Zoology Past Paper PDF

Zoology Class – XII Group –A (1 Mark) Choose the correct answer from the choices given under each question 1. The mammalian corpus luteum produces (i) Estrogen (ii) Progesterone (iii) Luteotropic hormo...

Zoology Class – XII Group –A (1 Mark) Choose the correct answer from the choices given under each question 1. The mammalian corpus luteum produces (i) Estrogen (ii) Progesterone (iii) Luteotropic hormone (iv) Luteinizing hormone 2. The function of the secretion of Prostate gland is to (i) stimulate sperm activity (ii) attaract sperms (iii) inhibit sperm activity (iv) nourish sperms 3. The major part of the semen is the secretion of (i) cowper’s gland (ii) prostate gland (iii) perineal gland (iv) seminiferous tubules 4. In most mammals the testes are located in scrotal sac for (i) sex differentiation (ii) spermatogenesis (iii) more space to visceral organ (iv) independent functioning of kidney 5. Corpus luteum is developed from (i) Leftover oocyte (ii) nephrostome (iii) Leftover graffian follicle after release of ovum (iv) none of these 6. The sperm become motile in human being in (i) semini ferrous tubules (ii) vas deferens (iii) epididymis (iv) seminal vesicles 7. Which of the following has haploid chromosome? (i) oogonia (ii) primary oocyte (iii) secondary oocyte (iv) primary spermatocyte 8. Egg released by Graffian follicle is surrounded by (i) Zona pelucida (ii) Vitelline membrane (iii) Plasma membrane (iv) all of the above 9. A human female reaches menopause around the age of (i) 70 years  (ii) 25 years (iii) 15 years (iv) 50 years 10. The differentiation of sex takes place (i) at the time of gamete fusion (ii) before fertilization (iii) at the time of gamete formation (iv) none of the above 11. During the ovulatory phase, the structure called corpus luteum is formed from (i) ruptured Graffian follicle (ii) epididymis (iii) isogamates (iv) endometrium 12. Seminiferous tubules are found in (i) Testis (ii) Ovary (iii) Liver (iv) Kidney 13. Sterilisation technique is (i) Loop (ii) Diaphragm (iii) Tubectomy (iv) Cervical cap 14. Causes of world population explosion is (i) Better health care (ii) increased agricultural production (iii) more jobs (iv) fewer wars 15. A contraceptive pill contains (i) progesterone and estrogen (ii) spermicidal salts (iii) chemicals that cause automatic abortion (iv) chemicals that prevent fertilization of ovum. 16. An IUCD is (i) Copper – T (ii) Condom (iii) Vasectomy (iv) Pill. 17. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent (i) Coitus (ii) Egg formation (iii) Fertilization (iv) Embryonic development 18. Which is related to males? (i) Oral pill (ii) Tubectormy (iii) Vasectormy (iv) None of the above 19. The test which is used for study of genetic and metabolic defects of an unborn baby is (i) Amniocentesis  (ii) Erythroblastosis (iii) cystic fibrosis (iv)phenylketonuria 20. In which of the following methods Zygotes or early embryo and blastomeres could be transferred into the fallopian tube? (i) GIFT (ii) IUT (iii) ZIFT (iv) ICSI 21. Which of the following can be used as an emergency contraceptives to avoid possible pregnancy: (i) Progestogens (ii) IUD within 72 hours (iii) Diaphragms (iv) (i) & (ii) 22. Couple unable to produce children inspite at unprotected sexual cohabitation is termed as: (i) Impotency (ii) Infertility (iii) STD (iv) PID 23. In injectable form of the hormone based contraceptive is (i) Norplant (ii) Depo-prorera (iii) Mala-D (iv) Saheli 24. Test tube baby is the one (i) Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb (ii) Growth of human baby inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus (iii) Ova from wife/ donor(female) and sperme from husband/ donor(male) and are induced to form zygote by (INF) and then implanted in female. (iv) Baby born after artificial insemination. 25. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by (i) random mating (ii) Lack of migration (iii) Lack of mutation (iv) Lack of random mating 26. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to (i) Intraspecific competition (ii) Interspecific competition (iii) Competition within closely related species (iv) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species. 27. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolved similar phenotypic adaptation in response to a common environmental challenge is called (i) natural selection (ii) convergent evolution (iii) nonrandom evolution (iv) adaptive radiation 28. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as (i) adaptive radiation (ii) natural selection (iii) migration (iv) divergent evolution 29. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him? (i) Weismann – Theory of continuity of germplasm (ii) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters (iii) Devries – Natural selection (iv) Mendel – Theory of pangenesis 30. Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of (i) adaptive radiation (ii) seasonal migration (iii) broad parasitism (iv) connecting link 31. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation the phenomenon is termed (i) divergent evolution (ii) co-evolution (iii) micro-evolution (iv) convergent evolution 32. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as (i) ancestry (ii) paleontology (iii) ontogeny (iv) phylogeny 33. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes? (i) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only (ii) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only (iii) Evidence from fossil remains and the fossil mitochondrial alone (iv) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria. 34. Darwin in his ‘Natural selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution? (i) Discontinuous variations (ii) Parasites and predators as natural enemies (iii) Survival of the fittest (iv) Struggle for existence 35. In which era reptiles were dominant? (i) Coenozoic era (ii) Mesozoic era (iii) Paleozoic era (iv) Archeozoic era 36. Homo sapiens evolved during (i) Pleistocene (ii) Pliocene (iii) Oligocene  (iv) Miocene 37. Which of the following are homologous organs? (i) Wings of insects and bat (ii) gills of fish and lungs of rabbit (iii) pectoral fins of fish and fore limbs of horse (iv) wings of grashopper and crow. 38. Life originated on earth about (i) 2.5 billion years ago (ii) 3.5 billion years ago (iii) 4.5 billion years ago (iv) 5.5 billion years ago 39. Which is not a case of chromosomal aberration? (i) Recombination (ii) Inversion (iii) Duplication (iv) Translocation 40. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from (i) large population size (ii) highly genetically variable (iii) interbreeding within this population (iv) constant low mutation rate 41. Monocytes differentiate into which kind of phagocytic cells? (i) B – cells (ii) macrophages (iii) neutrophils (iv) T – cells 42. If a graft is always rejected, it is called: (i) Homograft (ii) Isograft (iii) Autograft (iv) Heterograft 43. The principal lines of defence in our body are (i) one (ii) two (iii) three (iv) numerous 44. Which is an autoimmune disease? (i) Asthma (ii) Cancer (iii) Rheumatoid arthritis (iv) None of the above 45. General defence system of body forms (i) Acquired immunity (ii) Innate immunity (iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) none of these 46. The major phagocytic cells are (i) Lymphocytes (ii) Macrophages (iii) Plasma cells  (iv) Mast cells 47. Immunoglobulins are (i) antibodies (ii) antigen (iii) antibiotic (iv) antiseptic 48. LSD is derived from (i) Cocoa plant (ii) Poppy plant (iii) Hemp plant (iv) Fungus 49. Excessive consumption of alcohol damages (i) Liver (ii) Heart (iii) Lung (iv) Kidney 50. Which part of the brain has earliest ill effects in a drunk person: (i) Cerebrum (ii) Cerebellum (iii) Medulla (iv) Mid brain 51. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? (i) within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person (ii) when the infected retro virus enters host cells (iii) when HIV damages large number of helper T-lymphocytes (iv) when the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase 52. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by (i) drinking water containing egg of Ascaris (ii) eating imperfectly cooked park (iii) tse – tse fly (iv) mosquito bite 53. Ringworm in humans is called by (i) bacteria (ii) fungi (iii) nematodes (iv) viruses 54. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection? (i) MRI (ii) Ultra sound (iv) ELISA 55. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized by administering (i) dead germs (ii) performed antibodies (iii) wide spectrum antibodies (iv) weakened germs 56. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases? (i) Ringworm, AIDS (ii) Common cold, AIDS (iii) Dysentery, Common Cold  (iv) Typhoid, tuberculosis 57. Salmonella is related with (i) Typhoid (ii) Polio (iii) TB (iv) Tetanus 58. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (i) Glossina palpalis – Sleeping Sickness (ii) Culex pipiens – Filariasis (iii) Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever (iv)Anopheles culccfacies – Leishmaniasis 59. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is (i) DNA probe (ii) RNase (iii) Alkaline phospatase (iv) Catalase 60. Which of these is most infectious disease? (i) Hepatitis – B (ii) AIDS (iii) Cough & Cold (iv) Malaria 61. Typhoid fever is caused by (i) Giardia (ii) Salmonella (iii) Shigella (iv) Escherichia 62. If a person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he got an infection of (i) typhoid (ii) measles (iii) tetanus (iv) malaria 63. Which of the following disease is now consider hearly eradicated from India? (i) Smallpox (ii) Polia myelitis (iii) Plasue (iv) Kal-azar 64. Passive immunity was discovered by (i) Edward Jenner (ii) Emil von Behring (iii) Robert Koch (iv) Louis Pasteur 65. In which one of the following pairs of diseases both are caused by viruses? (i) Tetanus & typhoid (ii) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness (iii) Syphills and AIDS (iv) Measles and rabies 66. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction? (i) Goitre (ii) Skin cancer  (iii) Hay fever (iv) Enteric fever 67. Botulism caused by clostriadium botulinum affects the (i) Spleen (ii) intestine (iii) lymphgland (iv) neuromuscular junction 68. Cercbral malaria is caused by plasmodium (i) Vivax (ii) Ovale (iii) Falciparum (iv) All of the above 69. Anthrax is caused by (i) Vibrio (ii) Bacillus (iii) Salmonella (iv) Virus 70. Entamoeba histolytica infection occurs through (i) Mosquito bite (ii) Bird droppings (iii) Sweat (iv) Contaminated food and water 71. Which masquito species are primarily responsible for dengue fever? (i) Aedes albopictus (ii) Anopheles gambiae (iii) Aedes aegypti (iv) Culiseta annulata 72. Which of the following are the diagnostics methods for dengue? (i) RT – PCR (ii) Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATS) (iii) Enzyme – linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA) (iv) All of the above 73. What is the cansative agent of Chikungunya fever? (i) virus (ii) bacteria (iii) fungus (iv) parasite 74. What is the inlubation period for Chickungunya virus? (i) 1 – 2 days (ii) 3 – 7 days (iii) 1 – 2 weeks (iv) 2 – 3 weeks 75. Diptheria is caused by (i) Poisons realesed dead bacterial cells into the host tissue (ii) Poisons released by living bacterial cells into the host tissue. (iii) Poisonss released by virus into the host tissues (iv) Excessive immune response by the host’s body. 76. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA? (i) Bacterial artificial chromosome (ii) Yeast artificial chromosome  (iii) Plasmid (iv) Cosmid 77. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (i) vector (ii) plasmid (iii) selectable marker (iv) probe 78. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms? (i) Baculovirus (ii) Salmonella typhimurium (iii) Rhizopus nigricans (iv) Retrovirus 79. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery of (i) restriction endonuclease (ii) DNA ligase (iii) transcriptase (iv) primase 80. The process of replication in plasmid DNA, other than initiation, is controlled by (i)mitochondrial gene (ii) bacterial gene (iii) plasmid gene (iv) none of the above 81. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are (i) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella (ii) Escherichia and Agrobacterium (iii) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (iv) Rhizobium and Diplococcus 82. Which of the following is related to genetic engineering? (i) mutation (ii) plasmid (iii) plastid (iv) heterosis 83. Nandankanan Zoo is famous for (i) White tiger (ii) Whale (iii) Hippopotamus (iv) Nilgiri tahr 84. The organization which publishes the Red List of species is (i) ICFRE (ii) IUCN (iii) UNED (iv) WWF 85. An ex-situ method of conservation of endangered species is: (i) Biosphere reserve (ii) Wildlife sanctuary (iii) National park (iv) Cryopreservation  ANSWER Q. No. Key Q. No. Key Q. No. Key Q. No. Key 1 ii 23 ii 45 ii 67 iv 2 i 24 iii 46 ii 68 iii 3 ii 25 iv 47 i 69 ii 4 ii 26 ii 48 iv 70 iv 5 iii 27 ii 49 i 71 i 6 iii 28 iv 50 i 72 iii 7 iii 29 i 51 iii 73 i 8 iv 30 i 52 i 74 ii 9 iv 31 iv 53 ii 75 ii 10 i 32 iv 54 iv 76 iii 11 i 33 iv 55 ii 77 iv 12 i 34 i 56 ii 78 iv 13 iii 35 ii 57 i 79 i 14 i 36 i 58 iv 80 ii 15 i 37 iii 59 iii 81 ii 16 i 38 ii 60 i 82 ii 17 iii 39 i 61 ii 83 i 18 iii 40 iii 62 ii 84 ii 19 i 41 iii 63 i 85 iv 20 iii 42 iv 64 i 21 iv 43 iii 65 iv 22 ii 44 iii 66 iii Fill in the blanks with correct answer. (1 mark Questions) 1. The degenerated corpus luteum is called _____________. 2. The test is of man are connected with the scrotal sac by _______________. 3. Sacs in which tests are lodged are called ______________. 4. The ________________ is the cavity of gastrula. 5. Failure of descending testis into the scrotum is called _____________. 6. The mature follicles are termed as ______________________. 7. External genitalia of female is ___________________. 8. Human seminal fluid is _________________ in nature. 9. Embryonic membranes are formed from _______________ of blastula. 10. Gestation period of human female is ______________ days. 11. During maturation the sperms get nourishment from ___________________. 12. Acrosome of sperm is formed from _______________. 13. Development of fertilized ovum starts with ________________. 14. The process which transforms zygote to morula is called _______________. 15. Vasectomy is the surgical cutting of ___________________. 16. Immediately after parturition, women experience _____________ amenorrhoea. 17. A state of healthy reproductive organs with normal function is ________________. 18. Genital warts are caused by _________________. 19. Trichomonas vaginalis lives in _____________________ of female. 20. Methods of preserving sperm in frozen condition is called _____________________. 21. Fertility treatment with donor eggs is usually done using _________________. 22. The mutation theory was proposed by _________________. 23. Theory of recapitulation was postulated by ___________________. 24. ………………….. in support of evolution is in form of ________________. 25. Natural selection operates only in _________________ troints. 26. Abiogenesis of simple organic molecules was experimentally supported by _______________. 27. A reducing atmosphere lacks free ___________________. 28. Origin of life occurred in ___________________ period. 29. Life originated in ___________________. 30. The raw material for evolutionary change is __________________. 31. The sum total of all the genes in a population is ___________________. 32. Ultimate source of variation is _________________. 33. Concept of genetic drift was introduced by _______________. 34. Different species occurring in different geographical areas are known as _________________. 35. Mutation theory cannot explain ________________. 36. Sedimentary rock is the richest source of ____________________. 37. _____________________ parasite causes Malaria. 38. Vaccine was first disovered by _____________________. 39. ________________ transmit filarial worm. 40. ________________ antibody is the largest antibody. 41. Father of immunology is ___________________. 42. HIV virus causes ____________________ disease. 43. Red date book was complied by ______________________. 44. Dolphins are found in ____________________ sanctuary of Odisha. 45. Wild life week is observed in _______________ month of every year. 46. ______________ is a bird sanctuary in Odisha. 47. The concept of “Biosphere reserve” was suggested by _______________. 48. World Environment day is observed on _________________. 49. World biodiversity day is observed on ____________________. 50. Project tiger was lunched by the Central Government in the year ________________. 51. MAB stands for ___________________. 52. Dengue is transmitted by ___________________. 53. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by _________________. 54. _______________ responsible for disease pneumonia. 55. Malignant malaria is caused by _________________. 56. The causative agent of Chikungunya is _______________. 57. Filaria is caused by _______________. 58. Cells involved in immune mechanism are ______________. 59. The term antibiotic was coined by ________________. 60. Interferons are _______________. Answers of fill in the blanks. 1. Corpus albican 2. Gubernaculum 3. Scrotal sac 4. Archenteron 5. Cryptorchidism 6. Graffian follicle 7. Vulva 8. Alkaline 9. Trophoblast 10. 280 days 11. Sertosi cells 12. Galgibody 13. Cleavage 14. Cleavage 15. Vas deferens 16. Lactational 17. reproductive health 18. HPV 19. vagina 20. crypreservation 21. IVF 22. Hugo de vries 23. Haeckel 24. Fossils 25. inherited 26. Stanley 27. oxygen 28. Pre-cambrian 29. Water 30. Variation 31. Gene pool 32. mutation 33. sewall wright 34. Allopatric 35. Mimicry 36. fossils 37. Plasmodium 38. Edward Jenner 39. Culex masquito 40. IgM 41. Sir Edward Jenner 42. AIDS 43. IUCN 44. Bhitarkanika 45. October 46. Nalabana 47. UNESCO 48. 5th June 49. 29th December 50. 1973 51. Man and Biosphere programme 52. Aedes Mosquito 53. Widal test 54. Streptococcus premoniae 55. Plasmodium falciparum 56. Chikngunya virus (CHIKV) 57. Wuchereria brancraffi 58. Lymphocytes 59. Selmen waksman 60. Group – B Write notes on the following (Restrict each answer within 2 to 3 important sentences) 2.5 marks Human Reproduction 1. What is a Placenta? 2. What are the function of Placenta? 3. What is Puberty? 4. What are composition of Semen? 5. What is a Corpus luteum? 6. What is follicular atresia? 7. Explain “Placenta is an endocrine gland”. 8. Explain LH surge. 9. Explain the role of LH in both male and female. 10. What is Menopause? 11. What is Luteal phase? 12. Define Lactation. 13. What is Graafian follicle? 14. What is amphimixis? 15. Explain the importance of fertilizin and anti-fertilizing. 16. What is implantation? 17. What is an umbilical cord? 18. What is amnion? Reproductive Health 1. What is amino centesis? 2. What is tubectomy? 3. What are STDS? Give example. 4. What are the signivicances of IUDS? 5. Define MTP. 6. 7. Mention the different barrier methods of family planning. 8. Mention the different natural methods of birth control. 9. Explain chemical method of birth control. 10. What is IVF? 11. What is surrogate mother? 12. What is ZIFT? 13. What is GIFT? Genetion 1. What is Criss-cross inheritance? 2. What is free martin? 3. Define Genic balance theory. 4. What is Thalassemia? 5. What is gynandromorphy? 6. What is Dowrin syndrome? 7. What is Turnerin syndrome? 8. What is Klinefelter’s syndrome? 9. What do you mean by autosomes? 10. What is Holoandric gene? 11. What is Sex reversal? 12. What is barr body? Evolution 1. Explain genetic drift. 2. What is bottleneck effect? 3. What is adaptive radiation? 4. What is founder effect? 5. What is gene flow? 6. What is Hardy Weinbergo principle? 7. What is speciation? 8. Explain the theory of recapitulation. 9. Write three Crdticism’s of Darwinism. 10. Explain Vestigeal organs. 11. Define Homologous Organs. 12. Define analogous organs. 13. Define Atavism. 14. What are Coacervates? 15. What are fossils? 16. Explain Miller-urey experiment. 17. What do you mean by chemical evolution? Human Health and Diseases 1. What is Immunity? 2. What is allergy? 3. What are the different types of cancer? 4. Give a note on antibody. 5. What are the Common problems of adolescence? 6. How can AIDS be prevented? 7. How one can prevent mosquito bite? 8. What are the effects of tobacco use in the body? 9. What are the effects of alcoholism in the body? 10. Write a short note on amoebiasis. 11. What are the different species of malarias parasite? 12. What are the reasons of drug abuse by the youth? 13. What kind of psychological changes characterize adolescence? Bio-technology Principles and Processes 1. What are essential features of a vector? 2. What is gene cloning? 3. What is recombinant DNA? 4. What are Plasmids? 5. What is genetic engineering? 6. Explain PCR. 7. Define gel electro phoresis. 8. What is a Pallindrome? Biodiversity and its Conservation 1. Define biodiversity. 2. What is Red data book? 3. Define bio sphere reserves. 4. Define sanctuaries. 5. What is Ramsar sites? 6. Define Sacred groves. 7. Write a note on biodiversity hot spot of Odisha. Group – B Differentiate between (3.5 marks) Human Reproduction 1. Spermatogenesis and Spermiogenesis 2. Corpus Luteum and Corpus albicans 3. Sertoli Cell and Leydig Cell 4. Follicular phase and Luteal phase 5. Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis 6. Sperm and Ovum 7. Vas deferens and Vas efferentia 8. Testes and Ovary 9. Fertilizin and Antifertilizin Reproductive Health 1. Tubectomy and Vasectomy 2. Safe Period and Unsafe Period 3. Chemical method and Natural method 4. Spacing method and Terminal method 5. ZIFT and GIFT  Genetics 1. Phenotype and Genotype 2. Autosome and Allosome 3. Super male and Super female 4. Gynandromorph and Free martin 5. Down Syndrome and Turner Syndrome 6. ‘X’ Chromosome and ‘Y’ Chromosome Evolution 1. Convergent evolution and Divergent evolution 2. Somatic variation and Germinal variation 3. Abiogenesis and Biogenesis 4. Homologous organs and Analogous organs 5. Fossils and Living Fossils 6. Natural selection and Genetic drift 7. Chromosomal aberration and Gene mutation 8. Euploidy and Aneuploidy 9. Moulds and Costs Human Health and Diseases 1. Vaccination and Immunization 2. Innate immunity and Acquired immunity 3. Cell mediated immunity and Humoral immunity 4. Benigm tumour and Malignant tumour 5. Carcinoma and Sarcoma 6. T-Lymphocytes and B-Lymphocytes 7. Antigen and Antibody 8. Active Immunity and Passive Immunity 9. Communicable and non – Communicable disease 10. Infection and Infestation Biotechnology – Principles and Processes 1. DNA polymerase and DNA ligase 2. Plasmid and Cosmid Biodiversity and Its Conservation 1. In situ and ex situ Conservation 2. National park and Sanctuary 3. Genetic diversity and Species diversity 4. National Park and biosphere reserves Group – C Long Answer type Questions (7 marks) Human Reproduction 1. Describe the male Reproductive system in human. 2. Describe the female Reproductive system in human. 3. Describe the process of spermatogenesis. 4. Describe the process of oogenesis. 5. Describe the process of Fertilization. Genetics 1. Discuss the chromosomal theory of sex determimation. 2. What is genic balance theory and explain its role in sex determination? 3. What is sex linked inheritance? Explain inheritance of haemophilia in man. 4. What is sex linked inheritance? Explain inheritance of colour blindness in man. 5. Explain chromosomal disorders in man. Evolution 1. Discuss the evidences of organic evolution from comparative anatomy and morphology. 2. Give an account of the embryological evidences of organic evolution. 3. Describe palaeonoto logical evidences of organic evolution. 4. Describe Darwin’s theory of natural selection and origin of species and discuss about the criticism. Human Health and Diseases 1. Define Immunity? Explain Innate ima. 2. Define Immunity? Explain acquired Immunity. 3. What is adolescence? Discuss the common problems of adolescence. 4. Mention the factors causing cancer. Add a no on diagnosis and prevention of cancer. 5. What are pathogens? Classify diseases and give a note on this. 6. Describe the symptoms, diagnosis, treatment and control of malaria. 7. Give the symptoms, infection, prevention and control of typhoid. Biotechnology – principles and Processes 1. Describe the mechanism of recombinant DNA technology. Biodiversity and Its Conservation 1. What is biodiversity? Explain its importance and loss of biodiversity. 2. Define biodiversity and its types and add a notes on biodiversity conservation. Short Notes (3.5 marks) 1. Implantation 2. Parturition 3. Menstrual Cycle 4. Birth Control 5. STD 6. Infertility 7. Free martin 8. Sex reversal 9. Genetic drift 10. Hardy – weinberg’s principle 11. Variatio 12. Adaptive radiation 13. Origin of life 14. Vaccines 15. AIDS 16. Dengue 17. Antigen antibody interaction 18. Genetic engineering 19. Bt crops 20. Red data book 21. Ramsar sites 22. Sacred groves