AB-Psych-Quiz-Compilation PDF Quiz

QUIZ#1: Understanding Abnormal Psychology and History Part 1 1. Which bodily fluid is associated with cheerfulness and optimism according to the Humoral Theory of Disorders? a. Blood - heart b. Black bile - liver c. Yellow bile - spleen d. Phlegm - b...

QUIZ#1: Understanding Abnormal Psychology and History Part 1 1. Which bodily fluid is associated with cheerfulness and optimism according to the Humoral Theory of Disorders? a. Blood - heart b. Black bile - liver c. Yellow bile - spleen d. Phlegm - brain e. Saliva - mouth 2. What does an episodic course of a disorder entail? a. It lasts a short time b. It is likely to recover in a few months only to suffer re-occurrence. c. It will improve without treatment in a relatively short period. d. It lasts a long time e. It has little or no risk of recurrence 3. What aspect of psychiatrists’ work is enabled by their medical training? a. Performing acupuncture b. Conducting physical fitness training c. Prescribing medications d. Providing legal advice e. Offering financial planning services 4. What is the main difference between Psy.D. and Ph.D. programs? a. Psy.D. programs focus on non-clinical roles, while Ph.D. programs focus on clinical work. b. Psy.D. programs emphasize research, while Ph.D. programs focus on theoretical studies. c. Psy.D. programs integrate clinical and research training, while Ph.D. programs focus solely on clinical training. d. Psy.D. programs focus on clinical training with minimal research, while Ph.D. programs integrate both clinical and research training. e. There is no difference between the two programs. 5. What is the role of scientist-practitioners in the field of psychology? a. Conducting research only  b. Applying knowledge in practice only c. Keeping up with scientific developments and applying knowledge in practice. d. Evaluating others’ assessments and treatment procedures. e. Remaining uninformed and susceptible to fads. 6. What was one of the treatments for mental illness during the Middle Ages? a. Administering modern psychiatric medicine b. Providing occupational therapy c. Shaving a cross pattern on the victim’s head d. Conducting psychoanalysis sessions e. Conducting genetic testing 7. Who is considered the founder of modern psychiatry during the time of witchcraft in Europe? a. Paracelsus b. Johann Weyer c. Hippocrates d. Avicenna e. Galen 8. According to Hippocrates, what might cause psychological disorders? a. Cosmic alignment b. Consumption of certain foods c. Brain pathology or head trauma d. Evil Spirits e. Lack of sleep 9. What method did Manfred Sakel use in the 1930s for mental illness treatment? a. Hypnosis b. Herbal remedies c. Large doses of insulin d. Acupuncture e. Music therapy 10. What does distress or impairment indicate in the context of psychological disorders? a. Mild discomfort  b. No impact on daily functioning c. Extreme upset and inability to function properly d. Temporary emotional response e. Socially acceptable behavior QUIZ#2: History Parts 2 and 3 11. What was a key principle of Moral Therapy? a. Treating institutionalized patients as normally as possible b. Using hypnotic procedures c. Releasing emotional material through catharsis d. Blocking unpleasant emotions through repression 12. Which concept did Franz Anton Mesmer propose to explain psychological problems? a. Unconscious mind b. Animal magnetism c. Defense mechanism d. Catharsis 13. What did Freud and Breuer discover through their hypnotic procedure? a. Catharsis b. Defense mechanisms c. Id, Ego, and Superego d. Unconscious mind 14. Which defense mechanism involves unconsciously blocking unpleasant emotions or thoughts from awareness? a. Denial b. Repression c. Projection d. Displacement 15. Who developed the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)? a. Joseph Wolpe b. Hans Selye c. Thomas Szasz d. Carl Rogers  16. What term describes the response to the Unconditioned Stimulus? a. Conditioned Response b. Unconditioned Response c. Conditioned Stimulus d. Extinction 17. Who is considered the founder of behaviorism? a. B.F. Skinner b. Edward Titchener c. John B. Watson d. Edward Thorndike 18. What is the key difference between Classical and Operant Conditioning? a. Classical conditioning involves rewards and punishments, while operant conditioning involves neutral stimuli. b. Classical conditioning pairs neutral stimuli with responses, while operant conditioning involves consequences of behavior. c. Classical conditioning is about observational learning, while operant conditioning is about trial and error. d. There is no difference; they are the same. 19. What are autosomes? a. Sex chromosomes b. Mitochondrial DNA c. Chromosomes that do not determine sex d. RNA molecules 20. In the Diathesis-Stress Model, what is diathesis? a. A stressor b. A genetic tendency c. A life event d. An environmental factor QUIZ#3: Anxiety, Trauma, OCD, Somatic Symptom, Dissociative Disorders Parts 1 and 2 21. Which of the following is a biological contribution to anxiety? a. High levels of GABA  b. Low levels of serotonin c. High levels of cortisol d. Low levels of adrenaline 22. How did behaviorists view anxiety? a. As a result of physical illness b. As a product of learning c. As a consequence of genetic mutations d. As an avoidable part of life 23. Which disorder must be ruled out if fear or anxiety is exclusively related to specific agoraphobic situations? a. Major depressive disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Specific phobia d. Posttraumatic stress disorder 24. What is a common characteristic of the worry experienced by individuals with Separation Anxiety Disorder? a. Worry about academic performance b. Worry about losing major attachment figures c. Worry about physical appearance d. Worry about financial stability 25. What should be noted about the duration of Separation Anxiety Disorder? a. Symptoms last at least 1 week b. Symptoms last at least 1 month c. Symptoms last at least 6 months d. Symptoms are transient and resolve quickly 26. What is a key feature of Specific Phobia? a. Fear of academic failure b. Marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation c. Generalized anxiety about many situations d. Fear of social interactions 27. Aerophobia is the fear of:  a. Flying b. Heights c. Crowded spaces d. Public speaking 28. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for Selective Mutism? a. The disturbance interferes with educational or occupational achievement. b. The disturbance is not better explained by a communication disorder. c. The failure to speak is due to a lack of knowledge of the spoken language. d. The failure to speak is not attributable to comfort with the spoken language. 29. The disturbance in RAD must be evident before which age? a. Age 2 years b. Age 3 years c. Age 4 years d. Age 5 years 30. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder (DSED) primarily manifests in children through: a. Withdrawn behavior toward adults b. Overly familiar and indiscriminate behavior toward unfamiliar adults c. Avoidance of social situations d. Selective mutism