William James Past Paper PDF

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University of Ibadan

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This document is a psychology quiz with multiple choice questions on topics such as William James's work in psychology, the first psychological laboratory and other key aspects of the field. The questions cover various theoretical perspectives and real-world applications of psychological concepts.

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1. William James was primarily concerned with the _______ of the mind a. Functions* b. Elements c. Disorders d. Biological origins 2. The first psychological laboratory was established by: a. John Watson b. Wilhelm Wundt* c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean Piaget 3. Empiricism is the...

1. William James was primarily concerned with the _______ of the mind a. Functions* b. Elements c. Disorders d. Biological origins 2. The first psychological laboratory was established by: a. John Watson b. Wilhelm Wundt* c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean Piaget 3. Empiricism is the view that knowledge originates from: a. Logical reasoning b. Sensory experience* c. Biological evolution d. introspection 4. Which school of psychology attempted to identify the basic elements of the mind? a. Structuralism* b. Functionalism c. Behaviourism d. psychoanalysis 5. functionalism is to structuralism as _______ is to __________ a. Plato; Aristotle b. John Locke; Rene Decartes c. William James; Edward Titchner* d. John Watson; Sigmund Freud 6. Which research method waned in popularity because its results varied when employed by different people? a. Random assignment b. Introspection* c. Behaviour genetics d. Spaced practiced 7. Who would have been the most likely to ignore mental processes and to define psychology as “the science of observable behaviour” a. Watson* b. Titchener c. Wundt d. James 8. The cells that serve as the basic building blocks of the body’s information processing system are called: a. Neurons* b. Neurotransmitters c. Vesicles d. Glial cells 9. The myelin sheath helps to increase the _________ of neural impulses. a. Frequency b. intensity c. threshold d. Speed* 10.Signal reception is to _______ as signal transmission is to ___________ a. Interneuron; neural network b. Dendrite; axon* c. Neurotransmitter; hormone d. Sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system 11.Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that travel across the: a. Cell body b. Synaptic gap* c. Myelin sheath d. Threshold 12.Neurotransmitters bind to receptor sites and influences the flow of _________ into receiving neurons a. Electrically charged atoms* b. Glial cells c. Vesicles d. Hormones 13.Adrenaline is to hormone as ____________ is to neurotransmitter a. Synapse b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Dopamine* 14.The central nervous system largely consist of: a. Sensory neurons b. Motor neurons c. Inter-neurons* d. Glands 15.The lower brain structure that governs arousal is the: a. Spinal cord b. Cerebellum c. Reticular formation* d. Medulla 16.The part of the brain that controls voluntary movement is the: a. Cerebellum* b. Medulla c. Thalamus d. Reticular formation 17.Judging and planning are enabled by the: a. Occipital lobes b. Parietal lobes c. Frontal lobes* d. Temporal lobes 18.The threadlike structures that contain genes are called: a. Synapses b. Schemas c. Chromosomes* d. Neurotransmitters 19.Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that men will marry women who are _____________ than they are a. Less physically attractive b. More sexually experienced c. Younger* d. More aggressive toward sexual rivals 20.Fraternal twins originate from the fertilization of _____________ egg cell (s) by _________ sperm cell (s) a. A single; a single b. Two; a single c. A single; two d. Two; two* 21.Lynnae is usually timid and fearful, whereas her sister Eileen is typically relaxed and cheerful. The two sisters are most strikingly different in: a. Brain maturation b. Gender schemas c. Physical health d. Temperament* 22.From two weeks through 2 months after conception, the human organism is known as a(n): a. Embyo* b. Fetus c. Zygote d. Ovum 23.Harmful chemicals or viruses that can be transferred from a mother to her developing fetus are: a. Plaques b. Attachments c. Teratogens* d. Zygotes 24.When Joan touched her infant’s cheek, he turned his head toward the side that was touched and opened his mouth. Joan was eliciting the: a. Startle reaction b. Rooting reflex* c. Grasping reflex d. Attachment reflex e. Attention reflex 25.The immaturity of an infant’s nervous system is best demonstrated by its limited: a. Speed of neural transmission b. Number of brain cells c. Size of mental schemas d. Complexity of neural networks* 26.A concept or framework that organizes and interpretes information is called a(n) a. Assimilation b. Attachment c. Accommodation d. Schema* e. Neural network 27.The ability of preschool children to empathize with classmates who are feeling sad illustrates that preoperational children are not completely: a. Habituated b. Assimilated c. Egocentric* d. Imprinted 28.At 16 months of age, Edmund is uncertain whether his busy parents will take time to feed him when he is hungry. This is most indicative of: a. Insecure attachment* b. Imprinting c. Conservation d. Habituation e. The rooting reflex 29.The process by which we select, organize, and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects is called: a. Sensory adaptation b. Parallel processing c. Perception d. Accommodation* 30.Damage to a temporal area of the brain essential for facial recognition produces a loss of: a. Perception* b. Interposition c. Convergence d. Accommodation 31.If an adult develops cataracts, his or her _____________ threshold for light is likely to _______ a. Absolute; increase* b. Difference; decrease c. Absolute; remain unchanged d. Difference; remain unchanged e. Absolute; decrease 32.The adjustable opening in the center of the eye is the: a. Optic nerve b. Lens c. Cornea d. Pupil* e. Blind spot 33.Dilation and constriction of the pupil are controlled by the: a. Optic nerve b. Lens c. Retina d. Iris* e. Cornea 34.Frequency is to pitch as amplitude is to: a. Timbre b. Loudness* c. Hue d. Wavelength e. Sound 35.The retina is to the eye as the _______ is to the ear a. Auditory nerve b. Cochlea* c. Auditory canal d. Eardrum e. Eustachian tube 36.Behaviourism encouraged psychologists to ignore the study of: a. Dreams b. Fantasies c. Hypnotic states d. Hallucinations e. All of the above* 37.The act of yawning ____________ your heart rate and ___________ your alertness a. Increases; decreases b. Decreases; increases c. Increases; increases* d. Decreases; decreases 38.Insomnia is a disorder involving: a. The excessive use of sleeping pills or other drugs that induce sleep b. Recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep* c. The cessation of breathing during sleep d. Uncontrollable attacks of overwhelming sleepiness 39.Which sleep disorder is more likely to be experienced by children than by adults? a. Narcolepsy b. Sleep apnea c. Night terrors* d. Insomnia 40.Freud called the remembered story line of a dream its _____________ content a. Manifest* b. Latent c. Dissociated d. Paradoxical e. Delusional 41.Dissociation refers to: a. A state of divided consciousness* b. A state of paradoxical sleep c. Conscious enactment of a hypnotic role d. Nonconformity to social pressure 42.Which of the following provides the clearest indication of a drug addiction? a. Physical dependence* b. Hallucination c. Narcolepsy d. Daydreaming e. REM rebound 43.Classical and operant conditioning both illustrate: a. Shaping b. Modeling c. Respondent behavior d. Associative learning* 44.The researcher most closely associated with the study of classical conditioning is: a. Thorndike b. Wundt c. Skinner d. Bandura e. Pavlov* 45.Which of the following is an unconditioned response? a. Salivating at the sight of a lemon b. Raising your hand to ask a question c. Jerking your hand off a very hot stove* d. Walking into a restaurant to eat 46.When a CS is not paired with a UCS, the subsequent fading of a CR is called: a. Discrimination b. Generalization c. Delayed reinforcement d. Extinction* 47.Two-year old Philip was recently clawed by the neighbor’s cat. Philip’s newly developed tendency to fear all small animals demonstrates the process of: a. Generalization* b. Latent learning c. Shaping d. Spontaneous recovery e. Secondary reinforcement 48.Pavlov is to _______ as Skinner is to _________. a. Operant conditioning; classical conditioning b. Latent learning; observational learning c. Observational learning; operant conditioning d. Respondent behavior; operant behavior* 49.On Monday, Johnny’s mother gave him cookies and milk after he had played quietly for 10 minutes. On Tuesday, he required 20minutes of quiet play before treatment time, and on Wednesday, the cookies were given to him after a full half hour of quiet play. Johnny was taught to play quietly for extended periods through: a. Latent learning b. Secondary reinforcement c. Partial reinforcement d. Shaping* e. Modeling 50.The process of getting information into memory is called: a. Priming b. Chunking c. Encoding* d. Registering e. Storage 51.Short-term memory could best be characterized as _________ memory a. Iconic b. Working* c. Flashbulb d. Implicit e. Repressed 52.Which pioneering researcher made extensive use of nonsense syllables in the study of human memory? a. Pavlov b. James c. Loftus d. Freud e. Ebbinghaus* 53.We remember words that lend themselves to mental images better than we remember abstract lo-imagery words. This best illustrates the value of: a. Iconic memory b. Visual encoding* c. Flashbulb memory d. Long-term potentiation. 54.The letters Y, M, O, M, R, E are presented. Jill remembers them by rearranging them to spell the word “MEMORY”. This provides an illustration of: a. Chunking* b. The “peg-word” system c. Automatic processing d. The spacing effect e. The method of loci 55.Fill-in-the-blank test questions measure ________; matching concepts with their definitions measures _________ a. Recognition; relearning b. Recall; recognition* c. Recall; relearning d. Relearning; recall 56.Who emphasized that we repress painful memories in order to minimize our own anxiety? a. Ebbinghaus b. Loftus c. Peterson d. Sperling e. Freud* 57.Cognitive psychologists are most directly concerned with the study of: a. Emotion b. Genetics c. The unconscious d. Brain chemistry e. Thinking* 58.A sudden realization of the solution to a problem is called: a. Framing b. Insight* c. A heuristic d. Belief perseverance e. An algorithm 59.The human tendency toward intellectual arrogance is best demonstrate by: a. Overconfidence* b. Belief perseverance c. The framing effect d. Function fixedness e. The availability heuristic 60.The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called: a. Universal grammar b. Babbling* c. Telegraphic speech d. Syntax 61.Research shows that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during: a. Childhood* b. Adolescence c. Early adulthood d. Late adulthood 62.Intelligence tests have traditionally been designed to measure: a. Social aptitude b. Moral achievement c. Cognitive aptitude* d. Economic achievement 63.A statistical procedure that identifies clusters of test items that seem to tap a common ability is called: a. Correlational measurement b. Standardization c. Reliability assessment d. Criterion-based validation e. Factor analysis* 64.The body’s tendency to maintain internal state is know as: a. Refractory period b. Instinct c. Homeostatsis* d. metabolism 65.the term homeostasis literally means: a. “common to all” b. “unique to humans” c. “staying the same”* d. “motivational dynamics” e. “constant stimulation” 66.Hunger controls are located within the: a. Hypothalamus* b. Medulla c. Temporal lobe d. Amygdala e. Hippocampus 67.The specific body weight maintained automatically by most adults over long periods of time is known as: a. Set point* b. Homeostatic constant c. Hypothalamic plateau d. Basal metabolic rate 68.Testosterone is to ________ as estrogen is to __________ a. Hunger; sex b. Premature ejaculation; impotence c. Refractory period; orgasm d. Males; females* 69.Our sexual attraction toward members of either the same sex or the opposite sex is called our: a. Set point b. Gender identity c. Homeostasis d. Sexual identity e. Sexual orientation* 70.Our __________ serves as a gauge of how socially accepted we feel a. Set point b. Basal metabolic rate c. Sexual response cycle d. Erotic plasticity e. Self esteem* 71.During a state of emotional arousal, the adrenal lands release _________ into the bloodstream a. Insulin b. Acetylcholine c. Epinephrine* d. Glucose e. Testosterone 72.The process by which we perceive and respond to events that threaten or challenge us is called: a. Stress b. Psychological illness c. Frustration d. Biofeedback e. Burnout 73.Fried man and Rosenman referred to relaxed and easygoing individuals as ______ personalities a. Passive-aggressive b. Extraverted c. Health-prone d. Type A e. Type B* 74.The white blood cells that bacterial infections and attack cancer cells and viruses are called a. Lymphocytes* b. Glial cells c. Teratogens d. Stress hormones e. Steroids 75.Regular aerobic exercise has been found to reduce the incidence of: a. Heart attacks b. High blood pressure c. Depression d. All of the above* 76.Physical illnesses, such as hypertension and some headaches, that are not caused by an organic disorder but instead seem linked to stress are referred to as _______ illnesses a. Psychophysiological* b. Psychopharmacological c. Hypochondriacal d. Neuropsychological e. Neurotic 77.Health psychologist are least likely to focus attention on: a. The effective control of stress b. How emotions influence our risk of disease c. The role of bacteria in producing illness* d. Understanding why people fail to exercise 78.Who emphasized that slips of the tongue often reveal the personality dynamics that contribute to psychological disorders? a. Allport b. Freud* c. Bandura d. Maslow e. Rogers 79.Personality is best defined as an individual’s: a. Characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting* b. Most noticeable characteristics c. Biologically inherited temperament d. Hidden thoughts and emotions 80.According to Freud, the most important erogenous zone during earliest infancy consists of the: a. Eyes b. Mouth* c. Bowels d. Breasts e. Urethra 81.The pleasure principle is to the _________ as the reality principle is to the __________ a. Oral stage; anal stage b. Id; super ego c. Id; ego* d. Life instinct; death instinct e. Conscious; unconscious 82.A religious leader who attempts to overcome his hidden doubts with intense expressions of spiritual certainty illustrates most clearly the defense mechanism of: a. Reaction formation* b. Projection c. Regression d. Displacement e. Fixation 83.Tests that present ambiguous stimuli designed to uncover hidden personality dynamics are called _________ tests a. Empirical b. Projective* c. Multiphasic personality d. Factor analytic e. Aptitude 84.Self-actualize people, as describe by Maslow, are likely to: a. Be self-centered b. Have a strong ego* c. Experience an external locus of control d. Lack a strong sense of gender identity 85.The conception of psychological disorders as biologically based sickness is known as the ________ model a. Psychoanalytic b. Humanistic c. Medical* d. Bio-psychosocial e. Trait 86.A psychotherapist is most likely to use the DSM-IV in order to ________ various psychological disorders a. Cure b. Prevent c. Excuse d. Explain e. Identify* 87.Panic attacks are most closely associated with: a. Schizophrenia b. Anxiety disorders* c. Dissociative disorders d. Mood disorders e. Personality disorders 88.Compulsions are best described as: a. Persistent fears b. Repetitive behaviours c. Illusory sensations d. Suicidal thoughts e. False beliefs 89.A post-traumatic stress disorder could best be described as a(n): a. Dissociative disorder b. Type of schizophrenia c. Personality disorder d. Anxiety disorder* 90.Psychological disorders characterized by inflexible, enduring and socially maladaptive behavior patterns are called ____________ disorders a. Reactive b. Dissociative c. Schizophrenia d. Personality* 91.Because it is so pervasive, ___________ is often considered “the common cold” of psychological disorders a. Agoraphobia b. Schizophrenia c. Depression* d. Dissociation e. Low self-esteem 92.Manic episodes are most likely to be associated with a(n): a. Panic attack b. Phobia c. Bipolar disorder* d. Generalized anxiety disorder e. Antisocial personality disorder 93.According to the psychoanalytic perspective, depression results from: a. The internalization of anger* b. Learned helplessness c. Self-defeating attributions d. A weak conscience 94.Learned helplessness is most closely associated with: a. Dissociated disorders b. Depression* c. Schizophrenia d. Phobias e. Compulsions 95.Schizophrenia is most likely to be characterized by: a. Suicidal thoughts b. Disorganized and fragmented thinking* c. A lack of guilt feelings d. Alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism e. Periodic intervals of uncontrollable violence 96.A short attention span is most likely to be associated with: a. A phobia b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Schizophrenia* d. Antisocial personality disorder 97.A tendency to remain motionless for long periods of time is most common among those with ______ schizophrenia a. Catatonic* b. Disorganized c. Undifferentiated d. Paranoid 98.If one identical twin is diagnosed as having schizophrenia, the probability that the other twin will at some point be similarly diagnosed is approximately _________ percent a. 10 b. 25 c. 50* d. 75 e. 90 99.Which of the following therapists introduced the use of free association ? a. Carl Rogers b. Sigmund Freud* c. Aaron Beck d. Joseph Wolpe e. Mary Carver Jones 100. Carl Rogers is known for the development of a. Therapeutic touch b. The token economy c. Stress inoculation training d. Client-centered therapy* e. Systematic desensitization 101. Which of the following techniques is derived from classical conditioning principles? a. The token economy b. Light exposure therapy c. Systematic desensitization* d. Stress inoculation training e. Transference 102. The construction of an anxiety hierarchy and training in relaxation are important aspects of: a. Biomedical therapy b. Aversive conditioning c. Systematic desensitization* d. Client-centered therapy e. Stress inoculation therapy 103. Training people to stop blaming themselves for failures and negative circumstances beyond their control is of most direct concern to ______ therapist a. Psychoanalytic b. Cognitive* c. Eclectic d. Client-centered e. Behavior 104. The psychotherapeutic value of hope is best illustrated by: a. Free association b. The placebo effect* c. Systematic desensitization d. Transference e. Active listening 105. Which therapeutic specialists are most likely to have a Ph.D. degree in Psychology? a. Clinical psychologists* b. Clinical social workers c. Psychiatrists d. Pastoral counselors 106. Francis Bacon was an early advocate of what came to be known as a. Empiricism b. Psychiatry c. Structuralism d. Functionalism 107. The view that knowledge comes from experience and that science should rely on observation is called a. Functionalism b. Empiricism c. Rationalism d. Structuralism 108. A biological psychologist would be most interested in the relationship between: a. Body chemistry and violent behaviour b. Skull shape character traits c. Self-esteem and popularity d. Brain size and cell structure 109. Dendrites are branching extensions of: a. Neurotransmitters b. Endorphins c. Neurons d. Endocrine system 110. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the: a. Synapse b. Agonist c. Action potential d. Myelin sheath e. Refractory period 111. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron’s reaction is: a. Inhibited by the myelin sheath b. Delayed by the refractory period c. An all-or-none response d. Dependent on neurotransmitter molecules 112. Joseph has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort. His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of : a. Glutamate b. Dopamine c. Acetylcholine d. Endorphins 113. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central and the ……………… nervous systems. a. Autonomic b. Sympathetic c. Parasympathetic d. peripheral 114. The reticular formation is located in the: a. brain stem b. limbic system c. somatosensory cortex d. motor cortex e. cerebellum 115. At the age of 22, Mrs. Adetoun was less than 4 feet tall. Her short stature was probably influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produced by the : a. Pancreas b. Adrenal gland c. Thyroid d. Pituitary gland e. Hypothalamus 116. The ovaries in the females and the testes in males are part of the : a. Limbic system b. Endocrine system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Reticular formation e. Central nervous system 117. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to: a. Fear dangerous animals b. Love their own children c. Seek healthy-looking mates d. Do all of the above 118. Identical twins originate from the fertilization of ………… egg cell(s) by …………… sperm cell(s). a. A single; a single b. Two; a single c. A single; two d. Two; two 119. The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children’s …………….. than on their………………. a. Temperament; political attitudes b. Extraversion; table manners c. Religious beliefs; personality traits d. Gender identity; gender schemas 120. The enduring traditions, ideas, attitudes, and behaviours shared by a large group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next define their: a. Temperament b. Roles c. Racial identity d. Culture 121. Social learning theorists emphasize that: a. Observation and imitation play a crucial role in the gender-typing process b. Children will exhibit only those gender-typed behaviours for which they have been directly rewarded c. Children will not learn gender-typed behaviours if the same –sex parent is absent from the home. d. All of the above are true 122. The formation of a placenta signals the onset of ………………….. development a. Ovular b. Zygotic c. Fetal d. Embryonic 123. One of the most damaging teratogens is: a. Epinephrine b. Testosterone c. Serotonin d. Dopamine e. Alcohol 124. Mr. Harrison triggered a rooting reflex in his infant son by touching him on the : a. Foot b. Knee c. Arm d. Cheek 125. Piaget is best known for his interest in the process of ……………….. development. a. Motor b. Social c. Cognitive d. Emotional e. Physical 126. Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called: a. Egocentrism b. Assimilation c. Imprinting d. Attachment e. Accommodation 127. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to: a. Deal with the discipline of the toilet training b. See things from the point of another person c. Recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. d. Retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences 128. Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes mostly to: a. Habituation b. Stranger anxiety c. Object permanence d. Secure attachment e. Egocentrism 129. Nature is to nurture as ……………………….. is to …………………….. a. Secure attachment; imprinting b. Hereditary; maturation c. Accommodation; assimilation d. Temperament; responsive parenting 130. Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be: a. Authoritarian b. Accommodating c. Egocentric d. Permissive e. Authoritative 131. Puberty is closely related to the onset of: a. menopause b. menarche c. Crystallized intelligence d. Conventional morality e. Dementia 132. Piaget is to cognitive development as Kohlberg is to …………………….. development. a. Emotional b. Physical c. Moral d. Social 133. According to Erikson, achieving a sense of identity is the special task of the : a. Toddler b. Preschooler c. Elementary school child d. Adolescent 134. Questions about whether anxious children will grow up too be either fearful or relaxed adults most directly highlight the issue of: a. Continuity of stages b. Stability or change c. Rationality or irrationality d. Nature or nurture 135. Sensation is to …………….. as perception is to …………………………….. a. Encoding; detection b. Detection; interpretation c. Interpretation; organization d. Organization; adaptation 136. The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the: a. Sensory adaptation threshold b. Difference threshold c. Subliminal threshold d. Absolute threshold 137. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the : a. Lens b. Iris c. Retina d. Optic nerve e. Feature detectors 138. Which cells are located closest to the back of the retina? a. Ganglion cells b. Bipolar cells c. Rods and cones d. Feature detectors 139. People who demonstrate blind sight have most likely suffered damage to their : a. Cornea b. Lens c. Cochlea d. Optic nerve e. Visual cortex 140. Color constancy refers to the fact that: a. Light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lightening b. Objects are perceived to be the same color even if they reflect changes c. The perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness d. The frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light’s wavelength 141. The senses of touch includes the four basic sensations of : a. Pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold b. Pain, pressure, hot, and cold c. Wetness, pain, hot, and cold d. Pressure, pain, warmth, and cold 142. Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense? a. Touch b. Kinesthesis c. Audition d. Vision e. Smell 143. The olfactory cortex is located within the : a. Frontal lobes b. Parietal lobes c. Occipital lobes d. Temporal lobes 144. The semicircular canals are most directly relevant to : a. Hearing b. Kinesthesis c. The vestibular sense d. Parallel processing e. Accommodation 145. The perception of an object as distinct from its environment is called: a. Perceptual set b. Perceptual constancy c. Figure- ground perception d. Interposition 146. The perceived size of an object is mostly strongly influenced by that object’s perceived: a. Shape b. Color c. Distance d. Motion 147. The rhythmic burst of activity that occurs during stage 2 sleep are called: a. Alpha waves b. Paradoxical sleep c. Sleep spindles d. Delta waves 148. REM sleep is ………………. By alcohol and …………………… by sleeping pills. a. Inhibited; inhibited b. Facilitated; inhibited c. Inhibited; facilitated d. Facilitated; facilitated 149. Which of the following disorder is characterized by temporary cessation of breathing while asleep? a. Narcolepsy b. Sleep apnea c. Night terror d. Insomnia 150. The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by: a. Watson b. Skinner c. Bandura d. Pavlov e. Wundt 151. Storage is to encoding as ……………………… is to ……………………………………….. a. Recognition; recall b. Imagery; mnemonics c. Rehearsal; retrieval d. Retention; acquisition e. Priming; relearning 152. A mnemonic device is a: a. Mental picture b. Test or measure of memory c. Technique for encoding language sounds d. Memory aid e. Word, event, or place that triggers a memory of the past 153. A retention of skills and dispositions without conscious recollection is known as……………. Memory. a. State dependent b. Flashbulb c. Short term d. Sensory e. Implicit 154. The distruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information is called: a. State dependent memory b. Retroactive interference c. The serial position effect d. The spacing effect e. Proactive effect 155. A type of motivated forgetting in which painful memories are blocked from conscious awareness is : a. Retroactive interference b. Proactive interference c. The spacing effect d. Repression e. Priming 156. Amnesia patients typically experience disruption of : a. Implicit memories b. Explicit memories c. Iconic memories d. Echoic memories 157. Studies demonstrates that learning causes permanent neural changes in the ……………………… of animal’s neurons. a. Myelin b. Cell bodies c. Synapses d. All of the above 158. Memories of emotional events are especially to be facilitated by activation of the: a. Amygdala b. Hypothalamus c. Sensory cortex d. Motor cortex 159. Speed reading complex materials yields little long term retention because it inhibits: a. The serial position effect b. Retroactive interference c. The next- in- line effect d. Proactive interference e. Rehearsal 160. Research on memory construction indicates that memories of past experiences are likely to be: a. Difficult to retrieve but never completely b. Distorted by our current assumptions c. Much more vivid if they are seldom rehearsed d. Retrieved in the very same form and detail as they were originally encoded. 161. A fixation is most likely to inhibit : a. Confirmation bias b. Overconfidence c. Creativity d. Belief perseverance 162. The inability to take a new perspective on a problem is called a : a. Confirmation bias b. Fixation c. Heuristic d. Framing effect e. Prototype 163. Our tendency to judge the likelihood of an event on the basis of how readily we can remember instances of its occurrence is called the: a. Framing effect b. Belief perseverance phenomenon c. Confirmation bias d. Representativeness heuristic e. The availability heuristic 164. The earliest stage of speech development is called the …………………. Stage. a. Babbling b. Telegraphic speech c. One-word d. Grammatical e. Syntactic 165. Children first begin to use sounds to communicate meaning during the ………………….. stage. a. One- word b. Two –word c. Echoic d. Telegraphic e. Babbling 166. The fact that we can think without language is best illustrated in research on: a. Mental imagery b. Functional fixedness c. The framing effect d. Algorithms e. The representativeness heuristic 167. Our capacity for thinking without language is best illustrated by: a. The framing effect b. Functional fixedness c. Unconscious information processing d. The representativeness heuristic e. The belief perseverance phenomenon 168. To assess mental age, Binet and Simon measured children’s: a. Head size b. Reasoning skills c. Muscular power d. Sensory acuity e. All of the above 169. The characteristics of savant syndrome most directly suggest intelligence is: a. A diverse set of distinct abilities b. Largely unpredictable and measurable c. A culturally constructed concept d. Dependent upon the speed of cognitive processing 170. A test of your capacity to learn to be an automobile mechanic would be considered a(n)…………………….. test. a. Reliability b. Interest c. Achievement d. Aptitude e. Intelligence 171. An aroused or activated state that is often triggered by physiological need is called a(n): a. Instinct b. Drive c. Incentive d. Set point 172. Which theory of motivation most clearly emphasizes the importance of genetic predispositions? a. Drive- reduction theory b. Instinct theory c. Maslow’s need hierarchy theory d. Arousal theory 173. Homeostasis refers to: a. A rigidly patterned behaviour characteristics of an entire species b. An aroused or activated state that is often triggered by a physiological need c. The body’s tendency to maintain a constant internal state d. A physical need that usually triggers motivational arousal. 174. The importance of learning in motivation is most obvious from the influence of: a. Instincts b. Homeostasis c. Arousal d. Incentives 175. Destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus of a rat is most likely to: a. Lower its set point for body weight b. Cause it to stop eating c. Lower its blood insulin level d. Facilitate conversion of its blood glucose to fat. 176. A homosexual orientation is : a. Equally likely among members of both sexes b. Associated with a lack of clear gender identity c. Very persistent and difficult to change d. A result of being sexually victimized during childhood e. Characteristic of over 10 percent of American males. 177. Foolish conformity to peer pressure is most likely to be motivated by…………………. Needs. a. Safety b. Belongingness c. Achievement d. Self- actualization e. Sexual 178. According to the two- factor theory, the two basic components of emotions are……………….. and ………………………….. a. Facial expressions; cognitive labels b. Emotion-arousing events; physical arousal c. Physical arousal; overt behaviour d. Cognitive labels; physical arousal 179. During an emergency, increasing levels of emotional arousal are likely to be accompanied by: a. Decrease in blood sugar levels b. Slowing of digestion c. Increase in salivation d. Constriction of pupils to increase visual acuity e. Decrease in respiration rate 180. A hormone that increases heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels in times of emergency is : a. Acetylcholine b. Epinephrine c. Testosterone d. Insulin e. Glycogen 181. Which division of the nervous system calms the body after an emergency passes? a. Somatic b. Central c. Sympathetic d. Parasympathetic 182. People are especially good at quickly detecting facial expressions of: a. Love b. Anger c. Surprise d. Happiness e. Boredom 183. The concept of personality most clearly embodies the notion of: a. Moral integrity b. Self- consciousness c. Temporal consistency d. Self- actualization e. Gender identity 184. Forgotten memories that we can easily recall were said by Freud to be: a. Displaced b. Projected c. Preconscious d. Fixated e. Unconscious 185. According to Freud, the personality system that represents our sense of right and wrong and our ideal standards is the : a. Collective unconscious b. Ego c. Self concept d. Id e. Super ego 186. Freud referred to a lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage as: a. Reaction formation b. Projection c. Fixation d. Displacement e. Repression 187. An excessive fixation is mot likely to contribute to : a. Reaction formation b. Regression c. Projection d. Electra complex e. Displacement 188. Projective tests are most closely associated with the ________ perspective. a. Social cognitive b. Psychoanalytic c. Humanistic d. Trait 189. The humanistic perspective emphasize the importance of: a. Free association b. Self determination c. Reciprocal determinism d. Personality inventories e. Projective tests 190. Which perspective will have the most difficulty accounting for the fact that anorexia nervosa is mostly a disorder of western cultures? a. Psychoanalytic perspective b. Cognitive perspective c. Medical perspective d. Behavioural perspective 191. The avoidance of potentially anxiety-arousing situations from which escape might be difficult is indicative of: a. An obsessive compulsive disorder b. A mood disorder c. Schizophrenia d. Agoraphobia e. Bipolar disorder 192. Which of the following is characterized by persistent, irrational fear of a specific object or situation? a. Generalized anxiety disorder b. Phobia c. Mood disorder d. Histrionic personality disorder e. Catatonia 193. Repeatedly washing your hand is to _________, as repeatedly thinking about your own death is to _______ a. Dissociative disorder; schizophrenia b. Mania; depression c. Phobia; delusion d. Compulsion; obsession 194. We can more easily extinguish a fear of driving a car than a fear of holding snakes. This is best explained from a _________ perspective a. Learning b. Biological c. Psychoanalytic d. Humanistic 195. A sense of being separated from your body and watching yourself with a sense of detachment is a symptom of: a. Bipolar disorder b. Paranoia c. Generalized anxiety d. Agoraphobia e. Dissociation 196. A condition in which an individual is overexcited, hyperactive and widely optimistic is known as: a. Paranoia b. A manic episode c. A panic attack d. Catatonia 197. A central therapeutic technique of psychoanalysis is: a. Stress inoculation training b. Systematic desensitization c. Observational learning d. Active listening e. free association 198. Empathic understanding of the patient’s subjective experiences is a major goal of a : a. Psychoanalyst b. Biomedical therapist c. Client-centered therapist d. Behaviour therapist 199. Systematic desensitization is a form of: a. Psychoanalysis b. Biomedical therapy c. Counter-conditioning d. Cognitive therapy e. Humanistic therapy 200. The most widely used form of behaviour therapy is: a. Active listening b. Aversive conditioning c. The token economy d. Exposure therapy e. Stress inoculation training 201. In which form of therapy is unwanted behaviour systemaytically associated with unpleasant experiences? a. Electroconvulsive therapy b. Systematic desensitization c. Electic therapy d. Cognitive therapy e. Aversive conditioning 202. Psychotherapy is likely to be most effective when a client’s problem is: a. Clear cut b. The result of unconscious conflict c. Long standing and habitual d. A response to a stressful life situation e. Self inflicted 203. Which drugs appears to produce therapeutic effect by blocking receptor site of dopamine? a. Anti anxiety drugs b. Anti-depressant drugs c. Anti-psychotic drugs d. Anti-manic drugs 204. Observing yourself on a video tape is most like to increase your tendency to attribute your behaviour to: a. Social norms b. Role playing c. Personality traits d. Near exposure effect e. Any of the above 205. Attitude are _______ that guide behaviour a. Norms and rules b. Superordinate goals c. Beliefs and feelings d. Dispositional attributions 206. Which theory best explains why our actions can lead us to modify our attitudes? a. Equity theory b. Scape goat theory c. Cognitive dissonance theory d. Social exchange theory e. The two factor theory 207. A culture that promote individualism is most likely to encourage: a. Altruism b. Non-conformity c. In group bias d. Group think e. Super ordinate goals 208. Which of the following processes must obviously operate in group think? a. Social facilitation b. Cognitive dissonance c. Group polarization d. Self disclosure 209. Sigmund Freud would most likely have suggested that wars result from a. De-individuation b. Frustration c. Human instinct d. The fundamental attribution error e. Inequitable relationship 210. Minimal levels of father care are associated with high levels of a. Conformity b. Group polarization c. Group facilitation d. aggression

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