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Questions and Answers
A client's left leg is in skeletal traction with a Thomas leg splint and Pearson attachment. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's care plan?
A client's left leg is in skeletal traction with a Thomas leg splint and Pearson attachment. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's care plan?
A nurse is caring for a client placed in traction to treat a fractured femur. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A nurse is caring for a client placed in traction to treat a fractured femur. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
Which orthopedic surgery is done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture?
Which orthopedic surgery is done to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure of the fracture?
The client displays manifestations of compartment syndrome. What treatment will the nurse expect the client to be scheduled for?
The client displays manifestations of compartment syndrome. What treatment will the nurse expect the client to be scheduled for?
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A client who is undergoing skeletal traction reports pressure on bony areas. Which action would be most appropriate to provide comfort for the client?
A client who is undergoing skeletal traction reports pressure on bony areas. Which action would be most appropriate to provide comfort for the client?
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A client's fracture was reduced by surgically exposing the bone and realigning it. What type of treatment does the nurse identify this as?
A client's fracture was reduced by surgically exposing the bone and realigning it. What type of treatment does the nurse identify this as?
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The nurse is checking the traction apparatus for a client in skin traction. Which finding would require the nurse to intervene?
The nurse is checking the traction apparatus for a client in skin traction. Which finding would require the nurse to intervene?
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A group of students is studying for a test on traction. The students demonstrate understanding of the types of traction when they identify which of the following as an example of skin traction?
A group of students is studying for a test on traction. The students demonstrate understanding of the types of traction when they identify which of the following as an example of skin traction?
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The nurse is providing instructions to the client who is being prepared for skeletal traction. Which statement by the client indicates teaching was effective?
The nurse is providing instructions to the client who is being prepared for skeletal traction. Which statement by the client indicates teaching was effective?
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A client is reporting pain following orthopedic surgery. Which intervention will help relieve pain?
A client is reporting pain following orthopedic surgery. Which intervention will help relieve pain?
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A client has severe osteoarthritis in the left hip and is having surgery to replace both articular surfaces of the hip. What type of surgical procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?
A client has severe osteoarthritis in the left hip and is having surgery to replace both articular surfaces of the hip. What type of surgical procedure will the nurse prepare the client for?
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A client is brought to the emergency department by a softball team member who states the client and another player ran into each other, and the client is having severe pain in the right shoulder. What symptoms of a fractured clavicle does the nurse recognize?
A client is brought to the emergency department by a softball team member who states the client and another player ran into each other, and the client is having severe pain in the right shoulder. What symptoms of a fractured clavicle does the nurse recognize?
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The nurse is preparing a client to have his cast cut off after having it for 6 weeks to treat a fractured tibia. What should the nurse inform the client prior to the cast being removed?
The nurse is preparing a client to have his cast cut off after having it for 6 weeks to treat a fractured tibia. What should the nurse inform the client prior to the cast being removed?
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A client was playing softball and dislocated four of his fingers when diving for a ball. The physician manipulated the fingers into alignment and applied a splint to maintain alignment. What type of procedure does the nurse document this as?
A client was playing softball and dislocated four of his fingers when diving for a ball. The physician manipulated the fingers into alignment and applied a splint to maintain alignment. What type of procedure does the nurse document this as?
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Which would be consistent as a component of self-care activities for the client with a cast?
Which would be consistent as a component of self-care activities for the client with a cast?
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A client with a long arm cast continues to complain of unrelieved throbbing pain even after receiving opioid pain medication. Which is the priority action by the nurse?
A client with a long arm cast continues to complain of unrelieved throbbing pain even after receiving opioid pain medication. Which is the priority action by the nurse?
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A client arrives in the emergency department with a suspected bone fracture of the right arm. How does the nurse expect the client to describe the pain?
A client arrives in the emergency department with a suspected bone fracture of the right arm. How does the nurse expect the client to describe the pain?
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Which is a benefit of a continuous passive motion (CPM) device when applied after knee surgery?
Which is a benefit of a continuous passive motion (CPM) device when applied after knee surgery?
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A client with a musculoskeletal injury is instructed to alter the diet. The objective of altering the diet is to facilitate the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. Considering the food intake objective, which food item should the nurse encourage the client to include in the diet?
A client with a musculoskeletal injury is instructed to alter the diet. The objective of altering the diet is to facilitate the absorption of calcium from food and supplements. Considering the food intake objective, which food item should the nurse encourage the client to include in the diet?
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The nurse is screening children for scoliosis. What nursing assessment finding is indicative of scoliosis?
The nurse is screening children for scoliosis. What nursing assessment finding is indicative of scoliosis?
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The nurse is conducting the admission assessment for a client who is to undergo an arthrogram. What is the priority question the nurse should ask?
The nurse is conducting the admission assessment for a client who is to undergo an arthrogram. What is the priority question the nurse should ask?
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Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for osteoporosis?
Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for osteoporosis?
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Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with lower extremity muscle weakness?
Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect to be ordered for a client with lower extremity muscle weakness?
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A client has had surgical repair of a hip injury after joint manipulation was unsuccessful. After surgery, the nurse implements measures to prevent complications. Which complications is the nurse seeking to prevent? Select all that apply.
A client has had surgical repair of a hip injury after joint manipulation was unsuccessful. After surgery, the nurse implements measures to prevent complications. Which complications is the nurse seeking to prevent? Select all that apply.
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Radiographic evaluation of a client's fracture reveals that a bone fragment has been driven into another bone fragment. The nurse identifies this as which type of fracture?
Radiographic evaluation of a client's fracture reveals that a bone fragment has been driven into another bone fragment. The nurse identifies this as which type of fracture?
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A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration?
A client is experiencing muscle weakness in the upper extremities. The client raises an arm above the head but then loses the ability to maintain the position. Muscular dystrophy is suspected. Which diagnostic test would evaluate muscle weakness or deterioration?
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A client asks the nurse why his residual limb cannot be elevated on a pillow. What is the best response by the nurse?
A client asks the nurse why his residual limb cannot be elevated on a pillow. What is the best response by the nurse?
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A client with a fractured ankle is having a fiberglass cast applied. The client starts yelling, "My leg is burning, take it off." What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A client with a fractured ankle is having a fiberglass cast applied. The client starts yelling, "My leg is burning, take it off." What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
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The nurse is caring for a patient who had a total hip replacement. What lethal postoperative complication should the nurse closely monitor for?
The nurse is caring for a patient who had a total hip replacement. What lethal postoperative complication should the nurse closely monitor for?
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A patient sustains a fracture of the arm. When does the nurse anticipate pendulum exercise should begin?
A patient sustains a fracture of the arm. When does the nurse anticipate pendulum exercise should begin?
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Which of the following is the most important nursing diagnosis for an elderly patient diagnosed with osteoporosis?
Which of the following is the most important nursing diagnosis for an elderly patient diagnosed with osteoporosis?
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A client with a right leg fracture is returning to the orthopedist to have the cast removed. During cast removal, it is important for the nurse to assure:
A client with a right leg fracture is returning to the orthopedist to have the cast removed. During cast removal, it is important for the nurse to assure:
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After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which statement is true?
After a person experiences a closure of the epiphyses, which statement is true?
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Which statement describes paresthesia?
Which statement describes paresthesia?
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What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?
What is the term for a rhythmic contraction of a muscle?
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The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
The client presents with an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
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The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong bones. What is the nurse's best response?
The older client asks the nurse how best to maintain strong bones. What is the nurse's best response?
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Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect compartment syndrome in the client following a bone biopsy?
Which assessment finding would cause the nurse to suspect compartment syndrome in the client following a bone biopsy?
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A client has just undergone arthrography. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
A client has just undergone arthrography. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?
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The nurse is providing care to a client following a knee arthroscopy. What would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?
The nurse is providing care to a client following a knee arthroscopy. What would the nurse expect to include in the client's plan of care?
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The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report?
The nurse is performing a neurovascular assessment of a client's injured extremity. Which would the nurse report?
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A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremity. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding?
A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremity. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding?
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A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which statement should the nurse include?
A nurse is teaching a client who was recently diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome. Which statement should the nurse include?
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A client is admitted with acute osteomyelitis that developed after an open fracture of the right femur. When planning this client's care, the nurse should anticipate which measure?
A client is admitted with acute osteomyelitis that developed after an open fracture of the right femur. When planning this client's care, the nurse should anticipate which measure?
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A nurse is teaching a client about preventing osteoporosis. Which teaching point is correct?
A nurse is teaching a client about preventing osteoporosis. Which teaching point is correct?
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A nurse notices a client lying on the floor at the bottom of the stairs. The client is alert and oriented and denies pain other than in the arm, which is swollen and appears deformed. After calling for help, what should the nurse do?
A nurse notices a client lying on the floor at the bottom of the stairs. The client is alert and oriented and denies pain other than in the arm, which is swollen and appears deformed. After calling for help, what should the nurse do?
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The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?
The nurse teaches the client with a high risk for osteoporosis about risk-lowering strategies, including which action?
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A nurse is caring for a client following foot surgery. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan?
A nurse is caring for a client following foot surgery. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan?
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What food can the nurse suggest to the client at risk for osteoporosis?
What food can the nurse suggest to the client at risk for osteoporosis?
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A nurse is planning discharge instructions for the client with osteomyelitis. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A nurse is planning discharge instructions for the client with osteomyelitis. What instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
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Which of the following presents with an onset of heel pain with the first steps of the morning?
Which of the following presents with an onset of heel pain with the first steps of the morning?
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A client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. The rheumatologist has prescribed NSAID use to treat the condition. What client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?
A client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. The rheumatologist has prescribed NSAID use to treat the condition. What client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?
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A client with chronic osteomyelitis has undergone 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy. The wound appearance has not improved. What action would the nurse anticipate to promote healing?
A client with chronic osteomyelitis has undergone 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy. The wound appearance has not improved. What action would the nurse anticipate to promote healing?
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Assessment of a client reveals signs and symptoms of Paget's disease. Which of the following would be most likely?
Assessment of a client reveals signs and symptoms of Paget's disease. Which of the following would be most likely?
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When providing discharge teaching to a client with a fractured toe, the nurse should include which instruction?
When providing discharge teaching to a client with a fractured toe, the nurse should include which instruction?
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After surgery to treat a hip fracture, a client returns from the postanesthesia care unit to the medical-surgical unit. Postoperatively, how should the nurse position the client?
After surgery to treat a hip fracture, a client returns from the postanesthesia care unit to the medical-surgical unit. Postoperatively, how should the nurse position the client?
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A client with arterial insufficiency undergoes below-knee amputation of the right leg. Which action should the nurse include in the postoperative care plan?
A client with arterial insufficiency undergoes below-knee amputation of the right leg. Which action should the nurse include in the postoperative care plan?
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Which type of fracture is one in which the skin or mucous membrane wound extends to the fractured bone?
Which type of fracture is one in which the skin or mucous membrane wound extends to the fractured bone?
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Which is a hallmark sign of compartment syndrome?
Which is a hallmark sign of compartment syndrome?
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Study Notes
MDC 1 Exam 2 Study Notes
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Question 1: A client's left leg is in skeletal traction. A nurse should teach the client how to prevent problems caused by immobility.
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Question 2: A nurse caring for a client with a fractured femur in traction should prioritize assessing the extremity for neurovascular integrity.
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Question 3: Orthopedic surgery to correct and align a fracture after surgical dissection and exposure is called open reduction.
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Question 4: Compartment syndrome requires a fasciotomy.
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Question 5: To provide comfort for a client in skeletal traction, changing the client's position within prescribed limits is the most appropriate action.
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Question 6: Open reduction is when a fracture is surgically exposed and realigned.
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Question 7: If the weights in skin traction are touching the floor, the nurse must intervene.
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Question 8: Buck's traction is a type of skin traction.
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Question 9: A client preparing for skeletal traction should indicate that metal pins will go through the skin to the bone.
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Question 10: Elevating the affected extremity and applying cold applications helps relieve pain after orthopedic surgery.
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Question 11: Total arthroplasty is the surgical procedure for replacing both articular surfaces of the hip.
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Question 12: A fractured clavicle is indicated by the right shoulder drooping downward and inward.
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Question 13: The skin over a fractured tibia cast may be covered with a yellowish crust that will shed after the cast is removed.
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Question 14: Closed reduction is when a physician manipulates a dislocated finger back into its correct position.
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Question 15: Cushioning rough edges of the cast with tape is a self-care activity for a client with a cast.
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Question 16: If a client with a long arm cast continues to complain of unrelieved throbbing pain, assess for complications.
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Question 17: A client with a right arm fracture will likely describe the pain as sharp and piercing.
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Question 18: Continuous passive motion (CPM) devices promote healing by increasing circulation and movement in the knee joint.
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Question 19: Encourage clients with musculoskeletal injuries to include vitamin D-fortified milk in their diets to aid calcium absorption.
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Question 20: A lateral curvature of the spine is indicative of scoliosis.
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Question 21: Before undergoing an arthrogram, ask clients about allergies.
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Question 22: A small-framed, thin 45-year-old white woman has the highest risk of osteoporosis.
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Question 23: Electromyography (EMG) is used to test for lower extremity muscle weakness.
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Question 24: Complications to prevent after hip surgery include skin breakdown and wound infection.
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Question 25: An impacted fracture is when one bone fragment is driven into another.
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Question 26: Electromyography (EMG) assesses muscle weakness or deterioration, which would potentially show signs of muscular dystrophy.
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Question 27: Elevating a leg can cause flexion contracture, so a pillow should not be used.
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Question 28: If a client says their leg is burning during cast application, explain that the sensation is normal.
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Question 29: Pulmonary embolism is a serious postoperative complication that must be closely monitored after total hip replacement surgery.
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Question 30: Pendulum exercises should begin as soon as the client tolerates them.
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Question 31: Risk of injury due to fractures is the most important nursing diagnosis for a client with osteoporosis.
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Question 32: To reassure a client during a cast removal procedure, tell the client that the cast cutter blade is new and the client will not be cut.
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Question 33: After the epiphyses close, bone thickness continues to increase while the bone length will stop increasing.
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Question 34: Paresthesia is abnormal sensations.
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Question 35: Clonus is a rhythmic muscle contraction.
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Question 36: Lordosis is an exaggeration of the lumbar spine curve.
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Question 37: Weight-bearing exercises strengthen bones.
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Question 38: Increased calf diameter may mean compartment syndrome.
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Question 39: Clients who have had arthrography should report joint crackling or clicking noises that occur after the second day.
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Question 40: Maintaining the client’s NPO status and applying warm packs to the insertion site should be included in the care plan.
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Question 41: Dusky or mottled skin color should be reported to the physician during neurovascular assessment.
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Question 42: Flaccidity is a finding that indicates the client's limpness and lack of tone in their limbs.
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Question 43: A nurse should educate clients with carpal tunnel syndrome that surgery isn’t always the only option for getting relief.
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Question 44: Intravenous antibiotics are anticipated for a client with acute osteomyelitis.
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Question 45: The recommended daily allowance of calcium is found in a variety of foods.
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Question 46: The nurse should call for assistance as the first step in dealing with an unresponsive client.
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Question 47: Weight-bearing exercises, such as walking, are important in preventing osteoporosis.
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Question 48: Neuromuscular checks are essential after foot surgery.
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Question 49: Broccoli should be suggested to a client at risk for osteoporosis.
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Question 50: The client will require intravenous antibiotics for a duration of 3–6 weeks after an open fracture.
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Question 51: Plantar fasciitis is characterized by heel pain that is worse with the first steps of the morning.
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Question 52: Teach clients to be aware of potential adverse effects like GI upset and bleeding when using NSAIDs.
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Question 53: A client needs surgical debridement if their wound from osteomyelitis does not improve.
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Question 54: Long bone bowing may be a clinical sign of Paget's disease.
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Question 55: Apply ice to a toe fracture.
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Question 56: The affected leg should be positioned abducted after hip surgery.
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Question 57: Following a below-knee amputation, the stump should be elevated for the first 24 hours.
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Question 58: A compound fracture involves the skin or mucous membrane being injured along with the fractured bone.
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Question 59: Pain is the hallmark sign of compartment syndrome, a critical condition requiring immediate intervention.
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Question 60: A fracture is documented as impacted when one bone fragment is driven into another.
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Question 61: Encourage participation in ADLs during rehab for extremity fractures.
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Question 62: Assess the client's vital signs and level of consciousness as the highest priority after a car accident and femur fracture.
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Question 63: Covering the arm wound with a dressing, immobilizing the limb and splinting are important in the management of the open fracture.
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Question 64: Hypovolemic shock is a concern with open hip fractures.
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Question 65: A greenstick fracture is categorized as Incomplete.
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Question 66: A client response about using a heating pad to reduce knee pain requires further education, as heat should generally be avoided.
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Question 67: Inform the client to remain very still during a CT scan.
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Question 68: Ulnar deviation is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.
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Question 69: Electromyography (EMG) measures muscle weakness.
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Question 70: A splint is a device used to support and immobilize a body part until swelling subsides.
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Question 71: The cast should not be covered with a blanket to keep it moist.
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Question 72: Assisting the client with early ambulation (walking) is a priority postoperatively after a knee or hip replacement.
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Question 73: Avoid flexing the hip when putting on clothing after hip replacement.
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Question 74: A splint instead of a cast for a wrist fracture might be used to ensure that swelling isn’t excessive at the site.
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Question 75: A client should begin assisted ambulation with a walker after 24 hours of hip replacement surgery.
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Question 76: The left leg internally rotates when the prosthesis is dislocated.
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Question 77: A bunion is a bony enlargement of the joint at the base of the big toe.
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Question 78: Decline in height after age 40 is associated with decrease in bone density, as is often seen after menopause due to decreases in estrogen.
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Question 79: Avoiding too much exposure to the sun and having a poor diet that’s high in fat and low in protein are risk factors for osteoporosis.
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Question 80: Surgical debridement is important in chronic osteomyelitis.
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Question 81: Perform neuromuscular checks every hour post-foot surgery.
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Question 82: The goal of treatment for metastatic bone cancer is to promote pain relief with quality of life.
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Question 83: A high-fat diet is not among factors for osteoporosis.
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Question 84: A primary cause of bone loss and osteoporosis is a decrease in estrogen.
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Question 85: Local malignancy (cancer) can inhibit fracture healing.
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Question 86: Pain and decreased function would indicate potential infection possibly requiring further evaluation.
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Question 87: Compartment syndrome is associated with injuries, casts, tight bandages and crushing injuries in the involved limb.
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Question 88: Bone graft uses include joint stabilization, defect filling, stimulating bone healing, improvement of motion and reducing fracture.
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Question 89: Pathologic fractures occur without trauma or falls due to underlying conditions.
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Question 90: Initial neurovascular checks for a dislocation monitor compartment syndrome.
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Question 91: For a client with a recent amputation, pain in the missing toes is from nerves; not the amputated toes.
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Question 92: Staff require education about the need for a continuous passive motion device for the client who hasn't been discharged yet.
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Question 93: Avoiding placing a plastic cover over a cast is important, as the cast prevents skin moisture on the area under the cast.
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Question 94: Discharge instructions may include information about crossing legs only at the ankles when seated, placement of pillows between legs when lying down, and avoiding bending forward in a chair.
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Question 95: Osteomyelitis, a serious bone infection, is usually not a concern immediately after major surgery.
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Question 96: If the nurse notices an indentation in the cast, notify the physician immediately to ensure proper care.
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Question 97: If a client is immunosuppressed, a nurse needs to be aware that they would have a compromised immune system.
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Question 98: A client with carpal tunnel syndrome may have pain that spreads down the forearm as well as tenderness to touch, decreased grasp strength, and difficulty flexing the middle and index fingers.
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Question 99: The nurse should instruct the client to place the item close to the body and use a wide base of support when lifting.
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Question 100: A supine position with the knees slightly flexed and head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is typically recommended, and it is a crucial part of client care.
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Question 101: The rationale for keeping the client to avoid prolonged sitting or walking.
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Question 102: Diminished range of motion, loss of flexibility, stiffness and height loss are associated with older-age changes to the joints.
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Question 103: A bulky dressing is required after arthroscopy and not removal is needed.
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Question 104: Instruction on instillation for eye drops includes pulling the skin below the eye toward the cheek bone to create a pouch and insert medication.
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Question 105: Treating chemical splashes to the eyes requires using plain tap water to flush the eyes for 15–20 minutes to avoid vision loss.
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Question 106: A client experiencing prolonged corticosteroid use has an increased risk for glaucoma.
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Question 107: A visual field examination measures peripheral vision and detects gaps in the visual field.
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Question 108: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is considered an ophthalmic emergency requiring immediate referral to a specialist.
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Question 109: Pulling the tissue toward the cheek is the key to correct instillation of eye medications.
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Question 110: A decrease in intraocular pressure (IOP) indicates that the treatment is working.
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Question 111: Loss of accommodation means the lens has lost elasticity therefore the lens can’t smoothly focus.
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Question 112: An increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) above 21 may indicate optic nerve damage.
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Question 113: Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) consists of symptoms including an elevated intraocular pressure and corneal edema, with pupil that is constricted.
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Question 114: The nurse should prepare the client for the ophthalmoscopy if asked by the health care provider.
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Question 115: A blurry vision when looking at distant objects but not blurry vision when looking at close up objects can be indicated as myopia.
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Question 116: Presbyopia results in the client having a gradual increase in the distance to hold reading materials to be able to read it.
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Question 117: The nurse should ensure that the client receives care to prevent visual loss and deterioration of the eye by performing various tests.
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Question 118: Hyperopia means that the client can see clearer up close than far away.
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Question 119: Elongated eyeballs cause myopia.
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Question 120: Questions concerning eye health and current medications would always be asked about.
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Question 121: Iridoplasty, a procedure to improve outflow drainage, is done to treat increased intraocular pressure (IOP) in glaucoma.
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Question 122: If the eye clinical sign for glaucoma is mentioned, it’s most likely describing halos around lights.
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Question 123: The auricle (external ear) is pulled upward and backward.
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Question 124: Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is an ophthalmic emergency.
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Question 125: The client should frequently use the eye drops as prescribed to control their glaucoma effectively.
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Question 126: Retinal Angiography will reveal abnormal coloring of the skin and urine.
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Question 127: The nurse applies pressure to the bridge of the nose nearest the inside of the eye’s lower and upper eyelids while also keeping the eye open.
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Question 128: Inform the client with decreased vision about what you will be doing so they are aware of the care.
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Question 129: The client's statements about needing eye care, to prevent further deterioration of vision, and to receive treatment options should be validated as a positive response.
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Question 130: Assessments for cataracts include a burning sensation or foreign body feeling, blurred or cloudy vision, inability to produce sufficient tears and swollen lacrimal caruncle.
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Question 131: A nurse should look for opacities in the lens when a patient mentions an increase. in eye glare and vision changes.
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Question 132: Possible complications of a fractured pelvis include compartment syndrome, fat embolism, infection, and Volkmann’s contracture needing immediate medical attention.
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Question 133: Elderly post-menopausal women have the greatest risk of primary osteoporosis.
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Question 134: Walking is an effective method of exercise prescribed for clients at risk of osteoporosis.
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Question 135: A complication of a bone fracture that causes fever and limited movement in the affected area is osteomyelitis. The fever and restlessness could potentially be sepsis or a secondary complication of the fracture.
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Question 136: Petechial hemorrhages on the skin of the chest need immediate notification of the physician.
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Question 137: The initial history of a client with a musculoskeletal problem includes the client's age, past medical history, lifestyle factors, and a description of the discomfort location and duration.
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Question 138: Interventions to positively support the client adjusting to the amputation include encouraging the client to care for the limb, expressing grief, and connecting with support groups.
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Question 139: A low toilet seat is needed to avoid hip flexion.
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Question 140: Fat embolism syndrome is a serious concern presenting with a combination of restlessness, irritability, confusion and personality changes after a fracture.
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Question 141: A change in circulation to the limb and cool skin are indicators of peripheral vascular dysfunction.
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Question 142: Rheumatoid arthritis causes soft nodules along tendons and ligaments.
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Question 143: Gently percuss over the median nerve while the client holds the palm of the hand upwards when testing for Tinel's sign.
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Question 144: Vertigo could be indicative of a problem in the inner ear.
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Question 145: Presbycusis describes progressive hearing loss associated with aging.
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Question 146: A spinning sensation is related to vertigo.
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Question 147: During stapedectomy discharge instructions, clients must be instructed not to blow their nose. It can dislodge the prosthesis.
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Question 148: Open-angle glaucoma is chronic, gradual loss of vision due to a slow decrease in eye fluid drainage.
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Question 149: To reduce the risk of secondary harm, when a client is prone to imbalance from vertigo, they should grasp the siderails while rising.
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