Microorganism Defence Mechanisms PDF

Summary

This document contains a series of multiple choice questions about the immune system, focusing on defense mechanisms against microorganisms. It covers topics including first and second lines of defense, inflammatory response, and microbial classifications. The document likely forms part of a broader course or study in biology or microbiology aimed at secondary school or undergraduate level.

Full Transcript

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms? a. Gastric aci b. Phagocytes c. Sebum d. Cilia Examples of first line of defense include a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes b. mucous, tears and neutrophils c. sebum, sweat and macrophages d. lysozymes, vasod...

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms? a. Gastric aci b. Phagocytes c. Sebum d. Cilia Examples of first line of defense include a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes b. mucous, tears and neutrophils c. sebum, sweat and macrophages d. lysozymes, vasodilation and inflammation Saliva and tears contain this enzyme that destroys certain bacteria. a. Salivase b. Lysozymes c. Amylase d. Sebum The inflammatory response is characterised by a. attraction of erythrocytes to the injured site. b. increased vascular permeability to serum proteins in the inflamed area. c. vasoconstriction of local capillaries. d. resorption of interstitial fluid into the bloodstream. The aetiology (cause) of the acute inflammatory response could include a. dust, bites and infection b. vasodilation, histamine and prostaglandins c. neutrophils, histamine and phagocytosis d. pain, heat and swelling One of the ways in which normal flora benefit the host is by: a. providing nutrients for the growth of microorganisms b. inhibiting the growth of harmful microorganisms c. inhibiting the production of substances harmful to the host d. maintaining optimum gastric pH Examples of second lines of defence include a. gastric acid b. lysozymes c. sebum d. natural killer cells Which nonspecific defence cell specialises in attacking early cancer cells and virus- infected cells? a. Natural killer cells b. Macrophages c. Mast cells d. Neutrophils A chemical released by virus-infected cells to protect uninfected cells is called a. interferons b. keratin c. complement d. lysozymes The main phagocytic cells in the body are a. macrophages and lymphocytes. b. macrophages and neutrophils. c. neutrophils and basophils. d. macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells. Which of the following belongs to the proliferative phase of wound healing? a. Remodelling of collagen to increase tissue strength b. Vasoconstriction to stop bleeding c. Acute inflammatory response d. Formation of new epithelial tissue Swelling from Acute Inflammatory Response (AIR) is due to a. migration of white blood cells into injured site due to chemotaxis b. leakage of fluid into surrounding tissue due to increased permeability of blood vessels c. leakage of fluid into surrounding tissue due to vasoconstriction of damaged blood vessels d. migration of red blood cells into injured site due to chemotaxis Which type of microorganism produces endospores? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Prions Bacteria can be classified as gram positive (+) or gram negative (-) based on a. cell wall structure b. cell shape and size c. disease it causes d. nuclear material type Which of the following is described as a mutated protein which is responsible for Mad Cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakobs disease? a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Protozoa d. Prion Which of the following microorganisms has the characteristics of possessing a cell wall and the absence of a nucleus? a. Fungus b. Bacteria c. Protozoa d. Virus Which of the following microorganisms can only reproduce by invading a host cell? a. Fungus b. Virus c. Prion d. Protozoa Which of the following structures are used by bacteria for attachment to a surface? a. Glycocalyx b. Ribosomes c. Fimbriae d. Flagella Which of the following microorganisms can be described as consisting of nuclear material surrounded by a capsid and needs to invade a host cell to replicate? a. Virus b. Protozoa c. Bacteria d. Prion An opportunistic infection is a. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms b. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility c. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions d. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source An example of an endogenous infection would be a. an infection which relates to some genetic abnormality b. an infection caused by organisms from the person's own gastrointestinal tract c. an infection of a surgical wound with organisms from another patient d. a lung infection in which the causative organisms are inhaled A healthcare associated infection is a. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms b. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source c. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility d. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions Vancomycin-resistant enterococci a. are resistant to vancomycin but not to other drugs b. don’t survive well in the hospital environment c. can cause surgical wound infections d. most often cause infections in healthy people A superbug is a microorganism which a. is better at causing disease b. is able to mutate very quickly c. is only found in hospitals d. is resistant to multiple types of antibiotics A healthcare acquired infection (HAI) is one which is a. caused by normal flora of the nose b. present in a patient at the time of hospitalisation c. readily treated with antibiotics d. acquired whilst in a healthcare facility Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection? a. Lower respiratory tract b. Urinary tract c. Surgical site d. Skin Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Blood borne-viruses d. Gastrointestinal viruses Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) most commonly colonises a. the liver b. the bladder c. the lungs d. the nose A subclinical infection is a. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions b. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility c. an infection that can only occur from an exogenous source d. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms The study of the use, effects and mode of action of drugs is a. pharmacokinetics b. pharmacogenetics c. pharmacodynamics d. pharmacology Transdermal administration is most appropriately administered a. in the form of a patch b. using a needle and syringe c. orally d. using a suppository Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of a. bioavailability b. potency c. toxicity d. efficacy The most effective barrier to drug absorption is the a. stomach lining b. placenta c. skin d. blood-brain A drug with a high receptor affinity would be a. always antagonistic b. more potent c. less efficacious d. partially agonistic In the 20th century the most common source of drugs was a. from fungi b. by genetic engineering c. from plants d. made synthetically Microsomes for drug metabolism are found in the a. cells lining the stomach b. cells of the liver c. cells lining the colon wall d. cells of the kidney tubules Polypharmacy is more common in patients a. with increasing age b. after surgery c. who are female d. when prescribed by a naturopath The half-life of morphine is 3 hours. A 25 mg dose is administered at 10 a.m. How much will remain in the body by 4 p.m.? a. 12.5 mg b. 6.25 mg c. 50 mg d. 3.125 mg The extent of a drug’s protein binding determines its a. bioavailability b. potency c. solubility d. pharmacology The effectiveness of parenteral administration of a drug is compromised a. when aseptic techniques are used for administration b. by poor vascularisation at the site of administration c. when IV administration allows instantaneous release of the drug d. when optimal dosage is used for administration Rectal administration is most appropriately administered a. by pessary b. as a suppository Which of the following is a part of the second line of defence against microorganisms? b. Phagocytes Examples of first line of defense include a. cilia, mucous and lysozymes Saliva and tears contain this enzyme that destroys certain bacteria. b. Lysozymes The inflammatory response is characterised by b. increased vascular permeability to serum proteins in the inflamed area. The aetiology (cause) of the acute inflammatory response could include a. dust, bites and infection One of the ways in which normal flora benefit the host is by: b. inhibiting the growth of harmful microorganisms Examples of second lines of defence include d. natural killer cells Which nonspecific defence cell specialises in attacking early cancer cells and virus- infected cells? a. Natural killer cells A chemical released by virus-infected cells to protect uninfected cells is called a. interferons The main phagocytic cells in the body are b. macrophages and neutrophils. Which of the following belongs to the proliferative phase of wound healing? d. Formation of new epithelial tissue Swelling from Acute Inflammatory Response (AIR) is due to b. leakage of fluid into surrounding tissue due to increased permeability of blood vessels Which type of microorganism produces endospores? b. Bacteria Bacteria can be classified as gram positive (+) or gram negative (-) based on a. cell wall structure Which of the following is described as a mutated protein which is responsible for Mad Cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jakobs disease? d. Prion Which of the following microorganisms has the characteristics of possessing a cell wall and the absence of a nucleus? b. Bacteria Which of the following microorganisms can only reproduce by invading a host cell? b. Virus Which of the following structures are used by bacteria for attachment to a surface? c. Fimbriae Which of the following microorganisms can be described as consisting of nuclear material surrounded by a capsid and needs to invade a host cell to replicate? a. Virus An opportunistic infection is c. an infection caused by organisms that do not normally cause disease but can under certain conditions An example of an endogenous infection would be b. an infection caused by organisms from the person's own gastrointestinal tract A healthcare associated infection is c. an infection acquired only in a healthcare facility Vancomycin-resistant enterococci c. can cause surgical wound infections A superbug is a microorganism which d. is resistant to multiple types of antibiotics A healthcare acquired infection (HAI) is one which is d. acquired whilst in a healthcare facility Which body site is most commonly associated with a hospital-acquired infection? b. Urinary tract Which of the following are the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections? a. Bacteria Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) most commonly colonises d. the nose A subclinical infection is d. an infection that does not produce any recognisable signs and symptoms The study of the use, effects and mode of action of drugs is d. pharmacology Transdermal administration is most appropriately administered a. in the form of a patch Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of c. toxicity The most effective barrier to drug absorption is the c. skin A drug with a high receptor affinity would be b. more potent In the 20th century the most common source of drugs was d. made synthetically Microsomes for drug metabolism are found in the b. cells of the liver Polypharmacy is more common in patients a. with increasing age The half-life of morphine is 3 hours. A 25 mg dose is administered at 10 a.m. How much will remain in the body by 4 p.m.? b. 6.25 mg The extent of a drug’s protein binding determines its a. bioavailability The effectiveness of parenteral administration of a drug is compromised b. by poor vascularisation at the site of administration Rectal administration is most appropriately administered b. as a suppository

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