Mock CLAT 14 2024-25 LE PDF

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25 MOCK CLAT 14 TR ID. (In Figures) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 M...

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25 MOCK CLAT 14 TR ID. (In Figures) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) c o m Maximum Marks : 120 1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy. 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for rs writing the roll No. and other details on OMR response Sheet. has to be detached and taken by the candidates. k e 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for shading the circles. Indicate only the most n 2. In case of any discrepancy in the question appropriate answer by shading from the a booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for options provided. The answer circle should be r replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. shaded completely without leaving any space. Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet 12. As the8Tresponses cannot be modified/corrected p 7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L for a fresh booklet so obtained. on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have To 3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled carefully. 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to take necessary precautions before marking the appropriate circle. 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be produced at the time of Admission. sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do 5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold. strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in 6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the space provided on the OMR response shall result in the cancellation of his/her Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space examination. tr-5D8B4E2C4I8C7I provided on the OMR response Sheet. 7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the 8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet. Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 8T7R 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response tr-5L8P4S2Q4L multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination. 9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for. where candidates have marked more than one response.  CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER Subject Q. No. Page No. English Language 01-24 3 Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-53 9 Legal Reasoning 54-84 15 Logical Reasoning 85-108 24 Quantitative Techniques 109-120 31 c o m rs. k e r an p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L To 8C7I tr-5D8B4E2C4I 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 32  SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions. Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Like mediation, conciliation is a voluntary, flexible, confidential, and interest-based process. The parties seek to reach an amicable dispute settlement with the assistance of the conciliator, who acts as a neutral third party. The main difference between conciliation and mediation proceedings is that, at some point during the conciliation, the conciliator will be asked by the parties to provide them with a non-binding settlement proposal. A mediator, by contrast, will in most cases and as a matter of principle, refrain from making such a proposal. Conciliation is a voluntary proceeding, where the parties involved are free to agree and attempt to resolve their m dispute by conciliation. The process is flexible, allowing parties to define the time, structure and content of the o conciliation proceedings. These proceedings are rarely public. They are interest-based, as the conciliator will c when proposing a settlement, not only take into account the parties' legal positions, but also their; commercial, financial and / or personal interests. rs. The ultimate decision to agree on and enforce the settlement remains with the parties in conciliation.  Conciliation ensures party autonomy.The parties can choose the timing, language, place, structure and content of the conciliation proceedings. k e  Conciliation ensures the expertise of the decision maker.The parties are free to select their conciliator. A n conciliator does not have to have a specific professional background. The parties may base their selection on a criteria such as; experience, professional and / or personal expertise, availability, language and cultural skills. p r A conciliator should be impartial and independent.  Conciliation is time and cost efficient.Due to the informal tr-5L8P4S 2Q4L8T7R and flexible nature of conciliation proceedings, o they can be conducted in a time and cost-efficient manner.  Conciliation ensures confidentiality.The parties usually agree on confidentiality. Thus, disputes can be T settled discretely and business secrets will remain confidential. The conciliator will try to guide the parties to an amicable settlement. Also, the conciliator will be prepared to provide the parties with a non-binding resolution proposal. The parties are free to accept or to decline the proposal. If they accept the proposal, it will typically be written up as the settlement agreement. While the settlement agreement itself is not enforceable, it can become enforceable in Germany by having it notarized through establishment officers and/or in other countries by having it put into an arbitral award. [Source: https://www.dispute-resolution-hamburg.com/information/conciliation] 1. Which of these 4E2C is8Bnot tr-5D 4I8C7I supported by the passage? (a) Conciliation is a mandatory process for estranged couples. (b) Conciliation as a process is not too rigid, which makes it apt for parties with time constraints. (c) Conciliation is a process which keeps the information secret between the parties and the conciliator. (d) Conciliation ensures that there is autonomy for parties. 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L 2. Which of these will make the settlement agreement in Germany to be enforceable? (a) By putting it into an arbitral award. (b) By getting it notarized by the authorities. (c) By getting it notarized by the mediation members. (d) By getting it stamped and registered by the authorities. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 3 of 32 3. What is the style and tone of the passage? (a) Technical. (b) Acerbic. (c) Belligerent. (d) Grandiose. 4. What can be the suitable title for the passage? (a) Conciliation: Double-edged sword. (b) Mediation and Conciliation: Differences and Similarities. (c) Conciliation: Process, Benefits and Enforceability. (d) Conciliation: German Process. 5. The nature of the conciliation proceedings as mentioned in the passage is - (a) Private among the parties and the conciliator. (b) Public and outside visitors are allowed. (c) Private among the parties themselves. (d) Public with many witnesses and others present. c o m 6. (a) It will be binding on the parties. (b) It will be subject to parties’ agreement. rs. What is the applicability of the settlement pronounced by conciliator after conciliation proceedings are over? (c) It will be subject to the approval by the Court. (d) It will be subject to parties’ agreement in Court. k e an Passage (Q.7-Q.12): Proteins are molecules used by the body for structure and other functions such as r defence. They are formed of smaller molecules named as amino acids which each have their own role to play in p 4S2Q4L8T7R the body. There are 22 types of amino acid which we use in8Pthe tr-5L body. The body, being the clever thing it is, o can manufacture most of these but there are 8 which it can’t make. We have to get these 8 essential amino acids through nutrition. When we eat and digest proteins they are broken down into amino acids. These are T used to provide structure in the body and for biochemical reactions (e.g. enzymes), defence (e.g. antibodies) and transport. The structural and functional elements in our body are constantly being broken down due to wear and tear and so need to be replaced daily. Amino acids consumed in excess of the amounts needed for the synthesis of nitrogenous tissue constituents are not stored but are degraded; the nitrogen is excreted as urea, and the keto-acids left after removal of the amino groups are either utilized directly as sources of energy or are converted to carbohydrate or fat. Therefore, excess of protein should be avoided as it puts unnecessary strain on the excretory and digestive system of the body. Nine amino acids—histidine, 8C7I isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and tr-5D8B4E2C4I valine—are not synthesized by mammals and are therefore nutritionally essential or indispensable nutrients. These are commonly called the essential amino acids. There are 8 essential amino acids which the body absolutely needs to function properly. Protein sources which contain these are called complete proteins. Those which only contain some are called incomplete proteins. Luckily 8T7R for vegetarians and vegans, these incomplete proteins can be combined together to give the tr-5L8P4S2Q4L full complement of essential amino acids. Contrary to popular belief, plant-based or vegetarian diets (with dairy) can provide us with all the necessary nutrients to support muscle growth and strength. First, there is an abundance of protein-rich sources within the plant kingdom that can effectively fuel your body’s need for building and maintaining muscle mass. Amaranth or rajgira and buckwheat are two such examples. Legumes like lentils, chickpeas, soy, and black beans not only provide protein but also offer an array of fiber and essential nutrients. Milk products are also a good source of getting all essential amino acids. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 4 of 32  Additionally, nuts and seeds such as almonds, chia seeds, and hemp seeds offer not only protein but also healthy fats and minerals that support muscle development. Second, even when most plant-based proteins don’t have all the essential amino acids necessary for muscle synthesis, they can be combined to create a complete protein source that supports muscle growth and repair. [Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK234922/#:~:text=Nine%20amino%20acids%E2%80%94histidine%2 C%20isoleucine,called%20the%20essential%20amino%20acids.] 7. Which of these cannot be inferred from the passage? (a) There is a need for daily intake of proteins to repair the wear and tear of the body. (b) There can be a combination of different vegetarian sources to get all essential amino acids. (c) There can be an excess intake of protein by adults going for muscular build-up. o m (d) Dairy products must be consumed daily by vegetarians for getting rid of any nutritional deficiency. c 8.. Which of these are considered the vegetarian sources of all the eight essential amino acids as stated in the passage? rs e (a) Rajgira, Buckwheat and milk products. (b) Amaranth, meat and dairy products. (c) Amaranth, Buckwheat and fish products. (d) Rajgira, Buckwheat and sunflower seeds. an k 9. p (a) Because the human body can synthesize them. r What is the reason that certain amino acids are called as essential for daily intake for the human body? tr-5L8P4S2Q4L 8T7R o (b) Because they cannot be stored in the human body. (c) Because they are necessary for the circulation in the body. 10. T (d) Because the human body cannot synthesize them. What is the central theme conveyed through the passage? (a) Human body needs some essential amino acids that it cannot produce which can be obtained from some vegetarian and dairy sources. (b) There are some essential amino acids which cannot be synthesized by the human body. (c) The twenty-two amino acids that are responsible for structural and functional elements in our body is manufactured by the body. (d) There aretr-some 2C4I8C7I amino 5D8B4E acids which must be supplied through health supplements, as the body is unable to synthesize them. 11. Which of the following is an apt title for the passage? (a) Amino acids: Essential building blocks. (b) Essential 8T7RAmino acids: Sources and Myths. tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (c) Amino acids: Use in the Bodily processes. (d) Essential Amino Acids: Vainness of vegetarian sources. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 5 of 32 12. What is the description of proteins in relation to amino acids, as given in the passage? (a) The proteins containing all seven amino acids are called complete and those that do not are incomplete. (b) The proteins containing all twenty-two amino acids are called as complete and those that do not are incomplete. (c) The proteins containing eight specific amino acids are called as complete and those that do not are incomplete. (d) The proteins containing nine essential amino acids are called as complete and those that do not are incomplete. Passage (Q.13-Q.18): In some tough speak that raises hopes of a repeal of the oppressive sedition law, CJI NV Ramana asked why the colonial era provision used to suppress the freedom movement was necessary nearly 75 m years after Independence. After petitions by two journalists who tasted first hand its chilling effect, this time a o decorated soldier, retired Major General SG Vombatkere, has challenged the constitutionality of IPC 124A, c which defines sedition. GoI also appeared to agree with the CJI’s concerns of misuse and Attorney-General KK Venugopal suggested laying down fresh guidelines to restrict the use of sedition. rs. The problem with new guardrails is that the ones already erected by the Kedar Nath Singh judgment six decades k e ago, have had no effect. By now those guidelines should be fairly well-known to police and judicial officers, yet continue to be wantonly flouted. Kedar Nath had narrowed the applicability of sedition to actions inciting n violence that endanger public order and security of the state. Yet it is ordinary dissenters criticising governments a or public servants or those taking part in protests who get regularly booked under the “deshdroh” charge. State r governments are the biggest misusers of sedition provisions. So, it is not clear whether they will follow any new p 8T7R guideline. tr-5L8P4S2Q4L o It’s heartening, in this context, to see frequent judicial pushbacks against wrongful invocation of sedition and T UAPA against dissenters and critics. It’s not just SC, but lower courts have also of late stood up firmly for liberty and against state overreach. Bail for Disha Ravi in a sedition case from a sessions court, Delhi HC’s bail for three anti-CAA activists in a UAPA case, some lower courts’ trenchant observations on police handling of Delhi riot cases, SC’s release of comedian Munawar Faruqui, are some examples. Jesuit priest Stan Swamy’s tragic and wholly avoidable death in judicial custody has also given force to discourse on individual liberties. In this propitious judicial moment, it is possible to hope that our judges will go from sharp critiques of bad laws to striking them down. Sometimes courts have taken too long to do the right thing. The sedition law deserves a quickly administered death sentence. Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/blogs/toi-editorials/good-judicial-moment-courts-at-all-levels-are- tr-5D8B4E2C4I 8C7I pushing-back-against-bad-laws-sc-should-go-a-step-ahead-repeal-laws-like-sedition/?source=app&frmapp=yes 13. According to the passage which of the following is a problem associated with laying down of stricter guidelines for use of sedition law? (a) The guidelines 8T7R which are already laid down are sufficient. tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (b) It will lead to increase in seditious activities in the country. (c) The police and other officials do not follow the guidelines already laid down. (d) None of the above. 14. According to the passage, who gets booked the most under the ‘deshdroh’ charges? (a) Dissenters of government (b) Dissenters of public servant (c) Protestors (d) All of the above. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 6 of 32 15. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? (a) Attorney-General Arvind Datar suggested laying down fresh guidelines to restrict the use of sedition. (b) State governments are the biggest misusers of sedition provisions. (c) Major General SG Vombatkere, has challenged the constitutionality of IPC 124A, which defines sedition. (d) None of the above. 16. Which of the following means the same as ‘wantonly’ as it is used in the passage? (a) superciliously (b) caricature (c) unprovoked (d) eclectic 17. Which of the following cannot be used for replacing the word ‘propitious’ as it is used in the passage? (a) fitting (b) egregious (c) advantageous (d) favourable m 18. What can be inferred from the underlined sentence from the passage? The sedition law deserves a quickly administered death sentence. (a) There should be punishment of death for any sedition related crime. (b) There should be specific addition of death sentence in the sedition law..c o rs (c) There should be recommendation of death to be awarded to seditious persons. (d) The sedition law in India needs to be repealed or done away with. k e Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Galo Rodriguez uses his machete to dig a hole near the small stream on his farm in the north-east of Ecuador, on the cusp of the Amazon rainforest. As he digs there is nothing unusual to be seen - but n when he hits 32cm below the surface, the soil releases a distinct and pungent smell of gasoline. More than half a of his 35 hectares of land is primary forest, while the rest is sugar cane or small trees. But where he digs is devoid r of trees or crops. It is covered only by grass. This area used to be smothered in oil after a nearby pipeline leaked. p 7R tr- 5L8P4S2Q4L8T The oil filled his stream, killed of all of his fish and contaminated the only fresh water source he used for his o cattle. The oil sat here for 10 years before the company responsible for the pipeline came to clean it up, in 2016. Rodrigo says he watched as they collected some 12-15,000 cubic metres of oil off his property, but they didn't T remediate the soil. Today, in the stream just beside him, blue and green streaks of oil residue can still be seen in the water. "For 10 or 11 years, this area didn't produce anything, so we abandoned it," says the farmer. "Now we plan to plant guavas and Chaya." Rodriguez is one of dozens of farmers in the north of Ecuador learning how to use plants to try to eliminate the oil contamination from his land. This process, known as bioremediation, uses living organisms like plants, fungi and microbes to break down pollutants, including crude oil. There are several ways this could happen, but most of the hard work to break down crude oil happens below ground, where microorganisms are concentrated around the roots of plants and mineralise, or decompose, the crude components, making it easier tr-5Dfor 2C4I8C7I 8B4Eplants to take up. Some contaminants can be taken in by the plant directly and stored in its shoots and roots, or can be evaporated through the leaves. The course Rodriguez attends is called "Guardians of the Soil", which is an introduction to permaculture-based bioremediation for low-income communities, founded by local resident and independent researcher, Lexie Gropper. Ecuador's 8T northern 7R Amazon rainforest has seen heavy oil contamination since rich oil fields were discovered tr-5L8P4S2Q4L here in the 1960s. One source of contamination was by the oil company Texaco - later acquired by Chevron – which dumped billions of gallons of oil waste in the Amazon rainforest, most of which went into unlined, open- air pits in the ground. In 1993, thousands of community members filed a lawsuit against the company, saying it did not perform any adequate clean up and its drilling installations continued to contaminate the area, and demanded they pay for remediation. The oil company admitted to releasing the waste, but said it cleaned up its share of the contamination and was legally cleared of all future liabilities. Most recently, a court in the Hague Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 7 of 32  found in favour of Chevron. This has turned into one of the most complex and longest-running environmental legal battles in history. 19. According to the passage, what is bioremediation? (a) The process of revitalising the water bodies by using chemicals and machines. (b) The process of cleaning the ocean in order to get rid of plastics contaminating The river. (c) The process of contaminating the soil using living organisms like plants, fungi and microbes. (d) The process of using living organisms like plants, fungi and microbes in order to break down pollutants, including crude oil, in the soil. 20. Who founded 'Guardians of the Soil'? (a) Lexie Gropper, a local resident and an independent researcher. (b) Galo Rodriguez, a farmer. (c) Dian Fossey, a research student at Brown University (d) Milton Friedman, a local resident and an independent researcher c o m 21. rs Where are micro-organisms present in order to facilitate the breaking down of crude oil?. e (a) Around the roots of the plants. (b) In the leaves of the plants. (c) In the stem of the plants. (d) In the fruit of the plants. 22. n k What did the community members claim while filing a lawsuit against Chevron in 1993? a (a) The company did not perform any effective clean up activity and continued to contaminate the area by its drilling installations. p r (b) The company displaced thousands of community memberstr-5L8P4S 2Q4L8T7R from their ancestral lands in order to carry out o its operations. (c) The company was depleting the water table of the area, rapidly. 23. T (d) The company was releasing untreated industrial waste into the local water bodies. Which of the following is/are TRUE according to the passage? i. Due to the pipeline leak, oil filled up the near-by stream, thereby killing all of Rodriguez's fishes. ii. Ecuador's northern Amazon rainforest has seen heavy oil contamination since rich oil fields were discovered here in the 1960s.. iii. Rodriguez' farm did not produce anything for 25-26 years after the pipeline leakage. (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (ii) and (iii) 8C7I tr-5D8B4E2C4I 24. Which is similar in meaning to the word ‘pungent’, as mentioned in the passage? (a) Putrid (b) Strong (c) Mild (d) Stimulating 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 8 of 32  SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Directions (Q.25-Q.53): Read the information carefully and answer the questions. Passage: (Q.25-Q.30) First Vaccine for Chikungunya The United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) on November 9 approved the world's inaugural vaccine targeting chikungunya, a virus transmitted by infected mosquitoes, as per an APF report. The move comes as the US drug regulator identified chikungunya as "an emerging global health threat", it added. Developed by Europe's Valneva, the vaccine will be marketed as [X]. The company has secured approval for individuals aged 18 and above, an age group that faces elevated risk of exposure, according to the FDA. [X], administered in a single dose, contains a live, weakened version of the chikungunya virus, following the m standard approach for vaccines. Two clinical trials conducted in North America on 3,500 participants revealed o common side effects such as headache, fatigue, muscle and joint pain, fever, and nausea. Serious reactions were reported in 1.6 percent of recipients, with two cases requiring hospitalization. c rs. Valneva has also submitted an application for authorization with the European Medicines Agency (EMA). The US FDA greenlight is anticipated to expedite the vaccine's deployment, particularly in countries where the e chikungunya virus is prevalent. k Ref- https://www.livemint.com/science/health/us-approves-first-chikungunya-vaccine-amid-growing-global- health-concerns-11699591959450.html 25. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? (a) Ixchiq (b) SPIKEVAX r an (c) Sanofitr-5L8P4S2Q4L8T(d) 7R Pfizer 26. o p Who out of the following is the current director of the FDA’s Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research? 27. (a) Dr. Vladimir Serbsky (c) Dr. Ivan Sechenov T (b) Dr. Peter Marks (d) Dr. Elena Zorina Where is the Headquarters of Serum institute of India located? (a) Hyderabad (b) New Delhi (c) Pune (d) Chennai 28. Which out of the following is the administration method for Ixchiq vaccine? (a) Oral ingestion (b) Intravenous infusion 4E 2C 4I8C7I (c) Muscle injection tr-5D 8B (d) Subcutaneous injection 29. Consider the following statements: I. The US Food and Drug Administration has given the green light to Ixchiq, marking the first-ever approved vaccine for chikungunya. II. This vaccine tr-5L8P4S2Q4L 8T7R is intended for individuals aged 18 and older who face an elevated risk of exposure to the chikungunya virus. (a) Both I & II are correct. (b) Only I is correct. (c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are incorrect. 30. Who out of the following was the first president of USA? (a) Thomas Jefferson (b) George Washington (c) Martin Van Buren (d) John Tyler Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 9 of 32  Passage (Q.31-Q.36): International Space Station (ISS) The International Space Station (ISS) is the largest human-made object in space. Operated with the support of Coalition for Deep Space Exploration (CDSE) member Boeing, the ISS is an orbiting facility that enables human health research needed for deep space exploration that cannot be simulated in terrestrial environments. This includes cognitive and behavioural conditions, sensorimotor alterations, altered immune response, bone fracture, reduced muscle mass and strength, and more. The Space Station is also a platform for many of the technology demonstrations required for human missions to the Moon and beyond. Technologies that are being tested on the ISS include Environmental Control and Life Support Systems, water and microbial monitoring, robotic assistants, and advanced solar arrays. NASA has also announced it is preparing to build and certify Moon mission spacesuits and perform a demonstration in a m spaceflight environment on the International Space Station in 2023. c o The ISS has fostered the development of private sector technologies that will ultimately help with sustainable. missions to the Moon and Mars. An example of this is in-space additive manufacturing (3D printing). CDSE rs member Made In Space (now part of Redwire) is a pioneer of 3D printing aboard the ISS. Ref- https://exploredeepspace.com/deep-space-mission/international-space-station/ 31. “Roscosmos” is the Government agency of which of the following country? k e 32. (a) China (b) United Kingdom (c) Russia r an (d) France The Boeing Company is an American multinational corporation that 8T designs, manufactures, and sells airplanes, p 7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L rotorcraft, rockets, satellites, telecommunications equipment, and missiles worldwide. Where is the headquarters 33. of Boeing located? (a) Florida To (b) Alaska Consider the following statements: (c) Texas (d) Virginia I. NASA stands for National Aeronautics and Space Administration. NASA is a U.S. government agency that is responsible for science and technology related to air and space. The Space Age started in 1957 with the launch of the Soviet satellite Sputnik. II. NASA opened for business on October 1, 1958. The agency was created to oversee U.S. space exploration and aeronautics research. (a) Both I & tr- II5D are correct. 8B4E 2C4I8C7I (b) Only I is correct. (c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are incorrect. 34. Who out of the following was the first Indian to go to into space? (a) Kalpana Chawla (b) Rakesh Sharma (c)8PSunita Williams 4S2Q4L8T7R (d) Sirisha Bandla tr-5L 35. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of India. Who was the founder of ISRO? (a) C. V. Raman (b) Homi J Bhabha (c) Vikram Sarabhai (d) Satyendra Nath Bose Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 10 of 32 36. What out of the following technologies are being tested on the ISS for human missions to the Moon and beyond? (a) Advanced telescopes (b) Enhancing the Roscosmos mission (c) Environmental Control and Life Support Systems (d) Enhancing Agricultural technologies Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Bihar Reservation Law The Supreme Court refused to restrain the Bihar government from making further decisions based on the data of the caste-based survey, the results of which were revealed in October last year. The top court, however, questioned the extent of the breakup of data which exists in the public domain. A bench comprising [X] and Dipankar Dutta was hearing a batch of petitions against the Patna High Court's m decision to dismiss pleas challenging the state overnment conducting the caste-based survey. o The petitioners sought interim direction from the court and said the matter requires an urgent hearing as the Bihar c state legislature passed a bill to increase the reservations for government jobs and educational institutions to 75 per cent. rs. However, [X] rejected the request and instead raised questions about the public accessibility of the break-up of the survey findings. k e As per the caste-based survey conducted by the Bihar government, the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) comprise 63 per cent of the state's 13-crore population. Meanwhile, Scheduled Castes account for over 19 per cent of the cent of Bihar's population. r n state's population, while Scheduled Tribes make up 1.68 per cent. The upper castes, or 'savarnas', form 15.52 per a Ref- https://www.indiatoday.in/law/story/supreme-court-no-stop-bihar-government-making-decisions-based- p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L caste-survey-2483305-2024-01-02 37. T (a) Justices Sanjeev Khanna (c) Justices Uday lalit o What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? (b) Justices DY chandrachud (d) Justices N. V. Ramana 38. How much expenditure was challenged in the petitions against the caste survey in Bihar? (a) Over Rs 1,000 crore (b) Over Rs 500 crore (c) Under Rs 100 crore (d) Under Rstr-50 crore 5D8B4E2C4I8C 7I 39. When did Patna High Court was established? (a) 1907 (b) 1913 (c) 1916 (d) 1934 40. Who out of8Tthe 7R following was the first chief minister of Bihar? tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (a) Harihar Singh (b) Bhola Paswan Shastri (c) B. P. Mandal (d) Shri Krishna Sinha Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 11 of 32 41. Consider the following statements: I. The Nitish Kumar-led Bihar government has introduced 75 per cent reservation in government jobs and educational institutions, including 10 per cent reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). II. The increase in reservations by the Bihar government reignites the conversation surrounding the ‘50 per cent ceiling’ on reservations set by the Supreme Court (SC). (a) Both I & II are correct. (b) Only I is correct. (c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are incorrect. 42. Which out of the following states has undergone maximum number of President Rule from 1951 to 2019? (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Manipur (c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh m Passage (Q.43-Q.48): Project Arth Ganga o Arth Ganga is an initiative added recently to the Namami Ganga Program launched by the Government in [X]. c It was decided in the meeting of National Ganga Council (NGC) held on 14th December 2019 to launch a new rs. concept as the name Arth Ganga, which is a sustainable and viable economic development model to strengthen the river-people connect through an economic bridge. Accordingly, it was decided that the Namami Gange mission should lead the concept of Arth Ganga with the involvement of different ministries/departments and k e other stakeholders, institution & community organization. So it was added as a vertical of Namami Ganga Program, in addition to the 4 verticals – Nirmal Ganga, Aviral Ganga, Jan Ganga and Gyan Ganga, existing till then. r an Six pillars of Arth-Ganga identified are: Promotion of Natural Framing8Ton 5 kms band either side of River Ganga; p 7R 5L8P4S2Q4L Monetisation and reuse of Treated water and sludge fromtr-the STPs; Improvement of Livelihood opportunities, o particularly for women; Promotion of Tourism and Cultural heritage; People’s Participation and Building of T capacities and institutions. Implementation of these initiatives is aimed to develop sustainable development model with focus on economic activities related to river Ganga. Several activities under Arth Ganga have been taken up by National Mission for Clean Ganga in coordination with various ministries/departments and other stakeholders, to achieve the goal. Ref- https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1984940 43. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? (a) 2017 (b) 2016 (c) 2014 (d) 2018 8C7I tr-5D8B4E2C4I 44. Consider the following statements: I. PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where he urged for a shift from Namami Gange, the Union Government’s flagship project to clean the Ganga, to the model of Arth Ganga. II. 8PUnder Arth 8T 7R Ganga, the government is working on six verticals. The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, tr-5L 4S2Q4L which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertiliser through the GOBARdhan scheme. (a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct. (c) Both I & II are incorrect. (d) Both I & II are correct. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 12 of 32 45. Who is the current Director General of the National Mission for Clean Ganga? (a) Asok Kumar (b) Ajay Kumar (c) Vinay Kumar (d) Rajeev Kumar 46. A court in the northern Indian state of _______ ordered on that the Ganges and its main tributary, the Yamuna, be accorded the status of living human entities. (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan 47. Which out of the following is NOT one of the six verticals under the Arth Ganga model? (a) Zero Budget Natural Farming (b) Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater (c) Promotion of Yoga and Meditation m (d) Livelihood Generation Opportunities 48. c o The second vertical under Arth Ganga focuses on the Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater. What is its objective?. rs (a) Revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (b) Construction of dams (c) Promotion of water pollution (d) Urbanization of riverbanks k e Passage (Q.49-Q.53): Postal Office Bill 2023 r an After being passed in the Rajya Sabha on December 4, the Post Office8TBill, 2023, was brought to the Lok Sabha p 7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L for consideration on Wednesday (December 13). Seeking to repeal the 125-year-old [X], the Bill contains To provisions that allow the Centre to intercept, open, or detain any item, and deliver it to customs authorities. The Bill aims to “consolidate and amend the law relating to Post Office in India,” which today provides many services beyond simply mail delivery, the primary concern of the [X]. The Post Office network today has become a vehicle for delivery of different citizen-centric services, which necessitated the repeal enactment of a new law, the Bill states. Notably, Section 9 of the Bill allows the Centre to, by notification, empower any officer to “intercept, open or detain any item” in the interest of state security, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, emergency, public safety, or contravention of other laws. This provision also allows post officers to hand over postal items to customs authorities if 8C tr-5D8B4E2C4I they 7I are suspected to contain any prohibited item, or if such items are liable to duty. Ref- https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/post-office-bill-shashi-tharoor-9070808/ 49. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage? (a) Indian Post Office Act of 1898 (b) Indian Postal Act 1892 (c)8PIndian Post 4S2Q4L8T7R Office Act of 1902 (d) Indian Postal Act 1894 tr-5L 50. What authority does the officer of the Post Office gain in case of suspicion of duty evasion or prohibited items? (a) Authority to dispose of the item (b) Authority to deliver the item to customs or concerned authority (c) Authority to return the item to the sender (d) Authority to auction the item Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 13 of 32 51. What condition must be met for an officer of the Post Office to incur liability regarding a service provided? (a) Any loss, misdelivery, delay, or damage occurred (b) Acting fraudulently or wilfully causing loss, delay, or misdelivery (c) The item was not delivered on time (d) The sender files a complaint 52. Which of the following union ministry is responsible for postal service in India? (a) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (b) Ministry of External Affairs (c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (d) Ministry of Communications 53. o m Who out of the following is the current Secretary, Department of Posts & Chairperson, postal Services Board in India? c (a) Vineet Pandey (c) Arun kumar singh (b) Sanjeev Mishra (d) Uday pratap singh rs. k e r an p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L To 8C7I tr-5D8B4E2C4I 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 14 of 32  SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING Directions (Q.54-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions. Passage (Q.54-Q.60): Section 149 of Chapter XI of the Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule No. 3 of Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014, requires the following class of companies to appoint at least One Women Director: i) Every listed company ii) Every other public company having:- a) paid up share capital of one hundred crore rupees or more; or b) turnover of three hundred crore rupees or more: However, a company, which has been incorporated under the Act and is covered under provisions of second proviso to sub- section (1) of section 149 shall comply with such provisions within a period of six months from the date of its incorporation. Furthermore, any intermittent vacancy of a woman director shall be filled up by the Board at the earliest but not later than immediate next Board meeting or three months from the date of such vacancy incorporated under this Act or any previous Company Law. c o m whichever is later.According to Section 2 (20) of the Company Act 2013 "Company means a company rs. Section 152 states: Every Director of the Company is to be appointed by the company in general meeting, unless otherwise mentioned in the Act. Further every director who is proposed to be appointed as such shall furnish his Director Identification Number issued by central government, declaration that he is not disqualified to become filed with the registrar within thirty days of appointment. k e a director under this Act and consent to hold the office as director. Nonetheless, this consent is required to be an Regulation 17(1) of the Securities and Exchange Board of India [SEBI] (Listing Obligation Disclosure r Requirements), Regulations 2015, requires that the composition of board of directors of the listed entity shall have an optimum combination of executive (involved intr-5L regular 8P4S2Q4Ldealings of companies) and non-executive p 8T7R directors (in contrast with executive directors) with at least one woman director and not less than fifty per cent o of the board of directors shall comprise of non-executive directors. T Section 165 states: A person shall not hold office as a director, including any alternate directorship, in more than twenty companies at the same time. (For reckoning the limit of directorships of twenty companies, the directorship in a dormant company shall not be included) However, the maximum no. of public companies in which a person can be appointed as a director shall not exceed ten. [Source: https://www.independentdirectorsdatabank.in/pdf/partners/icai/Handbook_on_Role_of_Women_Directors.pdf] 54. Maitreyi is a woman who 8C7I holds the office of director in nineteen companies of which eleven are public tr-5D8B4E2C4I companies. She carries on the work of the director efficiently and with impeccable integrity. A regulatory authority object to her appointment as Director in accordance with the law. She states that some of the positions are alternate directorships and therefore not liable to be counted. Is the objection of the regulatory authority valid in light of the passage? (a) Yes, because there can be directorship of any person in only up to ten public companies under section 165. 4S2Q4L8T7R 5L8PNo, tr-(b) because alternate directorships are not liable to be counted under section 165 of the Act of 2013. (c) Yes, because there can be no woman appointed as director in a public company in accordance with section 149. (d) No, because ‘there is no exceeding of twenty companies which is mentioned as threshold under section 165. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 15 of 32 55. What is the time period within which the intermittent vacancy for a woman director must be filled according to the passage? (a) It must be filled by the immediate next Board meeting. (b) It must be filled within three months of the vacancy. (c) It must be filled in the next Board meeting to be convened within three months with no choice given for stringency. (d) It must be filled by the longer time period chosen between the next Board meeting or three months of the vacancy. 56. Which of these will not have to compulsorily appoint a woman director in light of the passage? (a) Listed Company. (b) Public Company with paid up share capital of hundred crore rupees or more. (c) Public Company with paid up share capital of three hundred crore dollars or more. (d) Public Company with paid up share capital of three hundred crore rupees or more. c o m 57. rs. Which of these is not a requisite which must be performed by a director for being appointed in a company under section 152? e (a) They must furnish a director identification number issued by the state government. k (b) They must give declaration that there is no disqualification from being appointed as a director. (c) They must give consent to be appointed as director under the requisite laws. 58. r n (d) They must file this consent with the office of the registrar within thirty days of appointment. a Which of these is excluded in the type of companies in which directorship 8T7R is counted according to section 165? p tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (a) Private Companies. 59. (b) Public Companies. (c) Subsidiary Companies. (d) Dormant Companies. To Which of these laws does not deal with directors in companies in accordance with the passage? (a) Company Law 2013. (b) Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014. (c) SEBI (Listing Obligation Disclosure Requirements), Regulations 2015. (d) SEBI (Depositories and Participants Requirements), Regulations 2015. 5D 8B4E2C4I8C7I 60. What are the tr- types of directors which deal with the day to day dealings of the company in accordance with the passage? (a) Executive Directors. (b) Women Directors. (c) Independent Directors. tr-(d) 4S2Q4L8T7R 5L8PNon-executive Directors. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 16 of 32  Passage (Q.61-Q.67): As per information received from Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs, the Model Building Bye Laws, 2016, has been issued for guidance of the States/UTs which has a chapter on ‘Rainwater Harvesting’. 33 States/UTs have adopted the rainwater harvesting provisions despite the law having only advisory value. The provisions of this chapter are applicable to all the buildings once adopted. The implementation of the rainwater harvesting policy in urban settings comes within the purview of the State Government/Urban Local Body / Urban Development Authority. As per Model Building Bye Laws- 2016, provision of rainwater harvesting is applicable to all residential plots above hundred sq.m. In order to regulate the Over-exploitation and consequent depletion of ground water, the Ministry has circulated a Model Bill to all the States/UTs to enable them to enact suitable ground water legislation for regulation of its development, which includes provision of rain water harvesting. So far, 15 States/UTs have adopted and implemented the ground m water legislation on the lines of Model Bill. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under Section 3(3) of the ‘Environment (Protection) Act, 1986’ for the purpose of regulation and control of c o ground water development and management in the Country. CGWA is regulating ground water withdrawal by. industries / infrastructure/ mining projects in the country for which guidelines/ criteria have been framed which rs includes rainwater harvesting as one of the provisions while issuing No Objection Certificate. Water being a State subject for legislative purposes in the Indian Constitution, initiatives on water management including k e conservation and water harvesting in the Country is primarily States’ responsibility. In order to supplement the efforts of the State Governments, Central Government provides technical and financial assistance to them r n through various schemes and programmes, not legislative support. a A Panchayat-level scheme, at the rural level, is working for the ground water replenishment at the state level in p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L the following states: Haryana, Gujarat, Karnataka, MP, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and UP. This scheme works with 61. o emphasis on demand side management and behavioural change for ensuring the long-term sustainability of T ground water in the country. [Source: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=199884] In which of the states will the Model Building Bye Laws, 2016 will be compulsorily applicable? (a) Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, MP, Rajasthan and UP. (b) Maharashtra and Karnataka compulsorily. (c) Rajasthan and Gujarat compulsorily. (d) It does not have legally binding value on states. 8C7I tr-5D8B4E2C4I 62. Which will be needed compulsorily for any industry or infrastructure project to begin a new project in light of the passage? (a) No-Objection certificate from Central Ground Water Authority. (b) No-Objection certificate from Central Government. (c) No-Objection Certificate from State Ground Water Authority. 4S2Q4L8T7R 5L8PNo-Objection tr-(d) Certificate from Central Rain Water Authority. 63. What is the function of the Central Ground Water Authority according to the passage? (a) Regulation and control of ground water development and management. (b) Regulation and licensing of ground water use and management. (c) Regulation and management of rain water development and management. (d) Regulation and management of ground water development in union territories. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 17 of 32 64. Which of these are methods through which groundwater harvesting will be done in selected Panchayats of the eight states mentioned in the passage? (a) Methods targeting water demand and behavior to ensure lasting groundwater supplies. (b) Total restriction on the water supply of the high-consumption places where there is wastage observed. (c) Making water conservation to be the norm through group mimicking habits. (d) Penalising the overuse of conserved rain water through monetary fines etc. 65. Can the Parliament and central government make any binding law for the conservation of rain and groundwater under the Constitution? (a) Yes, there can be such law made under Schedule Seven. (b) No, there cannot be such a law made as water is a state legislative subject. (c) Yes, there can be such a law made as water is a central legislative subject. (d) No, there cannot be any such law made as a natural resource cannot be legally managed. c o m 66. rs. Which will be the implementing authority of any rainwater harvesting policy and legal measure in a city in India? (a) Central Government. (b) Central Ground Water Authority. 67. (c) Panchayats. (d) Urban Local body. k e What is the size of the property on which rainwater harvesting is compulsory if the Model Law is adopted by a state as per the passage? (a) All residential plots above hundred sq.m. (b) All commercial plots above hundred sq.m. r an p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (c) All semi-owned plots above hundred sq.m. To (d) All business building plots above hundred sq.m. Passage (Q.68-Q.71): A five-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously ruled against legalising same sex marriage in India. The bench also ruled in a 3:2 verdict against civil unions for non-heterosexual couples. In his opinion, the CJI has left it to the Parliament to decide on the issue. The CJI and Justice Kaul batted for civil unions for non-heterosexual couples. The CJI added that the SC cannot strike down the provisions of the Special Marriage Act (SMA) or read words differently. The focus of the petitions filed is the gender-neutral interpretation of the SMA. It is a secular legislation designed to facilitate inter-caste and inter-faith marriages. The petitioners have tr-5D 2C4I8C7I a broader interpretation of the SMA to include same-sex marriages too. 8B4Esought There are four judgements, one each by CJI DY Chandrachud, Justice Kaul, Justice Bhat and Justice Narasimha. The CJI, in his opinion, does not accept the Centre’s stand that the issue of same sex marriage can only be dealt with the Parliament and not by the SC. He says, “The doctrine of separation of powers cannot stand in the way of enforcement of fundamental rights…” 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L Over the years, some verdicts have helped alter the legal landscape of LGBTQ rights. These include the 2018 'NavtejJohar' ruling, which essentially said that the LGBTQ community are equal citizens and underlined that there cannot be discrimination in law based on sexual orientation and gender. [Extracted with revisions from https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/sc-verdict-on-same- sex-marriages-explained-live-8986361/ ] Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 18 of 32 68. Santa and Banta are lawyer who argued before the court in the proceedings of the same-sex marriage decision. Santa is a biological male and Banta is a biological female. They want to get married in a court marriage since they belong to different religions, so they can only get married under the SMA. How does the Supreme Court verdict impact the rights of Santa and Banta to get married under the existing legal provisions? (a) The verdict doesn’t impact the rights of non-heterosexual individuals as they are protected by separate anti- discrimination laws in the country. (b) The verdict might significantly affect the rights of non-heterosexual individuals, potentially limiting their access to legal recognition and benefits. (c) Despite the verdict, the rights of heterosexual individuals remain unchanged, as the ruling only pertains to marriage and civil unions of same sex individuals. (d) The verdict enhances the rights of non-heterosexual individuals by emphasizing the need for separate legislation catering specifically to their needs. 69. o m Priya and Riya, two individuals of the same gender, have been in a committed relationship for the past ten years. c. They want to formalize their relationship through marriage. They live in a state where the Special Marriage Act rs (SMA) is applicable and have applied for a marriage license under this Act. Are Priya and Riya's marriage plans valid? recent Supreme Court ruling, supporting a broader interpretation of the Act. k e (a) Priya and Riya's marriage plans are valid because the SMA now allows same-sex marriages based on the (b) Priya and Riya's marriage plans are invalid because the SMA explicitly prohibits same-sex marriages, r n irrespective of the recent Supreme Court ruling. a (c) Priya and Riya's marriage plans are valid because the SMA permits same-sex marriages but only under specific conditions outlined in the recent Supreme Court judgment. p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (d) Priya and Riya's marriage plans are invalid because the SMA remains unchanged and does not address same- 70. o sex marriages despite the recent Supreme Court ruling, which does not make same-sec marriage legal T Sanjay and Aryan, a same-sex couple, sought legal recognition for their relationship in India. They have been together in a live-in relationship for several years and enjoyed several civil rights when they stayed abroad. After coming back to India, they faced difficulty in enforcing certain civil rights. In light of the recent Supreme Court ruling against legalizing same-sex marriage and civil unions, what legal challenges might Sanjay and Aryan face regarding their relationship? (a) Sanjay and Aryan can proceed with their legal recognition process as the ruling only applies to certain regions in India. (b) Sanjay and Aryan will 8Cface 7I barriers in obtaining any form of legal recognition for their same-sex relationship tr-5D8B4E2C4I due to the recent Supreme Court ruling. (c) Sanjay and Aryan can seek alternative legal routes for recognition that are unaffected by the Supreme Court's ruling. (d) Sanjay and Aryan are exempt from the recent Supreme Court ruling as it pertains only to civil unions but not direct marriage. 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L 71. Maninder and Faraz are biological males who love each other. They want to add each other as their emergency contacts for medical purposes along with conferring the right of deciding the course of action to be taken in case of medical incapacity of the other. These rights are ordinarily available only to spouses. In light of the recent Supreme Court ruling against legalizing same-sex marriage and civil unions, how might this decision impact the medical decision-making rights of Maninder and Faraz? Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 19 of 32  (a) Non-heterosexual partners are unaffected by the ruling as their medical decision-making rights are safeguarded by specific healthcare legislation. (b) The absence of legal recognition due to the Supreme Court ruling might present obstacles for non- heterosexual partners in making crucial medical decisions for each other since these rights are only available to spouses (c) The Supreme Court's ruling only pertains to marriage and civil unions (d) The recent Supreme Court ruling actively supports medical decision-making rights for non-heterosexual partners by outlining specific legal guidelines. Passage (Q.72-Q.77): A Canadian court has recently ruled that a thumbs-up or other similar emojies (👍🏽) sent as a text message can be interpreted as consent to a contract – in what is being seen as an unusual case, with courts deciding on the meaning of emojis that are now liberally used in daily online conversations. o m The case here involved people from two companies, South West Terminal Ltd. (SWT) and Achter Land & Cattle Ltd., who had done business with each other in the past. SWT sued Achter, a farming company, for a breach of c. contract and an alleged failure on their part to deliver 87 tonnes of flax, a variety of seeds. rs However, Achter claimed that they never agreed to the contract in the first place. The court ruled in SWT’s favour, asking Achter to pay $61,442. k e The buyer from SWT, spoke with farmer Chris Achter on the phone and texted a picture of a contract to deliver n the flax later, asking the farmer to “please confirm flax contract” in the message. Achter replied to this photo a with a thumbs-up emoji. When it came time for the goods’ delivery, they never reached SWT. p r “The parties clearly understood these curt words were meant to be confirmation of the contract and not a mere because the proof is in the pudding,” the court said tr-5L8P4S acknowledgement of the receipt of the contract by Chris. There 2Q4L can be8T7R no other logical or creditable explanation o The Court also dismissed defence concerns that allowing the thumbs up emoji to signify acceptance “would open T up the flood gates” to new interpretations of other emojis, including the ‘fist bump’ and ‘hand shake’. In finding that the thumbs-up can be used to enter into contracts, Keene said the court “cannot (nor should it) attempt to stem the tide of technology and common usage” of emojis. “This appears to be the new reality in Canadian society and courts will have to be ready to meet the new challenges that may arise from the use of emojis and the like.” [Extracted with revisions fromhttps://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/canada-court-emoji- agreement-explained-8821796/] 7I tr- 5D8B4E2C4I8C 72. In an email exchange, Laura, a graphic designer, offers to design a company logo for Paul, a small business owner. Paul found Laura through an online platform called UpWork where freelancers list their services and interested buyers can choose from the listing. Paul and Laura had an online meeting where Paul described what he was looking for. After the meeting, Laura sent an email to Paul. She writes, "I can create the logo based on your requirements for Rs 8000. Are you on board with this proposal?" Paul replies with a thumbs-up & smiley 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L face emoji (😊). Can the email exchange between Paul and Laura be termed as a valid contract? (a) Yes, the thumbs-up emoji can confirm the contract since there was a prior discussion detailing Paul’s requirements for a valid contract (b) Yes, the thumbs-up emoji confirms Paul’s agreement to hire Laura for her graphic designing services (c) No, the thumbs-up emoji is a casual gesture and may not signify acceptance of the contract terms. (d) No, sending a simple thumbs-up emoji has an ambiguous meaning and may not imply agreement to the contract. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 20 of 32 73. Consider the following situation. In the previous case, Paul is an old man and went online for the first time for the purpose of looking for a graphic designer for his business logo. He is not very tech-savvy and only recently learnt how to use a smartphone. When Laura sent him an email about the proposal, he became happy about it. When he wanted to type this into the chat, a smiley face emoji appeared on the keyboard. He got excited and sent that. In these circumstances, can it be said that a contract was still formed? (a) Yes, because using technology is the new way of communication and Paul should have been more careful if he didn't want to accept the contract (b) Yes, because Paul clearly understood the meaning of the emoji and sent it as a reply to Laura’s email after having this understanding (c) No, because allowing the use of emojis in such situations involving non-tech-savvy people will make it very easy to enter into contracts (d) No, because allowing the use of emojis to indicate acceptance of contracts in such circumstances will open 74. the floodgates for everyone to do so c o m Sarah is a writer who is looking for an editor to help her with her book, 'Diary of a Young Woman'. She sends rs. an email to James, an editor, as an invitation to discuss a potential collaboration over email. After a few email exchanges back and forth to discuss the terms of their collaboration in bits and pieces, Sarah emails James, "I'm constitute contract acceptance? k e ready to start work on the project. Should I proceed?" James replies with a hand-shake emoji. Does this n (a) Yes, the hand-shake emoji signifies a mutual agreement and acceptance of the collaboration. a (b) No, the hand-shake emoji is simply a friendly gesture and does not confirm the contract. r (c) Yes, the hand-shake emoji confirms the contract because it follows a clear discussion of the collaboration terms. p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (d) No, the hand-shake emoji does not confirm the contract because the terms of collaboration were only 75. o discussed in bits and pieces T Alex is a software developer for HP who is looking for a project manager to help him execute his work in a timely, professional and effective manner. He connects with Sarah, a project manager. Alex and Sarah discuss a potential collaboration over email regarding the steps to be followed. Alex emails Sarah, “I am willing to work on this project at Rs 2500 per hour. Is this agreeable to you?” Sarah replies to his email with a winking face emoji (😉). Can Sarah’s response be considered as an acceptance of the contract terms proposed by Alex? (a) Yes, the winking face emoji signifies Sarah's playful agreement to the proposed hourly rate for the project. (b) No, the winking face emoji is meant to add a light-hearted tone and therefore cannot be accepted. (c) Yes, the winking face8Cemoji 7I confirms the contract, provided Sarah follows up with a confirmation email. tr-5D8B4E2C4I (d) No, the winking face emoji is open to interpretation and does not clearly indicate acceptance of the contract. 76. Mike wanted to purchase some Pashmina shawls for selling in his high-end garment store in the USA. He contacted Tasneem in Kashmir, who had a website. They continued the rest of the conversation on WhatsApp. Tasneem said that she would be willing to sell 50 shawls for Rs. 10,000 each. Mike said that his total budget was tr-Rs. 4S2Q4L8T7R 5L8P3,00,000 only. Tasneem said that her best offer would be Rs. 6000 for 50 shawls. She then asked Mike, “Is this budget acceptable?" Mike replies with a thumbs-down emoji (👎). Is there a valid contract between Mike and Tasneem? (a) Yes, because the thumbs-down emoji clearly signifies Mike's rejection of the budget proposed by Tasneem (b) No, because the thumbs-down emoji signifies that the counter offer by Tasneem is not acceptable to Mike. (c) Yes, because the new value offered by Tasneem in her counter offer meets the budget proposed by Mike (d) No, the thumbs-down emoji indicates that Mike has reservations and is unwilling to enter into a contract. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 21 of 32 77. Kashish runs an Instagram store where she sells various types of jewellery. David stumbles upon Kashish’s account and is impressed by the collection. Since his daughter’s birthday was coming up, he decided to purchase a gift for her. He messaged Kashish and asked for the price of a necklace. Kashish replied that the cost of the necklace was Rs. 600, as indicated in the post. David replies with a thinking face emoji. Based on this interaction, can it be concluded that there is a valid contract between David and Kashish? (a) No, because telling the price of an object from the post amounts to an invitation to offer and if David wants to buy the necklace then he has to make an offer to Kashish (b) Yes, because telling the price of the necklace constituted an offer and David’s response by way of an emoji constituted the acceptance for the same (c) Yes, the thinking face emoji confirms the contract if David follows up with a formal contract document (d) No, the thinking face emoji is too ambiguous and does not clearly indicate acceptance or rejection of the m contract terms.c o Passage (Q.78-Q.84): A Constitution Bench with five-to-null unanimity led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud upheld the constitutional validity of the two Presidential Orders CO (The Constitution (Application rs To Jammu and Kashmir) Order) 272 and 273 of August 5 and 6, 2019 respectively by which the entire Constitution of India was made applicable to J&K, and all provisions of Article 370 were declared k e inoperative.The Court cited the following provisions: Article 1 of the Constitution of India provides that India is a Union of States. Section 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir declared that Jammu and Kashmir is an n integral part of India. The provision read: “Relationship of the State with the Union of India: The State of Jammu a and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.” Section 147 of the J&K Constitution prohibited any amendment to Section 3. r p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L o The opinions of both the CJI and Justice Kaul held that Article 370 was always meant to be a “temporary” feature as stated in the marginal note.Justice Kaul held that since Article 370 is meant to be a temporary arrangement, it T cannot be said that the mechanism under Article 370(3) came to an end after the State Constituent Assembly was dissolved.The CJI said that there were two aspects that showed the temporary nature of Article 370. First, it was intended as an interim arrangement until the Constituent Assembly of the State was formed since in the interim, there was needed a legal bridge between J&K and India. Once the J & K Constitution was enacted and it was adopted to be a part of India, this arrangement would not have been necessary.The legal route for the abrogation of Article 370 was twofold. First, on August 5, 2019, then Presidentissued CO 272, which amended Article 367 of the Constitution. Article 367 deals with interpretation of the Constitution, and the CO added a new meaning to “Constituent Assembly 8Cof 7I Jammu and Kashmir” to mean “legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.Then, tr-5D8B4E2C4I CO 273 was promulgated seeking the consent of Parliament (which had assumed powers of the J&K legislature after president’s rule) to recommend that “all clauses of the said article 370 shall cease to be operative”.Relying on the Bommai ruling by thirteen judges (minimum five to maximum any number of judges in a Constitution bench), the court said that the standard to decide the validity of the President’s rule was to see whether it was not “mala fide 8T7R or palpably irrational”, or that the “advisability and necessity of the action was not borne in mind tr-5L8P4S2Q4L by the President”. On this standard, the Court found the President rule under Article 356 to be valid. [Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/key-aspects-of-article-370-verdict-unpacked-9064079/] 78. What is the maximum strength of the constitution bench of the Supreme Court according to the passage? (a) Seven judges. (b) Thirteen judges. (c) Five judges. (d) No fixed limit. Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 22 of 32 79. Which of these is not a provision or law involved in the application of whole of Constitution of India and laws to Jammu and Kashmir? (a) Presidential Orders CO (The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order) 272. (b) Presidential Orders CO (The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order) 273. (c) Article 370 to the Constitution of India. (d) Article 371 to the Constitution of India. 80. The purpose of the CO 272 as promulgated for the state of Jammu and Kashmir was (a) To amend Article 367 and make the operability of Article 370 to be annulled by the Parliament. (b) To amend Article 367 and change the reference to Constituent Assembly to the Parliament of India. (c) To amend Article 367 and change the reference to Constituent Assembly to the Supreme Court of India. (d) To amend Article 367 and change the reference to Constituent Assembly to legislative assembly. 81. o m What was the utility of Section 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir for the verdict regarding abrogation c. of Article 370? rs (a) It stated that Jammu and Kashmir is an integral part of India. (b) It stated that Jammu and Kashmir is temporarily appended to India. e (c) It stated that Jammu and Kashmir is an integral part of United Nations. k (d) It stated that Jammu and Kashmir has the power to decide on operability of Article 370. 82. per Bommai ruling? (a) The inquiry into mala fide r an Which of these is not the criterion to be borne in mind for the evaluation of President’s rule under Article 356 as p 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L (b) The inquiry into palpable irrationality. 83. o (c) Advisability and necessity of the action was not considered. T (d) Advisability and redundancy of the action was not considered. What was the authority under CO 273 which gave the consent for the inoperability of Article 370 to Jammu and Kashmir? (a) The legislative Assembly of the State. (b) The President of India. (c) The Supreme Court of India. (d) The Parliament of India. 84. What was written in the marginal note of Article 370 which contributed to the abrogation of Article 370? (a) That the provision is8C permanent 7I in nature. tr-5D8B4E2C4I (b) That the provision was provisional in nature. (c) That the provision was inoperable in nature. (d) That the provision was temporary in nature. 8T7R tr-5L8P4S2Q4L Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 23 of 32  SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions. Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Michael mann’s luscious but limited “Ferrari” is a fitting film to end 2023, a year dominated by brand movies (“Barbie”, above all) and biopics (“Oppenheimer”, “Napoleon”, “Maestro”). “Ferrari”