Adenovirus Morphology

What is the morphology of adenovirus?

What is the genome of adenovirus?

How does adenovirus replicate?

What illnesses can adenoviruses cause?

How are adenoviruses mainly transmitted?

Which specimens can be used for laboratory diagnosis of adenovirus?

What is PCR?

What are the steps involved in PCR?

What is the causative agent of measles?

What is the genome of rubella virus?

Which virus has a single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genome that encodes nine proteins?

What is the name of the protein that binds to sialic acid receptors on host cells and facilitates virus attachment and entry for the mumps virus?

What is the name of the white spots inside the mouth that can indicate a measles infection?

Which virus is preventable by two doses of the mumps vaccine?

What is the name of the virus that causes chickenpox?

How is chickenpox transmitted?

What are the initial signs and symptoms of mumps?

What is the name of the test that can diagnose mumps by testing the blister fluid or scabs?

What is a serious complication of measles that can lead to blindness?

How can infants under one year of age gain some immunity to measles?

Which of the following best describes the structure of poxviruses?

How is smallpox virus transmitted?

What is the pathogenicity of smallpox?

What are the symptoms of smallpox?

How is smallpox diagnosed in the laboratory?

What is the mode of replication of poxviruses?

How is smallpox controlled?

What is the incubation period of smallpox?

Which of the following is a characteristic of smallpox skin lesions?

What is the primary site of smallpox infection?

What is the size range of adenovirus?

Which of the following illnesses can be caused by adenoviruses?

What is the main mode of transmission of adenoviruses?

What type of genetic material does adenovirus have?

What is the name of the technique that can detect the presence of pathogens and identify genetic variations?

Which of the following is a common complication of measles?

What is the name of the virus that causes rubella?

Which of the following specimens can be used for laboratory diagnosis of adenovirus?

What is the name of the enzyme that adds nucleotides to the primers during PCR?

What is the name of the virus that causes rubella?

What is the morphology of poxviruses?

What is the primary mode of transmission of smallpox?

How is smallpox controlled?

What is the incubation period of smallpox?

What is the name of the test that can diagnose smallpox by detecting viral DNA?

What are the initial symptoms of smallpox?

What is the name of the virus that causes smallpox?

What is the mode of replication of smallpox virus?

What is the name of the technique used to visualize poxviruses?

What is the name of the process by which smallpox virus is released from the host cell?

What is the main mode of transmission for measles?

What is the name of the protein that facilitates virus attachment and entry for the mumps virus?

What is the name of the virus that causes chickenpox?

What is the name of the test that can diagnose mumps by confirming the presence of the swollen glands?

What is the most common complication of measles that can lead to serious consequences such as blindness?

What is the name of the glycoprotein that binds to sialic acid receptors on host cells and facilitates virus attachment and entry for the mumps virus?

What is the incubation period for chickenpox?

What is the name of the laboratory diagnosis method for measles that detects the presence of nucleic acid?

What is the name of the virus family that the mumps virus belongs to?

What is the name of the white spots inside the mouth that can indicate a measles infection?

Measles is a bacterial infection.

Mumps is caused by a virus with a single-stranded, negative-sense RNA genome.

The mumps virus has two glycoproteins: hemagglutinin-neuraminidase (HN) and fusion (F) protein.

Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV).

Chickenpox is not a highly contagious disease.

Measles can lead to serious complications such as ear infections, bronchitis, and miscarriage.

Mumps is preventable by one dose of the MMR vaccine.

The measles virus can be diagnosed by the presence of white spots inside the mouth called Koplik's spot.

PCR can be used for laboratory diagnosis of both measles and mumps.

Mumps can cause acute pancreatic inflammation as a complication.

Smallpox is caused by a group of viruses with a linear double-stranded RNA genome.

Poxviruses have a complex life cycle that involves replication in the nucleus of the host cell and release by exocytosis.

Smallpox virus can only be transmitted via respiratory aerosol.

Smallpox begins when the virus infects the lower respiratory tract and local lymph nodes.

Smallpox has an incubation period of 7-17 days and can cause fever, vomiting, sores in the mouth, and a skin rash.

The skin rash in smallpox turns into fluid-filled bumps without a dent in the center.

Smallpox can only spread between people and not through contaminated objects.

The laboratory diagnosis of smallpox can be done using PCR and electron microscopy.

Vaccination is not an effective way of controlling smallpox.

Poxviruses have a lipid membrane surrounding their protein core.

Adenoviruses can only cause respiratory illness.

Adenoviruses replicate in the cytoplasm.

Adenoviruses can be transmitted through fecal-oral contact.

PCR can only detect the presence of pathogens.

Measles and rubella are caused by the same type of virus.

Rubella virus has a positive-sense RNA genome.

The size range of adenovirus is between 80-110 nm in diameter.

Poxviruses have a helical structure.

Smallpox is caused by a single-stranded RNA virus.

Mumps primarily affects the respiratory system.

What is the genome of adenovirus?

What are the possible illnesses caused by adenoviruses?

What is the control measure for adenoviruses?

What is PCR?

What are the steps involved in PCR?

What type of virus is rubella?

What are the initial symptoms of rubella?

What is the size range of adenovirus?

What is the transmission mode for rubella?

What are the possible complications of measles?

What is the morphology of poxviruses?

What is the genome of poxviruses?

How do poxviruses replicate?

How is smallpox virus transmitted?

What is the pathogenicity of smallpox?

What are the symptoms of smallpox?

How is smallpox diagnosed in the laboratory?

What is the main method of controlling smallpox?

What is the mode of release for poxviruses?

Are poxviruses enveloped or non-enveloped viruses?

What is the mode of transmission of measles?

What are the serious complications that can arise from a measles infection?

How can measles be diagnosed in a laboratory?

How can newborn infants acquire some immunity to measles?

What is the structure of the mumps virus?

What is the primary mode of transmission of the mumps virus?

What are the symptoms of a mumps infection?

What are the complications that may arise from a mumps infection?

How can chickenpox be transmitted?

What are the initial symptoms of a chickenpox infection?

What are the common illnesses caused by adenoviruses?

What is the technique used for amplifying a specific segment of DNA or RNA from a sample?

What are the steps involved in the PCR procedure?

What is the structure of poxviruses and how do they replicate?

What are the symptoms of smallpox and how is it transmitted?

What is the laboratory diagnosis for smallpox and how can it be controlled?

What is the mode of transmission for chickenpox?

What are the symptoms of measles?

What are the glycoproteins responsible for facilitating virus attachment and entry for the mumps virus?

How is mumps diagnosed and confirmed?

Adenoviruses are transmitted mainly by respiratory or feco-oral contact from ______.

The genome of adenovirus is

The size range of adenovirus is approximately

Measles, or rubella, is a viral infection of the

The laboratory diagnosis method for measles that detects the presence of nucleic acid is

Rubella virus is a single-stranded, negative-sense, enveloped

PCR is widely used in molecular biology, biotechnology, medicine and

The vaccine for controlling adenovirus is

Smallpox virus is transmitted via respiratory ______ or by direct contact with virus either in the skin lesions.

Poxviruses have a simple life cycle that involves replication in the ______ of the host cell and release by budding or cell lysis.

Smallpox begins when the virus infects the upper respiratory tract and local lymph nodes and then enters the blood (primary ______).

It can spread between people or through ______ objects.

Smallpox has an incubation period of 7-17 days and can cause fever, vomiting, sores in the mouth, and a ______ rash.

Internal organs are infected; then the virus reenters the ______ (secondary viremia) and spreads to the skin.

The skin rash turns into fluid-filled bumps with a dent in the center, which then scabbed over and fell off leaving ______.

Poxviruses are a group of viruses that have a brick-shaped ______ and a linear double-stranded DNA genome.

Laboratory Diagnosis: PCR and ______ microscopy.

Measles is a viral infection that causes fever, cough, cold, red eyes, and ______.

Mothers who are immune to measles pass antibodies to their children, which can give newborn infants some immunity. However, these antibodies gradually lose over the first nine months of life, making infants under one year of age susceptible to infection with the ______ virus.

The mumps virus is a member of the ______ family of enveloped RNA viruses.

The HN protein binds to ______ receptors on host cells and facilitates virus attachment and entry.

Chickenpox is an airborne disease which spreads easily through the coughs and sneezes of an infected person. It may be spread from one to two days before the rash appears until all lesions have ______ over.

The disease causes a skin rash that spreads to the rest of the body, with other symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and ______.

Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease caused by the initial infection with ______ virus (VZV).

Diagnosis by ______ testing of the blister fluid or scabs and serological tests.

What is the family of poliovirus?

What is the most common route of transmission for poliovirus?

What is the rare paralytic illness caused by poliovirus?

What is the type of immune response against poliovirus?

What are the two forms of poliovirus vaccine?

What is the name of the scientist who developed the inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)?

What is the advantage of oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)?

What happens following vaccination with oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)?

What is the main disadvantage of Oral Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV)?

What is a rare but serious complication that can develop in people with immunological deficiencies who receive OPV?

What is the main advantage of IPV over OPV?

What is a disadvantage of IPV compared to OPV?

What is the mode of administration for IPV?

What is the mode of transmission for adenoviruses?

What is the laboratory diagnosis for poliovirus?

What is the mode of transmission for chickenpox?

What is the diagnostic test for smallpox that detects viral DNA?

What is the mode of transmission of enteroviruses?

Which of the following is NOT a category of enteroviruses?

What is the difference between a poliovirus and a non-polio enterovirus?

Which virus is often associated with hand, foot, and mouth disease?

What are the potential severe disorders that Coxsackie B viruses can cause?

What is the primary group of people who may have serious problems when infected with non-polio enteroviruses?

What is the genetic material of enteroviruses?

What is the difference between Coxsackie A viruses and Coxsackie B viruses?

Poliovirus is mainly found in the respiratory system.

Poliovirus can cause nerve system disorders.

There are three serotypes of poliovirus.

The faecal-oral route is the most common mode of transmission of poliovirus.

Poliovirus infection is always symptomatic.

Poliovirus can cause paralytic illness when it replicates in motor neurons in the CNS.

Both IgG and IgA play a role in preventing re-infection with poliovirus.

OPV is more expensive than IPV.

OPV can cause paralysis in rare cases

People with immunological deficiencies may develop vaccine-associated paralytic polio

Vaccine-derived polioviruses are not circulating in the population

IPV includes all three poliovirus serotypes

IPV is administered through a nasal spray

IPV induces a stronger protective immune response than OPV does in the majority of individuals

IPV decreases intestinal immunity

Defects in IPV immunity allow wild poliovirus to remain in the intestine and be excreted in faeces

IPV is more than five times the cost of OPV

Enteroviruses belong to the Picornaviridae family and are members of group III Baltimore (-ssRNA)

The enteroviruses were divided into four categories: polioviruses, Coxsackie A viruses, Coxsackie B viruses, and echoviruses

A Coxsackie A virus, a Coxsackie B virus, and an echovirus are all called non-polio enteroviruses

Most people who get non-polio enteroviruses don't get sick, or they only get a little sick

Enteroviruses spread through the respiratory route

Coxsackie viruses are often associated with human hand, foot, and mouth disease

Echoviruses can cause more severe disorders such as myocarditis, meningitis, and pancreatitis

Adenovirus can be diagnosed by laboratory methods such as PCR and virus isolation

What are the four categories of enteroviruses?

What is the fecal-oral route of transmission for enteroviruses?

What is the association between Coxsackie viruses and hand, foot, and mouth disease?

What are the possible severe disorders caused by Coxsackie viruses?

What is the cause of many non-specific viral infections?

Who is at risk of serious problems from non-polio enteroviruses?

What is the family and group classification of enteroviruses?

What is the difference between polioviruses and non-polio enteroviruses?

What is poliomyelitis?

What are the two forms of poliovirus vaccine?

Who developed the OPV vaccine?

Who developed the IPV vaccine?

What is the main mode of transmission for poliovirus?

What are the three serotypes of poliovirus?

What is the advantage of OPV vaccine?

What is the immune response to poliovirus infection?

What are the potential risks associated with the live attenuated vaccination virus in OPV?

What is the method of administration for IPV?

What are the advantages of IPV over OPV?

What are the disadvantages of IPV?

What are the possible ways of diagnosing poliovirus?

How does IPV affect intestinal immunity?

What is the cost difference between IPV and OPV?

What is the possible complication that may arise in people with immunological deficiencies after receiving OPV?

What is the name of the laboratory diagnosis method for determining whether a patient has paralytic poliomyelitis?

• Enteroviruses spread through the ______ route.

• Coxsackie viruses are often associated with human hand, foot, and mouth disease. Additionally, Coxsackie B viruses may result in a fever, a slight rash, and mild upper respiratory tract (URT) ______.

• Echoviruses are a cause of many of the ______ viral infections.

• A Coxsackie A virus, a Coxsackie B virus, and an echovirus are all called ______ enteroviruses.

• But these viruses may also cause more severe disorders, such as myocarditis; meningitis; and ______.

• Most people who get ______ enteroviruses don't get sick, or they only get a little sick.

• Enteroviruses are RNA viruses that belong to the ______ family and are members of group IV Baltimore (+ssRNA).

• The enteroviruses were divided into four categories, namely, polioviruses, Coxsackie A viruses (CA), Coxsackie B viruses (CB), and ______.

OPV may cause paralysis in rare cases (1 in 2.7 million) and people with immunological deficiencies may develop vaccine-associated paralytic ______.

Rarely, the vaccination virus may genetically mutate and begin spreading throughout a population. Vaccine-derived ______ are circulating in the population.

IPV is administered through a leg or arm ______.

Because it is a non-live vaccine, there is no danger of vaccination-associated ______ paralysis.

IPV decreases intestinal ______.

Defects in IPV immunity allow wild (infectious) poliovirus to remain in the intestine and be excreted in faeces, which might infect other individuals again. IPV is more than five times the cost of ______.

Poliovirus can be found using an electron microscope in the throat, faeces, and occasionally cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens, or by isolating the virus in cell culture or its genome using polymerase chain reaction (______).

A serum sample should be taken early in the illness process, and a second sample (verified) should be obtained at least three weeks ______.

Serology may be useful in determining whether a patient has paralytic poliomyelitis, especially if the patient has not been ______.

• Poliovirus primarily replicates in ______ neurons in the spinal cord, brain stem, or motor cortex

• Poliovirus is mainly transmitted through the ______-oral route

• The initial immune response to poliovirus involves the production of ______ antibodies, followed by IgG

• There are ______ serotypes of poliovirus

• IPV was developed by ______

• Vaccination timetables for poliovirus typically include ______ doses

• OPV is a vaccine that can induce a ______ immune response in the intestines' mucous membrane

• The two forms of poliovirus vaccine are live attenuated (OPV) and ______

Pseudohyphae differ from true hyphae in that they are constricted at the septa, form branches that begin with septation, and have terminal cells smaller than other cells. True hyphae are found in ______ fungi.

Aerial hyphae extend above the agar or nutrient substrate, and their function is to support reproductive structures called ______.

Conidia are spore like asexual reproductive structures not produced by cleavage, conjugation, or free-cell formation. Conidia are only formed by the ______ fungi.

Arthroconidia are conidia resulting from the fragmentation of ______ into individual cells.

Phialoconidia are ______-shaped conidia that can be branched.

Fungi that reproduce sexually are called ______ fungi.

A selective agar used to recover cyclohexamide-sensitive ______ is Inhibitory mold agar (IMA)

Fungal cultures are incubated at ______°C

The ______ method is used to transfer aerial hyphae from the colony to a microscope slide for examination

Differential agars are used to enhance pigment development, conidia production, and mold-to-yeast phase transition. Potato dextrose agar (PDA) is used to enhance ______ development

The slide culture technique uses an agar block covered by a cover slip. On the side of the agar block, fungi are grown as ______

Brain heart infusion agar with blood (BHIB) is used to grow most fungi, especially those from ______ body sites

DIRECT EXAMINATION METHODS Calcofluor white stain is a fluorochrome that stains ______ found in the cell wall of fungi.

BODY SITES AND POSSIBLE FUNGAL PATHOGENS Microsporum and Trichophyton can be found in ______.

BODY SITES AND POSSIBLE FUNGAL PATHOGENS ______ can be found in the lungs.

DIRECT EXAMINATION METHODS India ink can be used to reveal capsules surrounding C. neoformans found in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). However, due to low sensitivity, direct ______ detection assays have generally replaced the India ink wet mount.

BODY SITES AND POSSIBLE FUNGAL PATHOGENS ______ can be found in the genital tract.

DIRECT EXAMINATION METHODS Fungal antigen detection uses known antibodies to identify circulating fungal antigens in a patient’s serum, CSF, or ______.

DIRECT EXAMINATION METHODS Potassium hydroxide (KOH) is used to dissolve non-fungal materials in skin, nail, and hair samples. Specimen is placed on a slide, a drop of 10-20% KOH is added and covered with a coverslip, left for 20 min in incubator at 37°C to digest keratin. Then examined ______.

Mycology is the study of fungi (molds, yeasts, and ______)

Fungi that show both a non molds (e.g., yeast) and molds phase

Ergosterol = Major membrane sterol. Imidazole antifungals inhibit synthesis of ______. Polyene antifungals bind more tightly to ______ than cholesterol.

There are two main types of . Septate ______ have cellular separation or cross-walls. Sparsely septate (formerly aseptate) ______ contain few if any cellular separations. Pseudo are a chain of cells formed by budding that resemble true ______.

All fungi are ______ (e.g., true nucleus, 80S ribosomes, mitochondria, as are humans). Complex carbohydrate cell walls: chitin, glucan, and mannan.

Saprobe: Organism capable of living on decaying organic material.

What is mycology?

What is mycosis?

What is the difference between molds and yeasts?

What is the major membrane sterol in fungi?

What are dimorphic fungi?

What is the difference between septate and sparsely septate hyphae?

What is a saprobe?

What is the main difference between pseudohyphae and true hyphae?

What is the function of aerial hyphae?

What are conidia?

What is the difference between microconidia and macroconidia?

What is the name for conidia resulting from the fragmentation of hyphae into individual cells?

What are the two types of spores produced through sexual reproduction?

What is the term for fungi that undergo asexual reproduction?

What method is used to diagnose vaginitis through the viewing of fungal elements such as hyphae, conidia, and budding yeasts?

What is the purpose of adding KOH to a specimen in a KOH mount?

What body site can India ink be used to reveal capsules surrounding C. neoformans found in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

What is the purpose of adding KOH to clear the specimen of cellular debris in a Calcofluor white stain?

What is the purpose of fungal antigen detection?

What fungal pathogen can be found in hair samples?

What fungal pathogen can be found in skin samples?

What fungal pathogen can be found in urine samples?

What fungal pathogen can be found in the genital tract?

What is the pH of Modified SDA (Emmons) and how does it compare to other media in terms of bacterial inhibition?

What is Sabouraud-brain heart infusion agar (SABHI) used for and how can it be made selective for dimorphic fungi?

What is the purpose of inhibitory mold agar (IMA) and what does it contain?

What is the purpose of the cellophane tape method in obtaining culture material for slide preparation?

What is the temperature range for incubating fungal cultures?

What is the purpose of differential agars in fungal culture?

What is the purpose of brain heart infusion agar with blood (BHIB) and how can it be made selective for dimorphic fungi?

Pseudohyphae are not constricted at the septa

Aerial hyphae support reproductive structures called conidia

Conidia are only formed by the perfect fungi

Chlamydoconidia are found in yeasts, whereas similar structures are found in moulds

Phialoconidia are not branched

Oospores result from the fusion of cells from two different hyphae

Sabouraud dextrose agar is a nutritionally rich medium

Saline wet mount is primarily used to diagnose vaginitis.

Lactophenol cotton blue wet mount is used to view fungal elements in culture isolates.

KOH mount dissolves fungi and keratin.

Gram stain can be used to view fungal yeasts.

India ink wet mount is still commonly used to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF.

Calcofluor white stain is not absorbed by human tissue.

Fungal antigen detection is not reliable in immunocompromised patients.

Candida spp. can be found in both blood and urine.

Microsporum and Trichophyton are commonly found in hair.

Modified SDA (Emmons) is more inhibitory for bacteria than fungi.

Sabouraud-brain heart infusion agar (SABHI) is a selective medium for dimorphic fungi.

Brain heart infusion agar with blood (BHIB) can be made selective for dimorphic fungi by the addition of cyclohexamide, chloramphenicol, and gentamicin.

Inhibitory mold agar (IMA) is used to recover the cyclohexamide-resistant Cryptococcus.

Potato dextrose agar (PDA) enhances pigment development of Trichophyton rubrum.

Fungal cultures are incubated at 25°C.

The slide culture technique uses an agar block covered by a cover slip to grow fungi colonies.

Systemic mycosis is a fungal infection that affects multiple organs in the body.

Pseudohyphae are long, branching filaments that come together to form the mycelium.

Molds are single-cell fungi.

Imidazole antifungals inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol in fungi.

All fungi have complex carbohydrate cell walls made of chitin, glucan, and mannan.

Opportunistic mycosis primarily affects immunocompromised patients.

Dimorphic fungi only exist in a non-mold phase.

What is mycology?

What are the general characteristics of fungi?

What is mycosis?

What is a systemic mycosis?

What are opportunistic mycoses?

What are dimorphic fungi?

What are hyphae and what are the two main types?

What is the advantage of Modified SDA (Emmons) over other media for fungal growth?

What is Sabouraud-brain heart infusion agar (SABHI) and how can it be made selective for dimorphic fungi?

What is the purpose of Brain heart infusion agar with blood (BHIB)?

What is the function of Cyclohexamide, chloramphenicol, and gentamicin in BHIB?

What is the purpose of Selective agars and give an example?

What is the Tease mount method and what is its disadvantage?

What is the Slide Culture Method and how does it work?

What are the two types of hyphae and their functions?

What are conidia and how are they classified based on morphology?

What are the types of conidia and how are they formed?

What is the difference between perfect and imperfect fungi?

What are the four types of spores and how are they produced?

What is Sabouraud dextrose agar (SDA) and what is its purpose in fungal culture and isolation?

What is the difference between pseudohyphae and true hyphae?

What is the purpose of a saline wet mount examination?

What is the most common use of a saline wet mount?

What is the purpose of a lactophenol cotton blue wet mount?

What is the purpose of potassium hydroxide (KOH) in direct examination methods?

How long is a specimen left in an incubator at 37°C for a KOH mount?

What is the purpose of a Gram stain in direct examination methods?

What is revealed by an India ink wet mount?

What is calcofluor white stain used for?

What is the purpose of fungal antigen detection?

Which of the following is a common cause of yeast infections in women and UTIs?

Which method is used to identify yeast through the visualization of budding yeast in saline wet mounts and Gram stains?

What is the temperature range for yeast growth on Sabouraud-brain heart infusion agar?

Which agar is used to differentiate Candida spp. by enhancing the formation of fungal elements such as hyphae, pseudohyphae, and conidia?

Which species of yeast does not produce chlamydospores and typically produces long-branched pseudohyphae?

What is the most common cause of yeast infections and UTIs in women?

What is the purpose of India ink preparations in yeast identification?

Which yeast species will show chlamydospores with clusters of blastoconidia along the hyphae?

Which agar is commonly used for yeast culturing and can also resemble Staphylococcus colonies on blood agar?

What type of infection can yeast cause in newborns?

What is the difference between germ tubes and pseudohyphae?

What is the purpose of the carbohydrate assimilation test?

What is the purpose of the urease test?

What is the purpose of CHROMagars?

What is the procedure for germ tube production?

What is the negative control used for the urease test?

What is the difference between a positive germ tube and a pseudogerm tube?

What is the medium used in the carbohydrate assimilation test?

What is the difference between germ tubes and hyphae?

What is the procedure for the germ tube production test?