CLAT Essentials Mock Test 2024-25 (CLAT 2025) PDF

CLAT ESSENTIALS MOCK - 18 (CLAT Mock No. 14 of the 2024-25) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (This Booklet contains 40 pages of Question Paper, including 2 blank pages for rough work.) Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only 1. Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Response for writing the Roll No. and other details on Sheet is supplied along with this Question Booklet. OMR Response Sheet. 2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet (QB), please request the Invigilator for replacement of 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do not use the shading the circles. Indicate only the most previous OMR Response Sheet for a fresh booklet so appropriate answer by shading from the obtained. options provided. The answer circle should be shaded completely without leaving any space. 3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR Response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on OMR Response Sheet shall be handled carefully. the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take necessary precautions before marking the 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be appropriate circle. sought on the Question Paper. 13. Handle the OMR Response Sheet with care. Do 5. Possession of Electronic Devices in any form is Strictly not fold. prohibited in the Examination Hall. 14. Ensure that Invigilator puts his/her signature in 6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall the space provided on the OMR Response Sheet. result in the cancellation of his/her examination. Candidate should sign in the space provided on 7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, apart the OMR Response Sheet. from disqualification, will be liable to be prosecuted. 15. The candidate should write Question Paper 8. The Test Paper for Five Year Integrated Law Booklet No., and OMR Response Sheet No., and Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 Multiple sign in the space/column provided in the Choice Questions. attendance sheet. 9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice 16. Return the ORIGINAL Page of OMR Response objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be deducted Sheet to the Invigilator after the Examination. for every wrong answer or where candidates have marked more than one response. No Mark will be 17. The candidate shall not write anything on the deducted for not marking the response. OMR Response Sheet other than the details required and in the spaces provided for. Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 2 Score Card Correct Subject Total Question Total Attempt Wrong Attempt Net Score Attempt English 25 Language Current Affairs 30 Legal 30 Reasoning Logical 25 Reasoning Quantitative 10 Aptitude Total 120 © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 3 English S=1-5): Most ancient traditions, not only Christianity, picture the universe as an involution of divine love. It emanates from an origin that precedes frail beings. According to a hymn of creation in the Rig Veda, love is a fundamental presence: ‘In the beginning arose Love’ – or Kāma in Sanskrit: the love that sparks desire and vitalises consciousness through practices of yogic attention. In mystical Islamic traditions, love is similarly comprehended as an external power more than an emotion. For the Sufi, love forces believers, who are called lovers, out of themselves towards the Beloved, who is God. Even Stoicism was originally a discipline for discovering that the world is shaped by the Logos, or active word of creative love. Today, this appreciation of reality, with its ‘built-in significance’ and ‘admirable design’, to quote C S Lewis, has become a ‘discarded image’. Any curious person enquiring of the universe now, and inspired by science, might feel themselves to be confronted by a reality of unknown or unknowable significance, or of no significance at all. Moreover, such doubt or confusion seems to be the price of rejecting a fanciful worldview for a scientific one. Apprehending the universe no longer consists of an awesome realisation that your mind fits the divine mind to some degree, but becomes one of uncertain, probing wonder: intellectual humility threatened by cognitive humiliation. Nor can anyone who is suffering turn to myths and rituals conveying the purposes of a love that exceeds and might contain their afflictions; they must bear their woe alone or, if they are lucky, in solidarity with similarly isolated others. As a psychotherapist, I feel sure this feeling of existential seclusion exacerbates distress as well as other symptoms, like excessive consumption or spiritual discontent. Although the prevalence of suffering is given as a prime reason to reject the existence of divine love, paradoxically, I suspect its dismissal has made suffering worse. The healing power of having suffering recognised and understood, even when its causes remain, is a phenomenon that anyone engaged in caring will know. To be with suffering, which is more than just to witness it, is to be vulnerable, which can in turn bring an awareness that love and connection are basic and immovable. This is why people attest to finding God in suffering, regardless of rational objections. That mystery is central to any sure – as opposed to merely asserted – conviction that there is divine love. Love is the formidable helpmate of our attention. This was something on which the philosopher Simone Weil, who famously took upon herself the sufferings of others, insisted – refusing, for example, to consume more that the miserable rations allowed her compatriots in France, when she was confined to a hospital bed in London in 1943. ‘By loving the order of the world we imitate the divine love which created this universe of which we are a part,’ she wrote. [Extracted from “The enchanted vision”, aeon.] 1. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage? (a) The passage criticizes the idea of divine love in ancient traditions. (b) The rejection of divine love leads to greater intellectual clarity and understanding. (c) The dismissal of divine love has made suffering worse and love is essential for healing. (d) Modern science has proven the existence of divine love. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 4 2. Which of the following is the author the most likely to agree with? (a) Rational people never find a sense of divine presence and connection in their suffering. (b) Modern views are lacking in the sense that they prioritize scientific understanding over traditional beliefs, leading to a lack of understanding of the significance of human experiences such as suffering and love. (c) Despite the flaws of modern beliefs, it is not necessary for people to continue finding God in their suffering. (d) Recognizing and understanding suffering through a lens of love and connection completely alleviates the pain and suffering. 3. Why, according to the passage, do people attest to finding God in suffering? (a) People believe that suffering allows them to understand the complexity of human relationships. (b) People find solace in the idea that suffering is an illusion created by the mind. (c) People experience a sense of divine love and connection through vulnerability when enduring suffering. (d) People feel obligated to say they find God in suffering due to societal pressures. 4. How does the author connect love with the divine in the passage? (a) Love is depicted as a fundamental and creative force that mirrors divine love and shapes the universe. (b) Love is described as a human construct that has no relation to the divine. (c) Love is seen as a distraction from discovering the true nature of reality. (d) Love is presented as a fleeting emotion with little connection to the divine. 5. Which of the following can be inferred from Simone Weil’s writing: “By loving the order of the world we imitate the divine love which created this universe of which we are a part.” (a) Loving the order of the world requires completely rejecting scientific understanding. (b) Imitating divine love leads to a complete lack of personal responsibility for one's actions. (c) Understanding and accepting suffering can lead to an increased sense of isolation. (d) Appreciating the world and its order allows one to connect with and imitate divine love. S=6-10): Percival Everett’s novels seem to ward off the lazier hermeneutics of literary criticism, yet they also have a way of dangling the analytical ropes with which we critics hang ourselves. His latest novel follows the misadventures of a runaway named Jim and his young companion Huckleberry in the antebellum American South. As in another novel featuring those protagonists, Jim has fled enslavement in the state of Missouri, and Huckleberry, Huck for short, has faked his own death to escape his no-good abusive Pap. As in that other novel, the two are both bonded and divided by the circumstances of their respective fugitivity as they float together on a raft down the Mississippi River. As in that other novel, the narrator of Everett’s book is setting down his story as best he knows how, but—rather differently—the narrator here is not the boy but the man who has been deprived of the legal leave to be one. “With my pencil, I wrote myself into being,” Jim writes. The novel is titled, simply, “James,” the name Jim chooses for himself. In conferring interiority (and literacy) upon perhaps the most famous fictional emblem of American slavery after Uncle Tom, Everett seems to participate in the marketable trope of “writing back” from the margins, exorcizing old racial baggage to confront the perennial © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 5 question of—to use another worn idiom—what “Huck Finn” means now. And yet, with small exceptions, “James” meanders away from the prefab idioms that await it. What novel has borne the racial freight of American letters like “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn,” a book credited with gifting us a national literature (not to mention a sense of humor)? Norman Mailer, rereading the book on the occasion of its centennial, wrote of realizing “all over again that the near-burned-out, throttled, hate-filled dying affair between whites and blacks is still our great national love affair.” A decade later, as Americans fretted over the educational value of a book busting with more than two hundred instances of the word “nigger,” Toni Morrison defended “Huckleberry Finn” ’s status as a classic. The novel’s brilliance, she observed, lies in how it formally reproduces the very racial dynamic it depicts. Jim enables Huck’s moral maturation; without him, Twain’s Roman has no Bildung. Jim’s freedom is “withheld,” Morrison writes, lest there be “no more story to tell.” “James” posits a converse narrative problem: from the perspective of Jim, a man undertaking a deadly quest for freedom, managing the needs of a pubescent boy amounts to nothing so much as an inconvenience. Jim’s worries for his own family, a wife and child he’s left behind in bondage, must be slotted into the spaces between the boy’s gabbing, his questions, his anxieties. Jim’s sentiment toward Huck is unruly in its ambivalence: he is simultaneously protective and resentful, both relieved and uneasy when the two are separated, which in Everett’s novel they often are. [Extracted from “Percival Everett’s Philosophical Reply to “Huckleberry Finn””, The New Yorker.] 6. Which of the following best identifies the meaning of the word ‘antebellum,’ as used in the passage? (a) Before the Civil War (b) During the American Revolution (c) After the American Revolution (d) After the Civil War 7. Which of the following best identifies the dynamics between Jim and Huck? (a) Jim and Huck share a strong, unbreakable bond of mutual understanding and support. (b) Jim views Huck as an obstacle to his own freedom and actively tries to distance himself from him. (c) Huck serves as a moral guide for Jim, helping him navigate the challenges of their journey. (d) Jim's feelings towards Huck are complex, as he is both protective and resentful, feeling both relief and unease when they are separated. 8. Which of the following best identifies the relation between Jim and James? (a) Jim and James are two characters who represent the same person in different phases of life. (b) Jim and James are depicted as adversaries with opposing goals and values. (c) Jim and James are unrelated characters, each pursuing separate storylines with no impact on each other. (d) Jim and James are the same character, as Jim chooses the name James for himself, indicating a sense of self-empowerment and identity. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 6 9. Which of the following best identifies the significance of Percival Everett’s James in American literature? (a) James perpetuates stereotypes of the antebellum South without offering any new perspectives. (b) James reimagines a classic narrative, providing Jim with an interior life and new voice that confronts and expands on the original story's themes. (c) James portrays Jim as a one-dimensional character whose experiences remain superficial. (d) James strictly follows the original narrative without introducing new interpretations or characters. 10. What does Jim mean by, “With my pencil, I wrote myself into being?” (a) Jim is asserting his own identity and existence through his act of writing, giving himself agency and voice. (b) Jim is expressing his desire to erase his past and start a new life. (c) Jim is indicating that his writing allows him to forget his past and live in the present. (d) Jim is suggesting that his writing is an act of rebellion against the injustices he has faced. S=11-17): Adam Smith, the renowned Scottish philosopher, argued that profit is the driving force behind capitalism. However, many thinkers, both religious and secular, worried that the focus on profit could lead to a society obsessed with greed, vanity, and excessive consumption. While Smith believed that government regulation and education could curb these negative tendencies, others like Marx and Nietzsche were more pessimistic, predicting that capitalism would eventually lead to mass revolutions. Today, the issues of economic inequality, climate change, and global health crises highlight this ongoing debate. While critics blame capitalism for these problems, history reminds us that socialism also has its drawbacks, such as limiting innovation and causing inefficiency. Thankfully, there is a potential middle ground. Economic challenges, like the Great Depression, have previously inspired people to act for the common good, leading to initiatives like FDR’s New Deal, which boosted the middle class and improved living standards. Similarly, the current pandemic could motivate us to adopt a more responsible form of capitalism, blending self-interest with social awareness for a healthier society. 11. What did Adam Smith believe could help curb the negative effects of capitalism? (a) The natural progression of society (b) Religious interventions (c) Government regulation and education (d) Unchecked free market policies 12. Which philosopher had a more pessimistic view about the outcome of capitalism than Adam Smith? (a) FDR (b) Nietzsche (c) Plato (d) John Locke © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 7 13. According to the passage, which problem is NOT directly attributed to capitalism by critics? (a) Climate change (b) Global health crises (c) Economic inequality (d) Religious intolerance 14. How did the Great Depression inspire change, according to the passage? (a) It led to a war over global resources (b) It inspired new laws promoting unchecked capitalism (c) It motivated collective action for societal improvement (d) It resulted in a significant loss of human rights 15. What does the author suggest might be a modern solution to current challenges like the pandemic? (a) Eliminating capitalism entirely (b) Returning to strict socialist policies (c) A blend of self-interest and social responsibility (d) Allowing the free market to operate without restrictions 16. Why do some people criticize socialism, according to the passage? (a) It promotes global health crises (b) It discourages innovation and causes inefficiency (c) It leads to environmental degradation (d) It increases economic inequality. 17. What does the author imply about future economic policies? (a) They should address economic challenges with social awareness (b) They should strictly adhere to capitalist principles (c) They should disregard historical lessons (d) They should only focus on profit-making strategies S=18-25): Today, I am glad to stand with you in what will be remembered as one of the greatest moments in our nation’s history for the fight for freedom. A hundred years ago, a great American signed the Emancipation Proclamation, a powerful message of hope for millions of Black slaves suffering from severe injustice. It was like a bright dawn ending their long night of captivity. But now, a century later, Black people still are not truly free. They are still trapped by segregation and discrimination. They live in poverty while surrounded by wealth, excluded and marginalized in their own country. This is why we are here today: to highlight this terrible reality. We are here to remind the nation of its promise. When the Founding Fathers wrote the Constitution and the Declaration of Independence, they made a commitment that every American, Black and white, would have the right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness. Yet today, America has failed to keep that promise for its Black © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 8 citizens, giving them empty promises instead of true equality. But we do not accept that justice is beyond reach. We believe there is still hope and opportunity in this nation. We are here to demand the freedom and justice we deserve, and we cannot wait any longer. Now is the time to make democracy real. Now is the time to rise from segregation and move toward racial justice. Now is the time to lift our nation from racial injustice and stand together in unity. Now is the time to make justice a reality for everyone. [Extracted with revision from “I Have a Dream”, Martin Luther King, Jr.] 18. What is the main purpose of the speaker's address in the given passage? (a) To draw attention to the continued injustice faced by Black Americans (b) To emphasize the achievements of the Emancipation Proclamation (c) To commemorate the Founding Fathers and their contributions (d) To celebrate the nation's history of freedom and democracy 19. What is the speaker’s tone in the passage? (a) Commemorative and celebratory (b) Hopeful yet urgent (c) Dismissive and cynical (d) Indifferent and detached 20. According to the passage, what does the speaker imply about the promises made in the Declaration of Independence? (a) They have been fulfilled for all citizens. (b) They were never meant to include Black Americans. (c) They have only been partially kept for Black citizens. (d) They have become outdated and irrelevant. 21. What literary device is used when the speaker describes the Emancipation Proclamation as “like a bright dawn ending their long night of captivity”? (a) Hyperbole (b) Irony (c) Metaphor (d) Simile 22. Why does the speaker refer to the promises made by the Founding Fathers? (a) To highlight that the nation was always perfect (b) To emphasize the moral obligation to deliver justice (c) To suggest that the Founding Fathers were hypocrites (d) To argue that the Constitution should be rewritten © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 9 23. What does the phrase “trapped by segregation and discrimination” suggest about the condition of Black Americans? (a) They are physically imprisoned. (b) They are free but feel nostalgic for the past. (c) They are struggling under severe social and economic constraints. (d) They are entirely content with their situation. 24. What does the speaker imply about the economic conditions of Black Americans? (a) They have equal economic opportunities as others. (b) They live in extreme wealth and privilege. (c) They remain impoverished while surrounded by affluence. (d) They are indifferent to economic advancement. 25. Which of the following best describes the phrase “empty promises instead of true equality”? (a) The government has made sincere efforts but failed due to unforeseen issues. (b) The assurances given to Black Americans have not led to real, tangible change. (c) The promises of equality have always been impossible to fulfill. (d) True equality has already been achieved in society. Current Affairs and GK S=26-35): Elon Musk, the billionaire entrepreneur and CEO of companies like Tesla and SpaceX, has played an influential role in shaping public discourse around the U.S. presidential election. Through his active presence on social media platform X (formerly Twitter), which he owns, Musk has shared opinions, engaged with political figures, and hosted conversations that have swayed public perception. By amplifying various viewpoints, from discussions on technology and policy to more controversial topics, Musk’s influence has been felt by both supporters and critics, raising questions about the impact of social media and tech moguls in the political landscape. 26. How often are U.S. presidential elections held? (a) Every 2 years (b) Every 4 years (c) Every 5 years (d) Every 6 years 27. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution established the two-term limit for presidents? (a) 20th Amendment (b) 21st Amendment (c) 22nd Amendment (d) 25th Amendment © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 10 28. What is the minimum number of electoral votes a candidate needs to win the US presidency? (a) 250 (b) 270 (c) 300 (d) 350 29. Which of the following companies was co-founded by Elon Musk in 1999? (a) Tesla, Inc. (b) SpaceX (c) PayPal (originally X.com) (d) Neuralink 30. What was the name of the reusable rocket launched successfully by SpaceX in 2015? (a) Starship (b) Falcon Heavy (c) Dragon (d) Falcon 9 31. Which satellite internet project was developed by SpaceX under Elon Musk's leadership? (a) Blue Sky (b) Starlink (c) Skylab (d) SpaceWeb 32. What is the name of the super PAC founded by Elon Musk to support Donald Trump's 2024 presidential campaign? (a) Future America PAC (b) America First PAC (c) America PAC (d) Musk for America PAC 33. Which role was Elon Musk appointed to in Donald Trump's administration following the 2024 election? (a) Secretary of Energy (b) Director of National Intelligence (c) Co-lead of Department of Government Efficiency (d) Chief of Staff 34. Who was appointed alongside Elon Musk to co-lead the Department of Government Efficiency? (a) Robert F. Kennedy Jr. (b) Vivek Ramaswamy (c) Marco Rubio (d) Matt Gaetz © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 11 35. What was the purpose of the $1 million voter sweepstakes associated with Elon Musk during the 2024 election? (a) To encourage voter turnout in swing states (b) To fundraise for his companies (c) To promote a new product launch (d) To support a third-party candidate S=36-45): Military exercises are crucial for maintaining a nation's defense readiness and ensuring the effectiveness of armed forces. These exercises provide an opportunity for troops to practice combat strategies, enhance coordination, and familiarize themselves with new technologies. Joint exercises with allied nations foster international cooperation, strengthen strategic partnerships, and improve interoperability among forces. By simulating real-world scenarios, military exercises prepare soldiers to respond swiftly to threats, adapt to evolving challenges, and protect national and global security. 36. Which of the following is a joint military exercise between India and France? (a) Shakti (b) Yudh Abhyas (c) Indra (d) Garuda 37. What is the primary focus of the 'AustraHind' exercise? (a) Naval operations (b) Air force collaboration (c) Army cooperation and interoperability (d) Cybersecurity training 38. Which exercise is conducted between the Indian and Mongolian armies? (a) Nomadic Elephant (b) Hand-in-Hand (c) Surya Kiran (d) Vajra Prahar 39. 'Yudh Abhyas' is a joint military exercise between India and which country? (a) United States (b) Russia (c) Japan (d) United Kingdom 40. _________exercise is the world's largest naval exercise. (a) Malabar (b) Milan (c) Varuna (d) RIMPAC © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 12 41. 'Hand-in-Hand' is a joint military exercise between India and which country? (a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh (c) China (d) Sri Lanka 42. Which exercise involves the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy? (a) SIMBEX (b) SLINEX (c) INDRA NAVY (d) KONKAN 43. 'Vajra Prahar' is a joint military exercise between India and which country? (a) Russia (b) Japan (c) United States (d) Australia 44. Which exercise is conducted between the Indian and Sri Lankan navies? (a) SLINEX (b) INDRA NAVY (c) VARUNA (d) MALABAR 45. 'Indra' is a joint military exercise between India and which country? (a) Japan (b) United Kingdom (c) Australia (d) Russia S=46-52): The Supreme Court of India has increasingly taken up cases involving "bulldozer justice," a term used to describe the practice of using bulldozers to demolish properties allegedly linked to accused individuals, often without due legal process. Critics argue that such actions are a form of extrajudicial punishment, raising concerns about the violation of constitutional rights and the principles of natural justice. The Supreme Court has emphasized the importance of following due process and ensuring that any demolition activities are conducted lawfully and fairly. It has called for accountability and highlighted the need to balance law enforcement with the protection of individual rights. 46. Which article of the Indian Constitution did the Supreme Court emphasize in its ruling against 'bulldozer justice'? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 19 © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 13 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 300A 47. What did the Supreme Court declare about demolishing properties of accused individuals? (a) It is permissible without any notice (b) It is acceptable as a form of immediate punishment (c) It is unacceptable and violates the rule of law (d) It is a necessary deterrent against crime 48. What procedural safeguard did the Supreme Court mandate before any demolition action? (a) Immediate demolition with 30 day notice (b) Show-cause notice with a minimum 15-day response period (c) Demolition only with the approval of court (d) No requirement for any notice if it is government land 49. In which year did the Supreme Court of India move to its present premises? (a) 1958 (b) 1952 (c) 1947 (d) 1923 50. What is the maximum number of judges (excluding the Chief Justice) that the Supreme Court of India can have, as per the current provisions? (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 33 (d) 34 51. Which landmark case in 1973 established the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Constitution? (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (b) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (c) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India 52. Who was the first woman to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India? (a) Ruma Pal (b) Sujata V. Manohar (c) Fathima Beevi (d) Gyan Sudha Misra © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 14 S=53-55): Tata Group, one of India's largest and most respected conglomerates, has had a significant impact across industries like steel, automobiles, and telecommunications. Ratan Tata, the visionary former chairman of Tata Sons, played a pivotal role in transforming the company into a global powerhouse. Under his leadership, Tata Group expanded internationally, acquiring notable brands such as Jaguar Land Rover and Tetley. Known for his business acumen and philanthropy, Ratan Tata is celebrated for his commitment to ethical practices and social responsibility, leaving a lasting legacy in both Indian industry and society. 53. In which year did Ratan Tata become the Chairman of Tata Group? (a) 1991 (b) 2000 (c) 1985 (d) 1975 54. Under Ratan Tata's leadership, which automotive brand did Tata Motors acquire in 2008? (a) Mercedes-Benz (b) Jaguar Land Rover (c) Audi (d) Ferrari 55. What major global steel company did Tata Steel acquire in 2007? (a) Nippon Steel (b) Arcelor (c) Corus Group (d) POSCO Legal Reasoning S=56-62): Malicious Prosecution is described under Law of Torts and also under Indian Penal code. It is an abuse to the Judicial System as it aims to provide justice to innocent people but under Malicious Prosecution, innocent people are convicted. Under this the defendant becomes plaintiff and plaintiff becomes defendant. The case under malicious prosecution should be filed within a year of a malicious suit. For the execution of malicious proceedings, it is necessary to be initiated by a criminal proceeding against an innocent person without any reasonable cause. The person filing the case of malicious prosecution must have suffered any damage or harm and he has to prove the same in the court to initiate the proceeding. The history or the origin of malicious prosecution can be traced back to the writ of conspiracy which was in existence as early as Edwards I's reign. Malicious prosecution has its origin in England and evolved in 18th and 19th century. It was an outcome of misusing the due procedure of law since 18th and 19th century in England. Later it spread its wings across the globe, in different countries. This was more witnessed in common wealth countries since they had a great influence of the English laws in their countries. Malicious prosecution has also caught a very strong footing in the United States, probably because of holding the persons liberty and reputation in the highest regard. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 15 In a suit for damages for malicious prosecution, the plaintiff must first prove that the defendant prosecuted him. The plaintiff must also show that the defendant prosecuted without reasonable and probable cause, acted maliciously or wrongfully, and not merely to enforce the law. Additionally, the plaintiff must demonstrate that the prosecution terminated in his favour. In a suit for damages for malicious prosecution, it is essential for the plaintiff to prove that they suffered damage as a result of the prosecution. The plaintiff can claim damages on three counts: damage to reputation, damage to person, and damage to property. Damage to reputation is significant because a good reputation is a major source of pleasure and social acceptance, while a bad reputation causes trauma, social non-acceptance, and deprivation of the right to life. Damage to person involves physical injury and loss of personal liberty due to arrest, leading to mental stress and trauma. Damage to property occurs when the accused must expend resources and money to defend against the malicious prosecution, resulting in unnecessary financial injury. [Extracted, with edits and revisions from, Malicious Prosecution, LEGAL SERVICE INDIA] 56. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the historical development of malicious prosecution? (a) Malicious prosecution was first codified in the United States in the 18th century. (b) The concept of malicious prosecution originated from the writ of conspiracy during Edward I's reign in England. (c) Malicious prosecution laws were initially developed in Commonwealth countries due to their unique legal traditions of each country. (d) The primary influence on the development of malicious prosecution laws in the United States came from French legal principles. 57. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a plaintiff to prove in a suit for malicious prosecution according to the passage? (a) The defendant prosecuted the plaintiff without reasonable and probable cause. (b) The prosecution was initiated maliciously or wrongfully. (c) The plaintiff suffered damage to reputation, person, or property as a result of the prosecution. (d) The plaintiff was not acquitted of the criminal charges. 58. In the context of the passage, which of the following scenarios would most likely support a successful claim for malicious prosecution? (a) Alice was acquitted of fraud charges, and she can prove that Bob, who initiated the charges, had reasonable cause based on the evidence. (b) John was prosecuted for theft but was convicted. Later, new evidence revealed he was innocent, and he filed for malicious prosecution. (c) Priya was prosecuted without any reasonable cause and acquitted. She suffered significant reputational damage and proves the prosecution was initiated maliciously by the accuser. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 16 (d) Mark was falsely accused of arson, but the case was dismissed before it went to trial. He then files a suit for malicious prosecution claiming financial losses. 59. According to the passage, what is one of the major differences between damage to reputation and damage to property in a malicious prosecution case? (a) Damage to reputation is subjective and psychological, while damage to property is objective and financial. (b) Damage to reputation requires proving physical harm, while damage to property does not. (c) Damage to reputation can only be claimed if the prosecution leads to a conviction, whereas damage to property can be claimed at any stage. (d) Damage to reputation involves proving loss of social acceptance, while damage to property involves proving intentional harm by the defendant. 60. In 2019, Aisha was wrongfully accused of theft by her neighbor, Raj, and was prosecuted without any reasonable or probable cause. The court found Aisha not guilty in January 2020. Subsequently, Aisha decided to file a case of malicious prosecution against Raj in March 2021. Assuming all elements of malicious prosecution are met, can Aisha successfully file the suit? (a) Yes, because the malicious prosecution case can be filed within two years of the malicious suit. (b) No, because the malicious prosecution case should be filed within a year of the termination of the prosecution. (c) Yes, because the statute of limitations for malicious prosecution starts from the date of acquittal. (d) No, because Aisha must prove actual malice, and the lapse of time indicates a lack of urgency in pursuing the claim. 61. Rahul was falsely accused of embezzlement by his business partner, Varun, and was prosecuted without any solid evidence. Rahul was acquitted in August 2019. Rahul then filed a suit for malicious prosecution against Varun in July 2020. During the trial for malicious prosecution, it was revealed that Varun had acted on the advice of his legal counsel, believing he had a reasonable cause. Can Rahul's suit succeed? (a) Yes, because Varun initiated the prosecution without reasonable and probable cause. (b) No, because acting on legal advice negates malice and lack of reasonable cause. (c) Yes, because the counsel's advice does not absolve Varun of responsibility for wrongful prosecution. (d) No, because Rahul filed the suit just within the permissible period, which raises questions about the timing. 62. Maria was prosecuted for fraud based on evidence fabricated by her competitor, Leo, who was aware of Maria's innocence. Maria was acquitted in November 2020, and she filed a suit for malicious prosecution in October 2021. During the trial, Leo argued that since the prosecution was initiated by a third party based on the fabricated evidence, he cannot be held liable. What should be the court’s decision? (a) Leo cannot be held liable because he did not directly initiate the prosecution. (b) Leo can be held liable because he was the indirect cause of the prosecution through his fabricated evidence. (c) Leo cannot be held liable as Maria's claim is outside the statute of limitations. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 17 (d) Leo can be held liable only if Maria can prove beyond a reasonable doubt that Leo fabricated the evidence with malicious intent. S=63-67): The Court in its judgment concerning the promotion of Judicial Officers by the Gujarat High Court took an expansive view of what would mean by 'merit' in the context of promotion of judicial officers. The bench comprising CJI DY Chandrachud and Justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra explained the meaning of 'merit' when applying the 'merit-cum-seniority' rule in the promotions of judicial officers. It was clarified that in the context of employment promotions, 'merit' should be viewed divergently and not just limited to the qualifications or high marks obtained in a competitive exam but also expanded to include the professional conduct, the efficacy of performance, integrity, etc. The Court, while analyzing the essence of 'merit,' concluded that when it comes to promotional positions, merit has an all-rounded meaning that is not limited to just the academic or theoretical marks or qualifications of a candidate. It also expands to include several other factors, such as previous work performance, which would indicate one's capabilities of discharging their duties effectively. "Past performance is a relevant factor to judge the merit of the candidate, particularly in promotional posts, since it would indicate the capability of the candidate to discharge their duties effectively. Merely because any person possesses higher qualifications or higher marks in an examination does not mean that they are meritorious than others." Reliance was also placed on the plain dictionary meaning of 'merit' to underline that in terms of employment, the term should be construed holistically to include character, integrity, dedication towards the tasks, and the manner of execution of the work. "According to the Cambridge Dictionary, merit is defined as the quality of being good and deserving. In the context of employment, it is the sum total of various qualities which are relevant for fulfilling the requirements of the employment. There are multiple attributes of merit which must be taken into consideration such as character, integrity, and devotion to the assigned official duties. The manner in which the candidate discharges their final duties would also be a relevant factor." Thus, the Court's interpretation emphasized that 'merit' for promotional posts should encompass a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's overall performance and conduct, rather than being restricted to academic achievements alone. This holistic approach ensures that promotions are based on a fair assessment of all qualities pertinent to the effective fulfillment of the duties associated with the position. [Extracted, with edits and revisions from, Higher Qualifications Or Marks Not Sufficient To Determine 'Merit' For Judges' Promotions; Past Performance Relevant : Supreme Court, LIVE LAW] 63. In the judgment concerning the promotion of Judicial Officers by the Gujarat High Court, what does the term 'merit' encompass according to the Supreme Court's interpretation? (a) Merit strictly refers to the qualifications and high marks obtained in a competitive exam. (b) Merit includes qualifications, professional conduct, performance efficacy, and integrity. (c) Merit is solely based on past performance and experience in the judicial system. (d) Merit is defined by the character and dedication to tasks, excluding academic qualifications. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 18 64. According to the Supreme Court's interpretation, why is past performance considered an important factor in assessing merit for promotions? (a) Because it is the only indicator of a candidate’s academic capabilities. (b) Because it reflects the candidate's capability to discharge duties effectively. (c) Because it demonstrates the candidate's theoretical knowledge and qualifications. (d) Because it is easier to measure compared to academic qualifications. 65. What is the Supreme Court's view on the relationship between high marks in competitive exams and merit? (a) High marks in competitive exams are the most critical aspect of merit. (b) High marks indicate superior merit over all other factors. (c) High marks alone do not necessarily indicate superior merit. (d) High marks should be the sole criterion for promotions. 66. A senior judicial officer, Officer A, has consistently received high marks in annual assessments and competitive exams throughout their career. However, their professional conduct has been questioned multiple times, and there have been instances where their integrity was called into question. Another officer, Officer B, has average academic qualifications but has demonstrated exceptional professional conduct, efficiency in performance, and integrity. The promotion panel must decide who to promote based on the 'merit-cum-seniority' rule as interpreted by the Supreme Court. Based on the Supreme Court's interpretation of 'merit,' who should the promotion panel choose for the promotion? (a) Officer A, because high marks in assessments and competitive exams indicate superior merit. (b) Officer A, because academic qualifications are the most critical aspect of merit. (c) Officer B, because merit encompasses professional conduct, performance efficacy, and integrity, not just academic achievements. (d) Officer B, because average academic qualifications combined with good conduct are sufficient for promotion. 67. During a recent evaluation for promotion, Officer X, who has demonstrated consistent professional conduct and integrity but has average academic performance, is competing with Officer Y, who has high academic qualifications and has received several awards for theoretical knowledge but has shown lapses in professional conduct. The promotion panel is tasked with making a decision based on the 'merit-cum-seniority' rule as defined by the Supreme Court. According to the Supreme Court’s expansive view of 'merit,' which officer should be considered more meritorious for the promotion? (a) Officer X, because consistent professional conduct and integrity are crucial elements of merit. (b) Officer X, because average academic performance is outweighed by good professional conduct. (c) Officer Y, because high academic qualifications and awards for theoretical knowledge are the primary indicators of merit. (d) Officer Y, because lapses in professional conduct can be overlooked if the officer has high academic achievements. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 19 S=68-73): Medical negligence, also known as medical malpractice, refers to the failure of a healthcare professional to provide a standard of care that meets the required level of competence and skill, resulting in harm or injury to the patient. This failure can occur through an act of omission or commission. Not all adverse outcomes in medical treatment are necessarily the result of negligence, as medical treatment is not an exact science. To establish medical negligence, it must be shown that the healthcare professional breached their duty of care by failing to provide treatment that met the required standard. Medical negligence is a serious issue with significant consequences for patients, who have the right to seek legal redress and compensation for their injuries. Examples include misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, surgical errors, failure to obtain informed consent, and inadequate follow-up care. To establish medical negligence, certain essential elements must be proven: duty of care, breach of duty, causation, and damage. The healthcare professional must have had a duty of care to the patient and breached that duty by failing to provide the required standard of care. This breach must have directly caused harm or injury to the patient, resulting in physical, emotional, or financial damages. The burden of proof lies with the patient or their legal representative to demonstrate these elements. The expected standard of care may vary depending on the patient's medical history, age, and other circumstances. Unfavourable outcomes are not always due to negligence, but only when these essentials are satisfied can negligence be established. "Res Ipsa loquitur," meaning "the thing speaks for itself," is a legal maxim used in medical negligence cases to establish a presumption of negligence. This principle applies when the injury or harm would not ordinarily occur without negligence, was caused by an instrumentality within the healthcare professional's control, and was not due to any action or fault of the patient. If these conditions are met, the burden of proof shifts to the healthcare professional to prove they were not negligent. This maxim is not applicable in all cases, and each case must be evaluated on its own merits. Even with "res Ipsa loquitur," the plaintiff must still prove all other elements of medical negligence. For example, if a surgical patient suffers from a foreign object left inside their body, this maxim may apply, shifting the burden of proof to the healthcare professional. In India, medical negligence cases are governed by the Indian Penal Code, 1860, the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, and various judgments by the Supreme Court and High Courts. Key provisions include Section 304A of the IPC, dealing with causing death by negligence, and Sections 337 and 338, which address causing hurt and grievous hurt by acts endangering life or personal safety. The Consumer Protection Act allows patients to file complaints and seek compensation for medical negligence. Defences against medical negligence claims in India include error of judgment, acting in good faith during emergencies, and contributory negligence by the patient. [Extracted, with edits and revisions from, Medical Negligence Laws In India, LEGAL SERVICES INDIA] 68. According to the passage, which legal principle allows the presumption of negligence without direct proof and under what conditions can it be applied? (a) "Res Ipsa Loquitur" applies when the injury would not ordinarily occur without negligence, was caused by an instrumentality within the healthcare professional's control, and was not due to any action or fault of the patient. (b) "Res Ipsa Loquitur" applies when the healthcare professional fails to document the treatment provided, and the patient's condition worsens as a result. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 20 (c) "Res Ipsa Loquitur" applies in all cases where the patient suffers harm, shifting the burden of proof to the healthcare professional to prove they were not negligent. (d) "Res Ipsa Loquitur" applies when a patient signs a consent form acknowledging the risks but still suffers an injury during treatment. 69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential defense against medical negligence claims in India according to the passage? (a) Error of judgment. (b) Acting in good faith during emergencies. (c) Proving the standard of care was met. (d) Contributory negligence by the patient. 70. A 45-year-old patient with a known history of heart disease was admitted to the hospital with severe chest pain. Despite the patient’s condition, the attending cardiologist decided to treat him with medication instead of recommending immediate surgery. The patient later suffered a heart attack and passed away. The patient’s family sued the cardiologist for medical negligence, claiming that immediate surgery should have been performed. The cardiologist argued that the decision was made based on the patient's overall health and the risks associated with surgery. Based on similar case laws, determine if the cardiologist can be held liable for medical negligence. (a) The cardiologist is liable for medical negligence because the patient’s history of heart disease necessitated immediate surgery, which would have prevented the heart attack. (b) The cardiologist is not liable for medical negligence because medical decisions can vary and immediate surgery is not always the standard of care in such cases. (c) The cardiologist is liable for medical negligence because the duty of care was breached by not performing the surgery, irrespective of the risks involved. (d) The cardiologist is not liable for medical negligence because the family cannot prove that the surgery would have definitely prevented the heart attack. 71. During a routine appendectomy, the surgeon accidentally perforates the patient’s intestines. The patient develops a severe infection as a result. The surgeon explains that such complications are known risks of the procedure and that all necessary steps were taken to minimize this risk. The patient sues for medical negligence. Determine the outcome of this case based on the application of "Res Ipsa Loquitur." (a) The surgeon is liable for medical negligence because "Res Ipsa Loquitur" applies, and such an injury would not occur without negligence. (b) The surgeon is not liable for medical negligence because the patient was informed of the risks, and consented to the procedure with full knowledge of these risks. (c) The surgeon is liable for medical negligence because any injury during surgery is a breach of the standard of care. (d) The surgeon is not liable for medical negligence because "Res Ipsa Loquitur" does not apply to known complications of a procedure that are not necessarily due to negligence. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 21 72. A patient with diabetes was admitted for a minor foot surgery. Due to the hospital’s scheduling error, the patient was left without food or insulin for 24 hours prior to surgery. The patient suffered a diabetic coma and permanent neurological damage as a result. The hospital argues that the scheduling issue was an isolated incident and that all necessary protocols were otherwise followed. Determine the hospital's liability based on principles of medical negligence. (a) The hospital is liable for medical negligence because failing to provide insulin and food is a clear breach of the duty of care. (b) The hospital is not liable for medical negligence because the scheduling error was an isolated incident, and such errors can occur despite overall adherence to protocols. (c) The hospital is liable for medical negligence because the patient’s condition was directly caused by the hospital’s scheduling error. (d) The hospital is not liable for medical negligence because the error was unintentional, and negligence requires a deliberate act or omission. 73. How does the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, facilitate patients in cases of medical negligence according to the passage? (a) It provides a platform for patients to file complaints and seek compensation. (b) It mandates mandatory arbitration before filing a lawsuit. (c) It allows for criminal prosecution of healthcare professionals. (d) It requires healthcare professionals to carry malpractice insurance. S=74-80): Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is defined under Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). It involves an act done with the intention of causing death, or causing such bodily injury that is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death. This legal concept is distinct from murder, which is covered under Section 300 of the IPC, and involves a higher degree of intention and certainty in causing death. The essential ingredients to prove culpable homicide not amounting to murder are: The intention of causing death, The intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death and the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death. For instance, if a person A, not knowing that B has a brain tumour, hits B on the head with a cricket bat intending to cause death or with the knowledge that death is likely to result, and B dies due to the bursting of the tumour, A is liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder. Culpable homicide can lead to punishment under Section 304 of the IPC. This section differentiates between acts committed with the intention of causing death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, and those committed without such intention but with the knowledge that death is likely. The former can lead to life imprisonment or imprisonment for up to ten years, along with a fine. The latter can result in imprisonment for up to ten years and a fine. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder can also be complicated by the doctrine of transferred intent, as seen in cases where the intention to harm one person inadvertently causes the death of another. The principle of © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 22 transferred malice holds the perpetrator liable for the unintended death, reflecting the broad scope and nuanced application of culpable homicide laws under the IPC. Understanding these nuances is crucial for interpreting legal scenarios involving culpable homicide not amounting to murder, and it underscores the importance of intention, knowledge, and the specific circumstances of each case in the application of justice.[Extracted, with edits and revisions from Culpable Homicide under Indian Penal Code, IPLEADERS] 74. According to the passage, what is the key distinction between culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 299 IPC and murder under Section 300 IPC? (a) The intention to cause death is present in both, but murder requires a higher degree of certainty in causing death. (b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder involves no intention of causing death, whereas murder involves premeditated intention. (c) Murder requires both the intention to cause death and knowledge of the act's likelihood to cause death, while culpable homicide not amounting to murder requires only the intention to cause injury. (d) The presence of a brain tumor in the victim distinguishes culpable homicide from murder. 75. What are the potential punishments for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 IPC when the act is committed with the intention of causing death or such bodily injury as is likely to cause death? (a) Life imprisonment or imprisonment for up to ten years and a fine. (b) Life imprisonment or imprisonment for up to seven years and a fine. (c) Imprisonment for up to ten years and a fine, with no provision for life imprisonment. (d) Imprisonment for up to seven years and a fine, with no provision for life imprisonment. 76. How does the doctrine of transferred intent apply to cases of culpable homicide not amounting to murder? (a) It absolves the perpetrator if the death was unintentional and occurred to a different person than intended. (b) It holds the perpetrator liable only if the victim was the intended target. (c) It holds the perpetrator liable for the unintended death, reflecting a broad application of culpable homicide laws. (d) It applies only in cases of murder, not culpable homicide not amounting to murder. 77. Suppose Person C administers a moderate dose of a drug to Person D, believing it will only sedate D temporarily. However, D has a severe, undiagnosed allergic reaction to the drug and dies as a result. C was aware that administering drugs could potentially cause harm but did not intend to cause death. Can C be held liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 299 IPC? (a) Yes, because C had the intention of causing death. (b) Yes, because C had the knowledge that administering the drug is likely to cause death. (c) No, because C did not have the intention of causing death and was unaware of D's severe allergic reaction. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 23 (d) No, because C's act was an attempt to sedate D, not to cause any harm. 78. Person A, a martial artist, delivers a controlled yet forceful punch to Person B during a heated argument, not intending to cause death but aware that his actions are likely to cause significant harm. Unknown to A, B suffers from a rare heart condition that is aggravated by sudden physical trauma. B collapses and dies on the spot due to a heart attack triggered by the punch. Is A liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 299 IPC? (a) Yes, because A had the intention of causing death. (b) Yes, because A had the knowledge that the act is likely to cause death. (c) No, because A did not have the intention of causing death or knowledge of B's rare heart condition. (d) No, because B's death was due to a pre-existing condition which A was unaware of. 79. Person X, during a reckless driving incident, swerves to avoid hitting a stray animal but ends up hitting Person Y, a pedestrian. X did not intend to hit Y but was aware that his reckless driving could likely result in a fatal accident. Y succumbs to injuries sustained in the accident. Is X liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 299 IPC? (a) Yes, because X had the intention of causing death. (b) Yes, because X had the knowledge that reckless driving is likely to cause death. (c) No, because X did not have the intention of causing death. (d) No, because the act was unintentional and an attempt to avoid harm to the animal. 80. Person P, during a friendly wrestling match, applies a chokehold on Person Q, fully aware that chokeholds can be dangerous and potentially fatal. P does not intend to kill Q but uses excessive force. Q loses consciousness and dies due to asphyxiation caused by the chokehold. Is P liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder under Section 299 IPC? (a) Yes, because P had the intention of causing death. (b) Yes, because P had the knowledge that excessive force in a chokehold is likely to cause death. (c) No, because it was a consensual wrestling match without the intention to harm. (d) No, because Q's death was accidental and not foreseen by P. S=81-85): Conciliation is one of the amicable methods of the alternative dispute resolution system (ADR) that helps resolve disputes among the parties without the intervention of the court. Here, parties appoint an independent person, i.e., the Conciliator. The Industrial Disputes Act 1947 (ID Act) provided conciliation and adjudication as methods of solving industrial disputes. The process of conciliation starts with either party submitting the dispute to the Conciliation Office (CO) in writing. The CO may take an existing dispute for conciliation or even a dispute that he thinks is likely to happen in the future. The CO verifies the authenticity of the complaint and allows the employer to submit his statement of justification. Sometimes parties may choose to file the response with the help of lawyers, which is not allowed under the ID Act. Thereafter, the CO sends notices to both parties and tries to understand the © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 24 merits of the complaint. If the CO finds merit, he proceeds with the complaint and may ask for relevant documents to resolve the dispute. The CO may induce the parties to settle the dispute fairly and amicably. The CO may act as an advisor or mediator, guiding discussions and explaining the rationale of both parties. The CO may clarify misunderstandings or provide a suitable compromise to help them settle quickly. The CO persuades them by showing the pros and cons of settlement and adjudication The parties are not bound to agree to the settlement suggested by the CO and may opt for adjudication if they wish. If a settlement is reached, it becomes binding and equivalent to the award of the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal. If the settlement does not happen, the CO sends a detailed report to the Government, which may then refer the dispute to the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal. [Extracted with edits and revisions from, “Role of Conciliation in Industrial Disputes”, LIVELAW] 81. According to the passage, what is the primary role of the Conciliation Officer (CO) in the conciliation process under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947? (a) The CO acts solely as a mediator and cannot provide any suggestions or guidance to the parties. (b) The CO acts as an advisor or mediator, helping parties understand each other's positions and suggesting fair settlements. (c) The CO has the authority to impose a binding settlement if the parties cannot agree. (d) The CO’s main function is to collect and verify documents from both parties without actively engaging in the mediation process. 82. Company A and Union B are engaged in a dispute over the terms of a new collective bargaining agreement. Union B submits the dispute to the Conciliation Office (CO). During the process, the CO finds merit in the union's claims and attempts to mediate a settlement. However, Company A claims that the CO has shown bias towards the union by favoring their proposals and insists on adjudication. Union B, on the other hand, is willing to accept the settlement proposed by the CO. What is the best course of action for the CO in this situation? (a) The CO should continue to mediate and try to persuade Company A to accept the settlement to avoid adjudication. (b) The CO should immediately send a detailed report to the Government for referral to the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal, citing Company A's allegations of bias. (c) The CO should ensure that both parties feel heard by reevaluating the settlement proposal and attempting to address Company A’s concerns without showing bias. (d) The CO should finalize the settlement as Union B has accepted it, and Company A’s refusal does not invalidate the process. 83. A dispute arises between Company E and Union F regarding unsafe working conditions. The union submits the complaint to the CO. During the conciliation, the CO finds that Company E has indeed neglected safety protocols. However, the CO also discovers that Union F has been encouraging workers to exaggerate their complaints to strengthen their position. Both parties refuse to compromise, and the CO is unable to mediate a settlement. What should the CO do in this situation? © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 25 (a) The CO should propose a settlement that penalizes both parties for their respective misconduct. (b) The CO should report both the safety violations and the union's misconduct to the Government and recommend adjudication. (c) The CO should attempt to persuade Union F to withdraw its exaggerated complaints and focus on the genuine issues. (d) The CO should dismiss the conciliation process due to the misconduct from both parties and advise them to refile the dispute if they are willing to negotiate in good faith. 84. What is the significance of a settlement reached through conciliation as described in the passage? (a) It is considered a suggestion and not binding on the parties. (b) It becomes binding and is equivalent to the award of the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal. (c) It must be approved by a judge to become effective. (d) It is binding only on the party that initiated the dispute. 85. A dispute arises between Company L and Union M over the non-payment of bonuses. Union M submits the dispute to the Conciliation Office (CO). During the conciliation process, the CO finds merit in Union M’s complaint but Company L argues that they are facing financial difficulties and cannot pay the bonuses. The CO suggests a settlement where Company L pays a partial bonus now and the rest over the next six months. Union M accepts the proposal, but Company L refuses, insisting on adjudication. What should be the CO’s next step according to the passage? (a) The CO should finalize the settlement as Union M has accepted it, making it binding on both parties. (b) The CO should dismiss the complaint due to Company L’s refusal to agree to the settlement. (c) The CO should continue trying to persuade Company L to accept the proposed settlement. (d) The CO should send a detailed report to the Government for referral to the Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal. Logical Reasoning S=86-90): In 1995, a man named McArthur Wheeler robbed two banks in Pittsburgh without disguise, thinking lemon juice would make him invisible to cameras. Arrested that night, he was shocked to see himself on surveillance tapes. Psychologist David Dunning and student Justin Kruger coined the term "Dunning-Kruger effect" to describe the tendency for some people to overestimate their abilities. To investigate this phenomenon in the lab, Dunning and Kruger designed some clever experiments. In one study, they asked undergraduate students a series of questions about grammar, logic, and jokes and then asked each student to estimate his or her score overall, as well as their relative rank compared to the other students. Interestingly, students who scored the lowest in these cognitive tasks always overestimated how well they did – by a lot. Students who scored in the bottom quartile estimated that they had performed better than two-thirds of the other students! This ‘illusion of confidence’ extends beyond the classroom and permeates everyday life. In a follow-up study, Dunning and Kruger left the lab and went to a gun range, where they quizzed gun hobbyists about gun safety. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 26 Similar to their previous findings, those who answered the fewest questions correctly wildly overestimated their knowledge about firearms. Outside of factual knowledge, though, the Dunning-Kruger effect can also be observed in people’s self-assessment of a myriad of other personal abilities. If you watch any talent show on television today, you will see the shock on the faces of contestants who don’t make it past auditions and are rejected by the judges. While it is almost comical to us, these people are genuinely unaware of how much they have been misled by their illusory superiority. Sure, it’s typical for people to overestimate their abilities. One study found that 80 per cent of drivers rate themselves as above average – a statistical impossibility. And similar trends have been found when people rate their relative popularity and cognitive abilities. The problem is that when people are incompetent, not only do they reach wrong conclusions and make unfortunate choices but, also, they are robbed of the ability to realise their mistakes. In a semester-long study of college students, good students could better predict their performance on future exams given feedback about their scores and relative percentile. However, the poorest performers showed no recognition, despite clear and repeated feedback that they were doing badly. Instead of being confused, perplexed or thoughtful about their erroneous ways, incompetent people insist that their ways are correct. As Charles Darwin wrote in The Descent of Man (1871): ‘Ignorance more frequently begets confidence than does knowledge.’ 86. A company is considering two different marketing strategies to promote its new product. Strategy A involves spending $10,000 on television commercials, while Strategy B involves spending $5,000 on social media advertising. If the company chooses Strategy A, which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument that it is the better choice? (a) The company's target audience is primarily young adults who are active on social media. (b) The company's product is highly visual and would benefit from the visual impact of television commercials. (c) The company has a limited budget and cannot afford to spend more than $10,000 on marketing. (d) The company's competitors are currently running television commercials to promote their similar products. 87. Based on the text, which of the following can be most accurately inferred about the relationship between feedback and self-assessment accuracy in students? (a) All students, regardless of their initial performance, improve their self-assessment accuracy when given feedback. (b) Only students with above-average initial performance improve their self-assessment accuracy when given feedback. (c) Students who perform poorly initially are unlikely to improve their self-assessment accuracy even with feedback. (d) Feedback does not significantly affect self-assessment accuracy for any students. 88. A study found that students who use digital tools in the classroom perform better on standardized tests than those who do not. However, the study did not control for other factors that might influence the relationship © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 27 between digital tool use and test performance. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument that digital tools are the cause of the improved test performance? (a) The study only included students who were already proficient in using digital tools. (b) The study found that students who used digital tools in the classroom also had access to additional resources and support. (c) The study did not account for the possibility that students who use digital tools in the classroom may have a higher level of motivation or engagement. (d) All of the Above 89. If a company wanted to minimize the impact of the Dunning-Kruger effect among its employees, which of the following strategies would be most effective? (a) Providing employees with regular, detailed feedback about their performance. (b) Offering frequent opportunities for employees to compare their performance with peers. (c) Conducting workshops on self-assessment and metacognitive strategies. (d) Encouraging employees to set personal performance goals and track their progress. 90. A recent study found that people who are more optimistic tend to live longer than those who are less optimistic. However, the study also found that people who are more optimistic tend to engage in riskier behaviors that could shorten their lifespan. Which of the following, if true, would most help to resolve this apparent paradox? (a) The study found that the benefits of optimism on longevity are only seen in people who are over the age of 65. (b) The study found that the risks associated with optimism are only seen in people who are under the age of 30. (c) The study found that the benefits of optimism on longevity are only seen in people who have a strong social support network. (d) The study found that the risks associated with optimism are only seen in people who have a history of mental health issues. S=91-95): Twelve per cent of the world’s workforce, roughly 435 million people, rely on gigs for income. Demand is high in India, where it is estimated between 8 million and 18 million gig workers currently and a surge to 90 million within a decade. How do algorithms control the behaviour of millions of workers? Scholars identify multiple ways—precarity, intensity of work, competition, moving targets, and penalties for non-compliance. Despite using modern devices, gigs constitute informal labour. Workers are unrecognised as employees, and remain ineligible for traditional benefits. Performance metrics constantly shift. The expected baseline is so high that workers must put in long hours without breaks. Competition is cut-throat: clients may select skilled gig workers who offer low rates while the sheer number of delivery agents increases the pressure to find unskilled work. The promise of flexibility attracts individuals looking to control their schedules. However, the reality of gig work is bleak: workers are pressured to devote more hours by constantly taking on more work. Scholars call this the “autonomy paradox,” a phenomenon where the algorithm nudges people to work while © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 28 having them think that their decision was voluntary. When taken to its extreme, this results in necro capitalism where workers may be injured or killed. Deactivation raises concerns about fairness and worker protection. Algorithms could deactivate workers based on cancelling or not accepting rides, late delivery, fraud, poor customer ratings, or participating in protests. However, the opacity of algorithms stops workers from understanding specific reasons for deactivation, hindering their ability to address the issue. A University of Pennsylvania study found that 83% of Indian drivers working with popular ride-hailing apps experienced negative impacts of sudden deactivation. Reactivation is similarly inconsistent—resolution may vary from providing explanations to lengthy legal battles, leaving uneducated workers vulnerable to algorithmic power plays. This has fostered frustration among gig workers worldwide, leading to signed petitions and protests against platforms. Additionally, the threat of deactivation incentivises unsustainable behaviour. Grid-wise, an app designed to hack platform algorithms suggests that workers watch their backs by taking pictures of deliveries, checking orders, and wearing body cameras. Workers are advised to expend emotional labour to maintain positive customer interactions, like sending thank you notes. Superficial tasks like these may temporarily keep gig workers out of the algorithmic gaze, but it does nothing to address the core issue of abrupt deactivation. A comprehensive national policy must encompass the following—standardised deactivation criteria, a fair and repeatable reactivation process, and a human-centric redressal mechanism. One promising step is the Fair Work Legislation Amendment (Closing Loopholes) Act, 2023 enacted in Australia which empowers the Fair Work Commission (FWC) to set a minimum wage for gig workers. It introduces a framework to resolve disputes regarding deactivation. Platforms or worker collectives may approach the FWC to devise guidelines around payment terms, deductions, and storage of work records. Workers may approach the FWC if they perceive unfair deactivation, triggering an inquiry and evidence-based resolution. 91. What is the primary theme explored in the passage regarding the gig economy and algorithmic control? (a) The rapid growth of the gig economy necessitates government intervention to establish fair working conditions and protect workers from algorithmic power plays. (b) The surge of gig workers globally highlights the need for standardized policies to protect workers from algorithmic manipulation and unfair deactivation. (c) Despite the promises of flexibility, gig workers face significant challenges such as precarious work conditions and opaque algorithmic control. (d) The gig economy offers flexibility and opportunities for income generation, but algorithmic control undermines worker autonomy and leads to exploitation. 92. Which statement, if true, most strengthens the argument that algorithmic control in the gig economy contributes to worker exploitation and vulnerability? (a) Gig workers who adhere strictly to platform guidelines and performance metrics are less likely to experience sudden deactivation or penalties. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 29 (b) Platforms that prioritize transparency and provide detailed explanations for worker deactivations tend to have higher levels of worker satisfaction. (c) Research shows a correlation between prolonged exposure to algorithmic control and increased rates of stress, burnout, and job dissatisfaction among gig workers. (d) Workers who actively engage in superficial tasks to evade algorithmic scrutiny report higher job satisfaction and feelings of security in their positions. 93. Which statement, if true, would most weaken the argument that gig work provides flexibility despite algorithmic control? (a) Gig workers who prioritize self-care and set boundaries around their work hours tend to experience less algorithmic pressure and job insecurity. (b) Platforms that allow gig workers to negotiate rates and select assignments based on personal preferences tend to have higher worker satisfaction ratings. (c) Research indicates that gig workers have more control over their schedules and workloads compared to traditional employees in similar roles. (d) Gig workers who attempt to circumvent algorithmic control by engaging in superficial tasks report higher levels of stress and dissatisfaction with their work. 94. What is a potential flaw in the argument advocating for comprehensive national policies to address issues in the gig economy, as outlined in the passage? (a) Failing to consider the feasibility and implementation challenges of enforcing standardized policies across diverse gig platforms and regions. (b) Overlooking the role of consumer demand and market forces in shaping gig platforms' policies and practices, which may limit the effectiveness of government regulations. (c) Assuming that government intervention alone can effectively regulate gig platforms without considering potential collaboration with international regulatory bodies. (d) Ignoring the potential unintended consequences of government intervention, such as stifling innovation or driving gig platforms out of business. 95. Which statement presents a paradox regarding gig workers' autonomy and algorithmic control? (a) Gig workers have the freedom to set their own schedules, yet they feel compelled to accept as many gigs as possible to maintain their income levels. (b) Platforms claim to empower gig workers through flexibility, yet they exert control through opaque algorithms that dictate work assignments and conditions. (c) The promise of autonomy attracts individuals to gig work, yet the reality is that algorithmic control often overrides workers' choices and decisions. (d) Gig workers have the autonomy to negotiate rates and conditions, yet they face penalties or deactivation for non-compliance with platform rules. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 30 S=96-100): We are living in the age of images; it may be referred to as “image-time.” The images come to us through various kinds of orality, learned perceptions, electronic–print media, and also through various virtual social sites. We consume images, recreate them, and distribute them among others. We distribute them to others through the same media through which they come to us such as oral, visual, and aural. There are two types of images—those that have a shorter life and those with a longer life. The images that have a long life may transform into symbols after some time by going through constant additions, deletions, and modifications. Since we are living in “image time,” image politics has acquired a central position in the politics of India as well. The politics which was being observed and analysed in the media and the political sphere as the “age of narrative” is now being turned into an “age of images.” Interestingly, “narrative,” which was portrayed as being central to Indian politics in the previous decade, has now acquired a supplementary status and only contributes as one of the constituents of the politics of image-making. That is why the famous Czech novelist and thinker Milan Kundera called this age the age of imagology. There may be various meanings to this term. One of the emerging meanings of it in democratic politics all over the world is the trend of squeezing ideologies, messages of governance, and political arguments in powerful and catchy slogans and evolving the images of leaders through various popular devices. In this grammar of image-making, the art of the simplification of ideology and messages matters a lot. The capacity to create constant coherence and forging an internal continuum among multiple images of a leader makes the images influential among the common masses. The understanding of realities, maatee– paani (rootedness, culture, and life universes), the moral setting of the society, grassroots aspirations, and popular mentalities together play an important role in an image-building endeavour. This entire image-building exercise is not an individual act. It is a collective act in which the self of a leader and also others get combined. This universe of others is forged by the political parties, their cadres, advertising agencies, political campaign managers, image designers, opinion makers, and the common people. When these domains combine with each other coherently, without producing contradictions and anarchy of messages, a popular image of the leader is produced which enters the hearts and minds of the common people through its drishya (image dimension) and messages. However, images reflect reality, but sometimes, images often appear stronger than reality. They create a reflection of reality which may be seen as an extension of reality, and at other times, even an alternate reality. 96. What is the central idea of the passage? (a) The shift from narrative-based to image-based politics has simplified the way political ideologies are communicated to the masses. (b) The collective effort of various entities plays a crucial role in the creation and maintenance of a political leader's image. (c) The proliferation of images in modern society has led to a new form of politics where image creation and management are paramount. (d) None of the Above © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 31 97. What can be inferred about the relationship between narrative and image in the current political climate? (a) Narrative has completely lost its importance in favor of image-based politics. (b) The decline of narrative signifies a loss of depth in political communication. (c) Narrative now plays a supporting role in the larger framework of image-based politics. (d) Image and narrative are equally important in contemporary politics. 98. Which of the following statements would most strengthen the argument that image-building in politics is a collective act? (a) Political leaders frequently consult with advertising agencies to refine their public image. (b) A political leader's image relies on the coherence between multiple contributing entities. (c) Political campaigns increasingly use social media platforms to disseminate images. (d) Public perception of political leaders is influenced more by their actions than by their images. 99. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the notion that image politics is more influential than narrative politics? (a) Political campaigns that focus solely on images without narratives tend to have lower voter engagement. (b) Social media platforms are developing new tools to highlight long-form content and detailed narratives. (c) Leaders with strong narrative skills tend to perform better in debates and public forums. (d) None of the Above 100. What is the flaw in the argument that the age of images has led to the rise of image-based politics in India? (a) The passage does not provide enough evidence to support the claim that the age of images has replaced the age of narratives in Indian politics. (b) The passage does not explain why the age of images has led to the simplification of ideologies and messages in Indian politics. (c) The passage does not discuss the potential negative consequences of the rise of image-based politics in India. (d) The passage does not consider the role of other factors, such as technological advancements or changes in media consumption, in the rise of image-based politics. S=101-105): Section 376C of the IPC (Section 68 of the BNS) covers situations where there was consent at the time of the sexual intercourse, which was not vitiated. But the terminology “not amounting to rape” under Section 69 of the BNS causes ambiguity as deceit conceptually vitiates consent; and so does a breach of promise, which involves the accused not having any intention of going through with the promise. Furthermore, it is noted that Sections 68 and 69 of the BNS overlap. In the former, it is illegal to use authority or fiduciary connections to force women into having sex, whereas in the latter, it is illegal to have intercourse through dishonest tactics and false marriage vows. Section 69 remains vague on the word "sexual intercourse," despite Section 68 clearly defining it as sexual acts beyond peno-vaginal penetration. Furthermore, Section 69 only specifies a maximum sentence of ten years rather than a minimum. This clause allows the government to © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 32 maintain the colonial criminal philosophy by placing an excessive emphasis on incarceration and required minimum penalty as a means of instilling terror in the public. Feminist scholars have argued that the law permits the terrorization and sexualization of women’s bodies. The courts interpreted the offence of false promise to marry under rape as these cases were at their peak in 2016, and the main target were women who either belonged to educationally and socially backward classes or were incapable of seeking legal remedies. The courts aimed to punish the accused with the same punishment as rape as consent was not free and created a fear of deterrence. Concerns about how the judiciary interprets false marriage pledges under the IPC, where a woman's free assent is closely examined, have also been brought up by feminist scholars. A woman's permission is not deemed to have been breached because of her age, history of sexual experience, marital status, level of education, or social background, according to a number of precedents. If a woman meets any of the aforementioned requirements, it is presumed that she is of legal age to give permission. Women's autonomy has been severely hampered by this interpretation, which also upholds patriarchal standards. The courts have exempted the accused from a breach of promise when the promise of marriage is broken due to genuine reasons. However, this is merely circumstantial evidence and does not prove the man’s malicious intentions. In such cases, the man’s intentions become the core issue of the case and shift the burden of proof on the woman to prove that her consent was violated. The codification of an offense creates more ambiguity in proving a man’s intention. It takes away the autonomy of a woman to give free consent or have a mind of her own to perform consensual sexual intercourse. The law re-victimises women regardless of their educational or societal background. Previously, such cases were judged through courts’ interpretation, giving them a broader scope and room for improvement. However, the codification of the offence needs to be clarified and made consistent with its purpose of safeguarding women’s rights. India has historically followed the concept of endogamy even before we gained independence, and it has been a massive struggle since then to abolish it and find a way forward that allows a person to choose their partner freely. Section 69 of the BNS becomes a tool to curtail that freedom. It acts as a threat to bring back the struggles and oppressions from the past, which have led to not only the exploitation of women but also men belonging to lower castes or marginalised communities. It could be argued that Section 69 of the BNS will promote endogamy within society under the umbrella of allegedly safeguarding women from sexual exploitation. This can be foreseen in circumstances where the guardians of the couple gain knowledge of the premarital sexual relationship of the couple, thereby initiating criminal proceedings of rape, especially by the guardians of the girl under Section 69 of the BNS. The fear of criminal proceedings under Section 69, not for a lack of consent but because of consent, will act as a tool for promoting endogamy.[Extracted with edits and revisions from, What happens under the proposed new law if you break a promise to marry? | In Focus podcast, THE HINDU] 101. Identify the statement which is/are critique of the law's interpretation and implications: i. It places the burden of proof on the woman to prove that her consent was violated ii. It exempts the accused from a breach of promise when the promise of marriage is broken due to genuine reasons iii. It upholds patriarchal standards and severely hampers women's autonomy © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 33 iv. It creates more ambiguity in proving a man's intention (a) Only iii and iv (b) Only i, ii, and iv (c) Only i and iii (d) All of them 102. Which assumption underlies the argument that Section 69 of the BNS perpetuates patriarchal standards? (a) Women are inherently more vulnerable than men in matters of consent. (b) The legal system is designed to prioritize the rights and autonomy of women. (c) The interpretation of legal statutes can reflect and perpetuate societal power dynamics. (d) Patriarchal standards are universally acknowledged as harmful and in need of eradication. 103. Which statement best highlights the paradox presented in the passage regarding the interpretation of false promise cases under the IPC? (a) The law aims to punish perpetrators of false promise cases with the severity of rape, yet genuine reasons for breaking a promise often absolve the accused. (b) The legal system places the burden of proof on women in false promise cases, while simultaneously aiming to protect their rights and autonomy. (c) Feminist scholars argue that false promise cases disproportionately target marginalized women, yet the law treats all cases equally. (d) Despite advances in legal interpretation, false promise cases continue to pose challenges to women's autonomy and rights. 104. What is a flaw in the reasoning presented regarding the potential consequences of Section 69 of the BNS on promoting endogamy? (a) The passage assumes that criminal proceedings under Section 69 are solely initiated by the guardians of the girl, neglecting other possible scenarios. (b) There is insufficient evidence provided to support the claim that Section 69 directly promotes endogamy within society. (c) The passage fails to consider alternative interpretations of Section 69 that may mitigate its potential to promote endogamy. (d) The argument relies heavily on historical context without sufficiently analyzing contemporary social dynamics. 105. Which assumption is implicit in the argument that the codification of Section 69 of the BNS creates ambiguity in proving a man’s malicious intentions? (a) Malicious intentions can be objectively determined based on legal definitions and precedents. (b) The burden of proof in criminal cases should primarily lie with the accused rather than the accuser. © Compiled by Clat Essentials. CE/CM/O/89761 Mock Test 2024-25 (Clat 2025) 34 (c) The legal system should prioritize safeguarding women's rights over preserving traditional notions of innocence until proven guilty. (d) Ambiguity in legal statutes inevitably leads to injustice and victimization of marginalized groups. S=106-110): Vietnam has been pressuring the Biden administration to reclassify its economy from "non-market economy" to "market economy" in order to escape the heavy tariffs the US imposes on commodities imported from the Southeast Asian nation. For over twenty years, Communist Vietnam has been included in Washington's list of nations with non-market economies, which also includes China and Russia. The status of Vietnam is presently being examined by the US Department of Commerce. The review will conclude by the end of July. The US uses a number of criteria to classify a nation as having a nonmarket economy. These include whether the nation's currency is convertible, whether labor and management freely negotiate to set pay rates, whether joint ventures or other foreign investments are permitted, whether the government owns the means of production and whether the government has the final say over resource allocation, pricing, and output decisions. Huma

CLAT Essentials Mock Test 2024-25 (CLAT 2025) PDF

Document Details

Tags

Related

Summary

Full Transcript

Upgrade to continue