the left tank is 305 lbs or 138 kgs.

    Yaw Damper Function

    • The Yaw Damper provides yaw stabilization.

    Spoiler Function

    • Spoilers assist ailerons for roll control, increase maneuverability at high speeds, provide drag when extended on the ground, and reduce the yaw effect at low speeds.

    Rudder Actuator Pressure

    • Rudder pressure decreases as airspeed increases from 190 KIAS.

    Roll Control Jam Conditions

    • Both pulling the roll disconnect handle out and turning the right control wheel more than 500 degrees from the neutral position are required for SPLR 1 and SPLR 2 lights to display "PUSH OFF."

    Maximum Nose Wheel Steering Deflection

    • The maximum deflection using the nose wheel steering during taxi is 70°.

    Elevator Control Check Observation

    • Elevator control movements are observable within the flight compartment during a Fore & Aft check.

    Hydraulic System for Landing Gear Operation

    • The landing gear is operated electrically and controlled hydraulically.

    Minimum Parking Brake Pressure for Start

    • The minimum parking brake pressure for starting is 500 psi for engine #1, or 1000 psi for engine #2.

    Nose Gear Ground Lock Installation

    • The nose gear ground lock is installed from the ground lock panel on the left side of the nose of the aircraft.

    Landing Gear Handle Movement

    • The main gear handle must be fully lowered until the door lights and green gear locked down lights turn on to engage alternate extension.

    Landing Gear Alternate Release Door Location

    • The landing gear alternate release door is located on the co-pilot's seat.

    Landing Gear Powering

    • The landing gear is powered by the #2 Hydraulic System.

    Visual Indication of Right Main Gear Unsafe

    • The right gear light is on, and the gear handle (amber) advisory light stays on.

    Anti-Skid System Power Brake Function

    • The anti-skid system provides both normal braking applications and maximum braking performance.

    Maximum Altitude with Landing Gear or Flap Extended

    • The maximum altitude with landing gear and/or flap extended is 15,000 feet.

    Inhibit Switch and Landing Gear Selection

    • When the inhibit switch is selected to inhibit, the landing gear up and down selection is disabled.

    Emergency Parking Brake Mechanism

    • The emergency parking brake is hydraulic.

    Landing Gear Down Indicator Amber Light

    • An amber light in the gear selector handle indicates that the landing gear is unsafe when the handle is down.

    LDG GEAR INOP Caution Light

    • The LDG GEAR INOP caution light being on after takeoff and climbing to FL200 means alternate landing gear extension is required before landing.

    Pneumatic System Bleed Air Supply

    • The pneumatic system supplies bleed air for air conditioning, pressurization, and deicing.

    Taxi Cabin Air Source

    • The cabin receives bleed air from the HP compressor.

    External Power Receptacle Location

    • The LH FWD Fuselage has the DC External Power Receptacle, and the RH Nacelle has the AC External Power Receptacle.

    DC External Power Annunciator Activation

    • The DC EXT POWER annunciator, green, on the Electrical page will display if the source is connected to the airplane and if it's supplying DC power within the voltage tolerances.

    AC Power Requirement

    • AC power requirements include de-icing, anti-icing heaters, galley load, auxiliary fuel pumps, and TRUs.

    Maximum Load Meter Reading for Takeoff

    • The maximum load meter reading for takeoff is 0.10.

    Batteries in the Q400

    • The Q400 uses main, auxiliary, and standby batteries.

    TRU Power Supply

    • The TRU supply is powered by the engine-driven AC Gene that supplies 24 VDC, 2, 115 VAC.

    AC Power Availability

    • AC power is available when the AC GEN1 and GEN2 switches are ON.

    O2 Minimum Dispatch Pressure

    • The minimum O2 minimum dispatch pressure for two pilots is 1300 PSI.

    Pilot Communication with Oxygen Masks

    • Pilots cannot readily communicate when their oxygen masks are donned. The proper method is by selecting MASK on the ARCDU.

    Passenger Oxygen Bottle Capacity

    • The passenger oxygen bottle can supply oxygen for 30 minutes to 3 people.

    Flight Crew Oxygen Gauge Location

    • The flight crew oxygen gauge is located on the co-pilot's side panel.

    Oxygen Mask Rotary Control for Smoke

    • In the event of smoke in the flight compartment, the oxygen mask rotary control knob should be selected to EMER.

    Terrain Indication for EGPWS

    • The terrain indication for the EGPWS is selected by pushing the weather/terrain button on the EFIS control and observing the indication on the MFDs.

    Radio Altimeter Failure

    • If the N°01 radio altimeter fails, its function can be taken over by the N°02, or if the system doesn't support that, it may no longer function, depending on the system.

    TCAS Push-Button Function

    • The TCAS push-button activates the selection between the POP-UP and Continuous Display modes within the EFIS control panel, and allows selection between the Terrain Mode or WX Mode.

    Multiple Alert Prioritization

    • If more than one alert occurs simultaneously, the warning tone generator prioritizes the alert with the highest priority first.

    Maximum Usable Fuel Capacity

    • The maximum usable fuel tanks capacity is 5318 kg.

    Maximum Fuel Imbalance

    • The maximum fuel imbalance is 272 kg.

    Engine Fuel Source

    • The engine takes fuel from the collector bay.

    Oil-to-Fuel Heat Exchanger Function

    • The oil-to-fuel heat exchanger heats the fuel before it enters the engine to prevent freezing.

    Fuel Replenishment in Collector Bay

    • Fuel in the collector bay is replenished by ejector pumps and flapper valves.

    Maximum Torque at NTOP

    • The maximum torque at NTOP is 90% or 91%.

    Aircraft Noise and Vibration Suppression

    • The aircraft noise and vibration control system uses data from the PEC and creates out-of-phase vibrations to cancel the noise.

    FADEC Activation

    • Within eight seconds the FADEC (Flight Control) commands the ignition, schedules the fuel, and determines functions of the engine based on the ambient temperature, pressure, and other factors.

    Propeller System Oil Loss

    • If the propeller system loses oil, the propeller will feather.

    Power Levers and Max Torque Limit

    • If power levers are advanced beyond the rate detent, the max torque permitted is 125%.

    Portable Passenger Oxygen Use

    • Portable passenger oxygen can be used as an alternative for emergency situations if the passenger is younger than 20 years of age.

    Electrical Failure During Flight

    • During an electrical failure, the PA will continue to operate if emergency lights are activated, by diverting operation through the hot battery. Otherwise, the PA will not operate.

    Dump Valve Function

    • The dump valve protects the fuel manifold from excess fuel pressure, returns fuel from the engine to the collector bay, and also protects the tank from overpressure.

    Fuel/Defuel Switch and Flight

    • If the fuel/defuel switch is in the PRESELECT REFUEL position after closing the panel door, there will be no effect on the flight, with the fuel transfer not occurring, and the fueling caution light not coming on.

    ADC Failure and FMS Indication

    • If #1 ADC fails, the FMS will show an ADC FAIL and TAS INVLD. If the # 1 ADC fails and the system needs to use # 2, the #2 ADC will automatically take over.

    Weather Information for WX Radar

    • The weather information from WX radar is on the MFD Nav page.

    MFD1 Failure and PFCS Indication

    • When MFD1 fails, PFCS status will be displayed on MFD2, selecting it with the ICP, or the MFD2 selector on the ESID.

    Fuel Quantity Display

    • The fuel quantity is measured using capacitance probes within the tanks.

    Available Screens in Emergency Mode

    • The MFD1 and the Electronic Display (ED) screens, as well as the PFD, are available in emergency mode.

    Pressure Scheduling in AUTO Mode

    • All pressure scheduling from takeoff to touchdown in AUTO mode is performed by the cabine pressure controller.

    Control Lock Handle Activation

    • Selecting the CONTROL LOCK handle activates the aileron locking.

    Additional Airspeed Limitations

    • Additional airspeed limitations exist if the following lights come on: FLAP POWER, ELEVATOR PRESS, RUD CTRL, or ELEVATOR FEEL caution lights.

    Air Conditioning Air Supply

    • APU bleed air is used only for air conditioning.

    Avionics Cooling via Fans

    • The avionics cooling can be provided by one fan, meaning that 50% is sufficient for some of the cooling requirements.

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    Q400 PDF

    Description

    Test your knowledge on airworthiness regulations and specifics related to the Dash 8 Q400. This quiz covers topics including baggage compartments, infant passenger limits, and autopilot approaches. Brush up on the required safety measures and operational limits for this aircraft.

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