APK Day 2 Concept Integration PDF

CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 1. The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT: a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit. b. Considered to be specific i...

CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 1. The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT: a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit. b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit. c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from the spinal cord. d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions. e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures. 2. Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________ a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds. 3. This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component a. Isotonic b. Shunt c. Concentric d. Spurt e. Isometric 4. What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking? a. Isokinetic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric 5. Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid a. Vagus b. Abducens c. Spinal accessory d. Dorsal occipital e. Greater occipital 6. To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress 7. If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the muscle is graded as a. fair plus b. good plus c. fair minus d. good minus 8. Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the hand. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Dorsal d. Volar e. Anterolateral  CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 9. These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT a. forearm supination. b. wrist flexion. c. shoulder internal rotation. d. elbow extension 10. When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an inaccurate muscle grade? I. Hip external rotation and flexion II. Lateral flexion of the trunk III. Hip extension IV. Hip internal rotation a. III and IV b. I only c. II, III and IV d. I and II e. II only 11. Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. a. Ulnar b. Axillary c. Median d. Radial 12. A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? _______ standing balance. a. Fair static and dynamic b. Good static and dynamic c. Good static and fair dynamic d. Fair static and good dynamic 13. This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down. a. Zygomaticus Major b. Masseter c. Buccinator d. Temporalis e. Medial Pterygoid 14. Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint? a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint. 15. The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT a. there was inadequate fracture reduction. b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion. c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing. d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing pain. e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.  CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 16. Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane. a. Frontal b. Transfrontal c. Horizontal d. Sagittal e. Transverse 17. Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Horizontal 18. Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________. a. Spurling’s b. Lhermitte’s c. Laseque’s d. Lasegne’s 19. What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Prone b. Sidelying c. Supine d. Sitting 20. When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such contraction is: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Isometric d. Isotonic 21. The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT: a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T” type and usually include soft tissue damage e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane. 22. What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero? a. Sitting b. Prone c. Sidelying d. Supine  CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 23. What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot? a. Jone’s b. Nutcracker c. Jefferson’s d. Shepherd’s 24. Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT: ______________. a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture) c. Vitamin E deficiency d. Inadequate fracture manipulation 25. What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication? a. Trigeminal b. Vagus c. Facial d. Oculomotor 26. What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension? a. Eccentric b. Isotonic c. Isometric d. Isokinetic 27. Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint? I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint. a. II, III and IV b. I, II, and III c. I, II and V d. II, III and V 28. A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should: a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion 29. What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Trochoid b. Spheroid c. Ginglymus d. Syndesmosis e. Sellar  CONCEPT INTEGRATION APK DAY 2 30. The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT: a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist 31. A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate? a. Children b. Adults c. Elderly d. Infants e. Women 32. The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________. a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments. d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient’s leg 33. The infrahyoids are the I. Sternohyoid II. Sternothyroid III. Stylohyoid a. II and III b. I and III c. I, II and III d. I and II 34. When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an a. prime mover. b. co-ordinator. c. synergist. d. fixators. e. antagonist. 35. During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises? a. 3+ b. 4 c. 5 d. 3 36. What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair? a. Sidelying b. Supine c. Sitting d. Prone