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1. Which of the following is NOT a type of selection? a) Directional b) Stabilizing c) Disruptive d) Sympatric 2. What are biomes? a) Large-scale ecosystems characterized by specific climate and vegetation types. b) Small, isolated habitats within a larger ecosystem. c) The interactions between diff...

1. Which of the following is NOT a type of selection? a) Directional b) Stabilizing c) Disruptive d) Sympatric 2. What are biomes? a) Large-scale ecosystems characterized by specific climate and vegetation types. b) Small, isolated habitats within a larger ecosystem. c) The interactions between different species in a community. d) The study of the distribution of organisms across the globe. 3. Which of the following studies would be best suited for small, mobile animals? a) Radio telemetry b) Quadrat sampling c) Mark-recapture d) Transect sampling 4. The logistic growth curve incorporates which of the following? a) Unlimited resources b) Exponential population increase c) Carrying capacity d) Density-independent factors only 5. When two species with very similar ecological niches are placed together, what is a likely outcome according to the sources? a) One species may outcompete the other, leading to local extinction of the weaker competitor. b) Both species will thrive equally, sharing resources. c) The two species will rapidly evolve to occupy different niches. d) The two species will form a symbiotic relationship. 6. Which of the following is true about mutualism? a) All mutualistic relationships are beneficial to both species involved. b) Mutualistic relationships always involve close physical contact between the species. c) Mutualistic relationships can be obligate, meaning they are essential for survival, or facultative, meaning they are beneficial but not essential. d) Mutualistic relationships only occur between plants and animals. 7. What are pioneer species? a) Species that dominate late-successional communities. b) Species that are highly specialized and have narrow niches. c) Species that are introduced to a new area and outcompete native species. d) Species that are the first to colonize a newly available habitat, often after a disturbance. 8. What is the difference between primary and secondary ecological succession? a) Primary succession occurs on newly exposed substrates, while secondary succession occurs where soil is already present. b) Primary succession is driven by abiotic factors, while secondary succession is driven by biotic factors. c) Primary succession leads to simpler communities, while secondary succession leads to more complex communities. d) Primary succession is a rapid process, while secondary succession is a slow process. 9. A rank abundance curve shows which of the following? a) The total number of species in a community b) The rate of primary production in an ecosystem c) The relative abundance of different species in a community d) The trophic relationships between species in a food web 10. What is the most common cause of species loss globally? a) Climate change b) Invasive species c) Pollution d) Habitat loss 11. What two factors generally promote primary production? a) High temperature and high moisture b) Low temperature and low moisture c) High temperature and low moisture d) Low temperature and high moisture 12. What soil layer is characteristic of desert environments? a) O horizon b) A horizon c) B horizon d) K horizon 13. What term describes the efficiency of an organism at converting consumed food into its own biomass or offspring? a) Assimilation efficiency b) Production efficiency c) Trophic efficiency d) Consumption efficiency 14. Which of the following organism types are generally NOT very efficient at converting food into biomass due to high metabolic rates? a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Detritivores d) Omnivores 15. What concept describes the distance a nutrient atom travels downstream in a stream before it is fully cycled? a) Nutrient retention b) Nutrient turnover c) Spiraling length d) Nutrient flux 16. What are the primary agents of decomposition in most ecosystems? a) Plants b) Herbivores c) Bacteria and fungi d) Carnivores 17. Why might insects be a less desirable food source for a predator compared to something like soft-bodied prey? a) Insects are less abundant than soft-bodied prey. b) Insects are less nutritious than soft-bodied prey. c) Insects have chitinous exoskeletons that are difficult to break down, despite their abundance. d) Insects are more likely to carry parasites than soft-bodied prey. 18. Which plant component is slow to decompose? a) Chlorophyll b) Cellulose c) Lignin d) Starch 19. What combination of environmental factors leads to the fastest decomposition rates? a) High temperature and high moisture b) Low temperature and low moisture c) High temperature and low moisture d) Low temperature and high moisture 20. Which of the following is a layer found in lakes and oceans? a) Epilimnion b) Rhizosphere c) Canopy d) Understory 21. What term describes a body of water where freshwater mixes with saltwater? a) Lake b) Stream c) Estuary d) Wetland 22. Animals respire and release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, which is then taken up by plants for photosynthesis. This is an example of: a) The interconnectedness of different systems b) The food chain c) Competitive exclusion d) The nitrogen cycle 23. Which of the following is true about the phosphorus cycle? a) Phosphorus does not have a major atmospheric component. b) Phosphorus is primarily released through volcanic eruptions. c) Phosphorus is readily available to plants in all its forms. d) Phosphorus cycles rapidly through ecosystems. 24. Which forms of nitrogen can be readily used by plants? a) Nitrogen gas b) Nitrous oxide c) Nitrate and ammonium d) All forms of nitrogen are readily used by plants. 25. What is convergent evolution? a) The evolution of similar traits in closely related species due to shared ancestry. b) The evolution of similar traits in unrelated species due to similar environmental pressures. c) The evolution of new species from a common ancestor. d) The loss of traits over evolutionary time due to disuse. 26. What is biogeography? a) The study of the distribution of fossils across the globe b) The study of the evolution of life on Earth c) The study of the distribution of organisms across the globe d) The study of the interactions between organisms and their environment 27. Where is plant diversity generally the greatest? a) The poles b) Temperate regions c) The tropics d) Deserts 28. What are epiphytes? a) Plants that grow on other plants, but do not obtain nutrients from them. b) Plants that obtain nutrients from dead organic matter. c) Plants that have symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria. d) Plants that are adapted to survive in extremely dry conditions. 29. Where are Earth's major deserts located? a) Only along the equator b) Primarily at high latitudes c) Around 30 degrees north and south latitude d) Evenly distributed across the globe. 30. What change occurs during ecological succession that increases the diversity of lichens? a) Increased sunlight b) Appearance of trees, providing a three-dimensional substrate to grow upon c) Increased soil moisture d) Decreased competition from other species 31. What does the term "benthic zone" refer to? a) The surface layer of a lake or ocean b) The zone along the shoreline of a lake or ocean c) The bottom layer of a lake or ocean d) The open water zone of a lake or ocean. 32. What does the term "littoral zone" refer to? a) The surface layer of a lake or ocean b) The zone along the shoreline of a lake or ocean c) The bottom layer of a lake or ocean d) The open water zone of a lake or ocean. 33. What is the difference between oligotrophic and eutrophic lakes? a) Oligotrophic lakes are nutrient-poor, while eutrophic lakes are nutrient-rich. b) Oligotrophic lakes have high oxygen levels, while eutrophic lakes have low oxygen levels. c) Oligotrophic lakes are typically shallow, while eutrophic lakes are typically deep. d) Oligotrophic lakes have high primary productivity, while eutrophic lakes have low primary productivity. 34. What does the logistic growth equation describe? a) Population growth with unlimited resources b) Population growth that slows as it approaches carrying capacity c) Population growth that is affected by density-independent factors only d) Population growth that is cyclical 35. What does the exponential growth equation describe? a) Population growth with unlimited resources b) Population growth that slows as it approaches carrying capacity c) Population growth that is affected by density-independent factors only d) Population growth that is cyclical 36. What is unique about bogs? a) They are highly productive ecosystems. b) They have alkaline water. c) They are acidic and nutrient-poor. d) They are dominated by trees. 37. What does the acronym AET stand for? a) Annual energy transfer b) Actual evapotranspiration c) Average ecosystem temperature d) Annual energy transformation 38. Why is AET a good index of primary production? a) It reflects the amount of water available for plant growth, which is a key factor in primary production. b) It measures the total amount of energy fixed by autotrophs. c) It takes into account both temperature and precipitation. d) It is easy to measure. 39. What does the Lotka-Volterra equation describe? a) The dynamics of predator-prey interactions b) The relationship between species richness and island area c) The effects of disturbance on species diversity d) The rate of nutrient cycling in an ecosystem 40. How can the Lotka-Volterra equation be used in ecology? a) To predict the carrying capacity of a population b) To estimate the rate of extinction of a species c) To understand the factors that influence the stability of predator-prey interactions d) To determine the optimal foraging strategy of a predator. 41. What does sustainable yield refer to in conservation biology? a) The maximum amount of a resource that can be harvested without depleting the population b) The total amount of a resource available for human use c) The rate at which a resource is replenished naturally d) The economic value of a resource. 42. What is the SLOSS debate in conservation biology? a) A debate about whether a single large or several small reserves are more effective for conservation b) A debate about the role of zoos in conservation c) A debate about the ethics of genetic engineering d) A debate about the impact of climate change on biodiversity 43. What factor contributed to the greater tree diversity in Eastern Asia compared to the United States and Europe? a) Higher rates of speciation in Eastern Asia b) Fewer barriers to tree migration during glacial periods in Eastern Asia c) More favorable climatic conditions in Eastern Asia d) Lower rates of extinction in Eastern Asia 44. Ecological disturbances vary in which of the following? a) Intensity and frequency b) Duration and spatial extent c) Cause and predictability d) All of the above 45. Which of the following industries can the concept of sustainable yield be applied to? a) Fishery industries b) Mining industries c) Manufacturing industries d) All of the above 46. What is the current major extinction event caused by? a) Volcanic eruptions b) Asteroid impacts c) Human activities d) Natural climate cycles 47. Which species are at the highest risk of extinction? a) Species with wide geographic ranges b) Species with generalist habitat requirements c) Species that are endemic to islands d) Species with large population sizes 48. What does the equilibrium model of island biogeography suggest? a) That the number of species on an island is determined by a balance between immigration and extinction b) That larger islands will always have more species than smaller islands c) That islands closer to the mainland will always have fewer species than islands farther away d) That species richness on islands is stable over time. 49. What does the term "endemic" mean? a) Native to a particular region and found nowhere else b) Introduced to a new area and outcompeting native species c) Migratory, moving between different habitats seasonally d) Extinct, no longer existing 50. What is a metapopulation? a) A group of individuals of the same species living in the same area b) A group of spatially separated populations of the same species that are connected by dispersal c) A group of different species that interact with each other in a community d) A group of species that evolved from a common ancestor 51. What is a metacommunity? a) A group of individuals of the same species living in the same area b) A group of spatially separated populations of the same species that are connected by dispersal c) A group of interacting communities that are linked by dispersal d) A group of species that evolved from a common ancestor 52. What does the term "sympatric" mean? a) Occurring in the same geographic area b) Occurring in different geographic areas c) Having similar ecological niches d) Having different ecological niches. 53. What does the term "allopatric" mean? a) Occurring in the same geographic area b) Occurring in different geographic areas c) Having similar ecological niches d) Having different ecological niches. 54. What does the term "peripatric" mean? a) Occurring in adjacent geographic areas, with some overlap b) Occurring in different geographic areas, with no overlap c) Having similar ecological niches d) Having different ecological niches. 55. What mechanisms have been proposed to drive ecological succession? a) Facilitation b) Tolerance c) Inhibition d) All of the above 56. What does the Shannon-Wiener Diversity Index measure? a) Species diversity, taking into account both species richness and evenness b) The rate of primary production in an ecosystem c) The abundance of a particular species d) The stability of a community over time 57. Which of the following gases are greenhouse gases? a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide and methane d) Argon 58. Which of the following is true about the role of oceans in the carbon cycle? a) Oceans release large amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. b) Oceans are not involved in the carbon cycle. c) Oceans can act as sinks for carbon, which contributes to ocean acidification. d) Oceans absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, but do not release it. 59. What effect do chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have on the ozone layer? a) CFCs enhance the ozone layer. b) CFCs have no effect on the ozone layer. c) CFCs deplete the ozone layer. d) CFCs convert ozone into oxygen. 60. What is ecology as a discipline? a) The study of the Earth's physical systems b) The study of the evolution of life on Earth c) The study of the interactions between organisms and their environment d) The study of the classification of organisms 61. Which of the following is a level of ecological organization? a) Cell b) Tissue c) Organ d) Population 62. What does MVP stand for in conservation biology? a) Minimum Viable Population b) Maximum Viable Population c) Mean Viable Population d) Mode Viable Population 63. What does PVA stand for in conservation biology? a) Population Viability Analysis b) Population Vulnerability Assessment c) Population Viability Assessment d) Population Vulnerability Analysis 64. What does the equilibrium model of island biogeography suggest about conservation biology? a) That a near, large island should have the most species, while a small, distant island should have the fewest b) That the size and distance of an island are not important for conservation c) That all islands should be protected equally, regardless of their size or distance. d) That the equilibrium model of island biogeography is not relevant to conservation biology 65. What is the difference between ectothermy and endothermy? a) Ectotherms rely on external sources of heat, while endotherms generate their own body heat. b) Ectotherms are cold-blooded, while endotherms are warm-blooded. c) Ectotherms are active at night, while endotherms are active during the day. d) Ectotherms are found in aquatic environments, while endotherms are found in terrestrial environments. 66. What is the difference between homeothermy and poikilothermy? a) Homeotherms maintain a constant body temperature, while poikilotherms have fluctuating body temperatures. b) Homeotherms are warm-blooded, while poikilotherms are cold-blooded. c) Homeotherms are active at night, while poikilotherms are active during the day. d) Homeotherms are found in terrestrial environments, while poikilotherms are found in aquatic environments. 67. Which consumers influence primary production in the Serengeti? a) Lions b) Elephants c) Wildebeest d) Cheetahs 68. Which invertebrate consumers can influence primary production in lakes? a) Crayfish b) Daphnia (water fleas) c) Dragonfly nymphs d) Snails 69. What is a density-dependent factor? a) A factor that affects a population more strongly as population density increases b) A factor that affects a population regardless of population density c) A factor that limits population growth d) A factor that promotes population growth. 70. What is a density-independent factor? a) A factor that affects a population more strongly as population density increases b) A factor that affects a population regardless of population density c) A factor that limits population growth d) A factor that promotes population growth. 71. What is Gauss's principle of competitive exclusion? a) Two species with very similar ecological niches cannot coexist indefinitely; the better competitor will outcompete the other. b) Two species with different ecological niches can coexist indefinitely. c) Competition is not an important factor in structuring communities. d) Species can evolve to avoid competition. 72. What is the difference between a fundamental niche and a realized niche? a) The fundamental niche is the full range of environmental conditions a species can tolerate, while the realized niche is the narrower range of conditions it actually occupies in the presence of competition. b) The fundamental niche is the niche a species occupies in the absence of predators, while the realized niche is the niche it occupies in the presence of predators. c) The fundamental niche is the niche a species occupies during the day, while the realized niche is the niche it occupies at night. d) The fundamental niche is the niche a species occupies in its native range, while the realized niche is the niche it occupies in an introduced range. 73. What is the Allee effect? a) A phenomenon in which population growth rate decreases at low population densities b) A phenomenon in which population growth rate increases at low population densities c) A phenomenon in which population growth rate is not affected by population density d) A phenomenon in which population growth rate is cyclical. 74. Kangaroo rats are important members of which ecosystem? a) Tropical rainforest b) Temperate forest c) Desert d) Tundra 75. What is an important characteristic of cottontail rabbits? a) They are apex predators. b) They are keystone species. c) They are herbivores. d) They are endangered species. 76. The decline of boreal plant species is attributed more to __________ than ___________. a) habitat loss; climate change b) climate change; habitat loss 77.The recovery of the ozone layer is due in part to international agreements to reduce the emissions of __________. a) nitrogen b) carbon dioxide c) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) d) methane 78.The conversion of plant communities to desert or the expansion of desert into other communities is referred to as __________. a) acid precipitation b) desertification c) eutrophication d) habitat fragmentation 79.During an El Nino event, a warm current appears off the coast of __________ during the __________ season. a) Chile; summer b) California; spring c) Peru; Christmas d) Australia; winter 80.Decomposition rates in terrestrial systems are significantly influenced by __________, __________, and __________. a) salinity, pH, and substrate b) elevation, latitude, and longitude c) temperature, moisture, and chemical composition d) seasonality, nutrient availability, and light