NEET MDS 200-Question Paper PDF

NEET MDS 200-Question Paper Section 1: Oral Pathology 1. Which cyst is associated with impacted teeth? a) Radicular cyst b) Dentigerous cyst c) Residual cyst d) Nasopalatine duct cyst 2. In which syndrome is gingival fibromatosis most commonly seen? a) Sturge-Weber syndrome b) Gorlin-Goltz syndrome c) Ramon syndrome d) Treacher Collins syndrome 3. The most common odontogenic tumor is: a) Ameloblastoma b) Odontoma c) Cementoblastoma d) Myxoma 4. Which of the following stains is used to identify amyloid deposits in oral tissues? a) Hematoxylin and eosin b) Congo red c) Van Gieson d) Masson’s trichrome Section 2: Oral Medicine & Radiology 5. Koplik spots are seen in: a) Measles b) Herpes c) Chickenpox d) Scarlet fever 6. The most common site for leukoplakia in the oral cavity is: a) Hard palate b) Buccal mucosa c) Tongue d) Floor of the mouth 7. Which of the following conditions presents as a “floating tooth” appearance on radiographs? a) Dentigerous cyst b) Langerhans cell histiocytosis c) Ameloblastoma d) Cementoblastoma 8. The best radiographic view to assess maxillary sinus pathology is: a) Waters view b) Reverse Towne’s view c) Lateral cephalogram d) Submentovertex view Section 3: Periodontology 9. Which of the following is the primary cause of periodontal disease? a) Trauma from occlusion b) Poor oral hygiene c) Genetic factors d) Smoking 10.Which of the following is the most common site for periodontal abscess formation? a) Maxillary central incisors b) Mandibular molars c) Maxillary canines d) Mandibular premolars 11.The main function of junctional epithelium is: a) Collagen synthesis b) Protection against bacterial invasion c) Formation of Sharpey’s fibers d) Mineralization of bone 12.The most common bacteria involved in aggressive periodontitis is: a) Porphyromonas gingivalis b) Tannerella forsythia c) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans d) Fusobacterium nucleatum Section 4: Prosthodontics 13.The main purpose of a facebow in complete denture fabrication is: a) Establish vertical dimension b) Register centric relation c) Transfer hinge axis relation d) Improve esthetics 14.The most common impression material used in complete denture fabrication is: a) Alginate b) Polyether c) Addition silicone d) Zinc oxide eugenol 15.Christensen’s phenomenon is observed in which movement? a) Protrusive b) Lateral c) Centric d) Retrusive 16.The main advantage of immediate dentures is: a) Better esthetics b) Protection of extraction sockets c) Longer lifespan d) Reduced cost Section 5: Oral Surgery 17.Which nerve is most commonly injured during mandibular third molar extraction? a) Lingual nerve b) Inferior alveolar nerve c) Mental nerve d) Buccal nerve 18.The ideal time for removal of impacted third molars is: a) 12-16 years b) 17-25 years c) 26-35 years d) After 40 years 19.The most common complication following a mandibular third molar extraction is: a) Dry socket b) Trismus c) Hemorrhage d) Nerve injury 20.The most common cause of oroantral communication is: a) Extraction of maxillary molars b) Trauma c) Sinusitis d) Cleft palate ( 21. Which of the following materials has the highest compressive strength? a) Composite resin b) Glass ionomer cement c) Zinc phosphate cement d) Amalgam 22.The best cavity liner to use under composite restorations is: a) Zinc oxide eugenol b) Calcium hydroxide c) Glass ionomer cement d) Varnish 23.Which of the following is the most radiopaque material in restorative dentistry? a) Composite resin b) Gutta-percha c) Amalgam d) Zinc phosphate cement 24.The primary cause of failure in composite restorations is: a) Polymerization shrinkage b) Moisture contamination c) Lack of bonding d) Marginal leakage 25.The main advantage of glass ionomer cement over composite resin is: a) Better esthetics b) Higher compressive strength c) Fluoride release d) Better wear resistance 26.The C-factor in adhesive dentistry refers to: a) The number of bonded to unbonded surfaces b) The concentration of the composite filler c) The degree of polymerization d) The coefficient of thermal expansion 27.Which of the following acids is used for enamel etching? a) Phosphoric acid b) Hydrochloric acid c) Acetic acid d) Sulfuric acid 28.The most common cause of endodontic failure is: a) Coronal leakage b) Improper obturation c) Missed canals d) Over-instrumentation 29.The ideal root canal obturation length should be: a) 1 mm short of the apex b) At the apex c) Beyond the apex d) Halfway down the canal 30.The most commonly used irrigant in root canal treatment is: a) Sodium hypochlorite b) Chlorhexidine c) EDTA d) Hydrogen peroxide 31.The most common root morphology of maxillary first premolars is: a) Single root b) Two roots c) Three roots d) Fused roots 32.The primary reason for intracanal medicament placement is: a) To reduce pain b) To sterilize the canal c) To increase canal diameter d) To lubricate the canal 33.In apexification, which material is most commonly used? a) Calcium hydroxide b) MTA c) Zinc oxide eugenol d) GIC 34.The most effective method for diagnosing vertical root fractures is: a) IOPA b) CBCT c) Percussion test d) Electric pulp testing 35.The most common complication of trauma to permanent teeth is: a) Pulp necrosis b) External resorption c) Internal resorption d) Crown fracture 36.The most common cause of malocclusion is: a) Genetic factors b) Oral habits c) Premature loss of primary teeth d) Environmental influences 37.The Angle’s classification is based on: a) Maxillary canines b) Mandibular incisors c) Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar d) Mandibular premolars 38.The most commonly used orthodontic wire material is: a) Stainless steel b) NiTi c) Beta-titanium d) Cobalt-chromium 39.The most commonly used removable appliance for correction of anterior crossbite is: a) Hawley appliance b) Twin block c) Frankel appliance d) Inclined plane 40.The ideal age for first orthodontic evaluation is: a) 3 years b) 6 years c) 10 years d) 12 years 41.The most commonly extracted teeth in orthodontic treatment are: a) First molars b) First premolars c) Canines d) Second molars 42.The most commonly used space maintainer is: a) Nance appliance b) Band and loop c) Distal shoe d) Hawley appliance 43.The most common pediatric dental problem is: a) Early childhood caries b) Malocclusion c) Pulpitis d) Periodontal disease 44.Which of the following is a non-fluoride caries preventive agent? a) Silver diamine fluoride b) Chlorhexidine c) Casein phosphopeptide d) Sodium fluoride 45.The most common site for dental caries initiation in children is: a) Smooth surfaces b) Pit and fissures c) Interproximal areas d) Cervical margins 46.The main advantage of Hall technique in pediatric dentistry is: a) No need for anesthesia b) Faster procedure c) No caries removal required d) All of the above 47.The most common cause of fluorosis is: a) High fluoride levels in drinking water b) Excessive use of toothpaste c) Fluoride supplements d) None of the above 48.The ideal fluoride concentration in drinking water is: a) 0.7 ppm b) 1.2 ppm c) 2.0 ppm d) 4.0 ppm 49.Which of the following methods is most effective for disinfection of dental instruments? a) Autoclaving b) Chemical sterilization c) Hot air oven d) Ultrasonic cleaning 50.The primary preventive measure for dental caries in a community is: a) Fluoridation of water b) Dietary counseling c) Pit and fissure sealants d) Oral hygiene education 51.The ideal temperature for autoclaving is: a) 100°C for 30 minutes b) 121°C for 15 minutes c) 160°C for 1 hour d) 200°C for 2 hours 52.The most commonly used index for periodontal disease is: a) DMFT b) CPITN c) OHI-S d) Plaque index 53.Which of the following is the most effective disinfectant for endodontic files? a) Sodium hypochlorite b) Glutaraldehyde c) Alcohol d) Hydrogen peroxide 54.The best material for indirect pulp capping is: a) Calcium hydroxide b) MTA c) GIC d) Composite 55.The most common site of oral cancer is: a) Tongue b) Buccal mucosa c) Floor of the mouth d) Palate (

NEET MDS 200-Question Paper PDF

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