Hormone Function Quiz PDF

1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics? A. Estrogen B. Oxytocin C. Progesterone D. Testosterone 2. What is the primary function of progesterone in the female reproductive system? A. Simulating ovulation B. Triggering milk product...

1. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics? A. Estrogen B. Oxytocin C. Progesterone D. Testosterone 2. What is the primary function of progesterone in the female reproductive system? A. Simulating ovulation B. Triggering milk production C. Promoting the development of male traits D. Maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy 3. Which female sex hormone that is responsible for the development of typical female sexual characteristics? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) D. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) 4. Sherley is learning about the hormonal changes in the female reproductive system. She read that estrogen and progesterone are essential for regulating the menstrual cycle and preparing the body for pregnancy. She found out that during the first half of the menstrual cycle. estrogen helps thicken the uterine lining, while progesterone plays a key role in maintaining the lining for pregnancy after ovulation. What is the role of estrogen and progesterone in the female reproductive system? Estrogen _ A. promotes the release of eggs, while progesterone thickens the uterine lining. B. prevents ovulation, while progesterone triggers the shedding of the uterine lining. C. helps thicken the uterine lining, while progesterone maintains the lining for pregnancy. D. prepares the ovaries for egg production, while progesterone suppresses hormone release 5. What is the difference between testosterone and estrogen in reproductive functions? A. Both regulate egg production in females. B. Estrogen stimulates male reproductive glands. C. Testosterone is found only in males, and estrogen only in females. D. Testosterone regulates sperm production, while estrogen prepares the uterus for pregnancy. 6. Joshua is studying how hormones control the male reproductive system. He learned that testosterone plays a central role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and the production of sperm. In addition, luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) regulate testosterone production and sperm production in the testes Which of the following statements correctly explains the roles of testosterone, LH, and FSH in the male reproductive system? A. LH stimulates the production of testosterone, while FSH helps in sperm production and maturation. B. FSH stimulates testosterone production, while LH promotes the growth of male reproductive organs. C. Testosterone inhibits the release of LH and FSH, and FSH triggers the growth of secondary sexual characteristics. D. Testosterone stimulates the production of sperm, while LH and FSH regulate the growth of secondary sexual characteristics. 7. How does estrogen affect the female reproductive system? A. Inhibits follicle growth B. Promotes sperm maturation C. Stimulates the release of testosterone D. Thickens the uterine lining for potential pregnancy 8. How does testosterone secretion affect the development of an organism during puberty? It _ A. increases milk production in females. B. prevents the growth of reproductive organs. C. promotes the thickening of the uterine lining in females. D. stimulates the development of secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair and a deeper voice in males. 9. What is the effect of estrogen secretion on the development of A female reproductive system? It _ A. suppresses ovulation. B. stimulates sperm production. C. triggers the release of sperm in males. D. promotes the development of secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development and widening of the hips. 10. Which refers to the "period" that occurs in females where. fertilization takes place? A. Puberty B. Ovulation C. Menopause D. Menstruation 11. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by the thickening of the uterine lining in preparation for potential pregnancy? A. Luteal phase B. Follicular phase C. Ovulation phase D. Menstrual phase 12. What takes place during menstrual phase? The _ A. hormone levels remain constant. B. mature egg is released from the ovary. C. uterine lining sheds and exits the body. D. uterine lining thickens to prepare for implantation. 13. Which hormone keeps the uterine lining thick during the luteal phase A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) D. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) 14. Alexa is learning about the menstrual cycle, which has different phases-controlled by hormones. In the first half, estrogen matures an egg and thickens the uterine lining. Mid-cycle, a surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) causes ovulation. After ovulation, progesterone keeps the uterine lining ready for a possible pregnancy. Alexa wonders how hormonal changes during the menstrual cycle affect the body. Which sequence of hormone actions best fits the scenario? A. Estrogen increases, causing the uterine lining to shed, followed by a surge in progesterone that causes ovulation. B. Progesterone decreases, leading to the release of an egg, and estrogen thickens the uterine lining for implantation. C. LH helps thicken the uterine lining, estrogen triggers ovulation, and progesterone causes the shedding of the uterine lining D. Estrogen helps thicken the uterine lining, LH triggers ovulation, and progesterone maintains the lining for potential pregnancy. 15. What is the primary purpose of a feedback mechanism in the body? To _ A. stop all hormonal activity B. trigger random changes in hormone levels C. ensure continuous production of all hormones D. maintain homeostasis by regulating biological processes 16. How does a negative feedback mechanism regulate estrogen levels during the menstrual cycle? A. Estrogen levels do not affect FSH release. B. Low estrogen levels stop the production of Progesterone. C. High estrogen levels simulate the release of more Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) D. High estrogen levels inhibit the release of Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) to prevent excessive follicle growth. 17. Which is an example positive feedback mechanism in the female reproductive system? A. Decreasing estrogen levels reducing uterine lining growth. B. Progesterone suppressing FSH and LH release after ovulation. C. FSH inhibiting the release to regulate the menstrual cycle. D. A surge in LH triggered by ang estrogen levels to induce ovulation. 18. Which are the two main divisions of the nervous system? A. Sensory and Motor Nervous Systems B. Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems C. Autonomic and Somatic Nervous Systems D. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nervous Systems 19. What does the Central Nervous System (CNS) consist of? A. Brain and spinal cord B. Skeletal muscles and glands C. Nerves and sensory receptors D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems 20. Which subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System controls voluntary movements? A. Enteric Nervous System B. Central Nervous System C. Somatic Nervous System D. Autonomic Nervous System 21. A group of students is investigating how the nervous system responds to external stimuli. During their experiment, they step on a sharp object and immediately lift their foot. Later, they notice that their breathing rate increased during the experience. Which BEST explains how the nervous system divisions worked together during this event? The A. Central NS moved foot, peripheral NS increased heart rate. B. Autonomic NS increased breathing, somatic NS moved foot C. Sensory nerves detected pain, then motor nerves lifted foot D. Sensory perves increased heart rate, motor nerves detected pain. 22. Which function of the nervous system involves detecting changes in the environment through sensory receptors? A. Sensation B. Response C. Integration D. Coordination 23. You are walking barefoot on the beach and suddenly step on a sharp rock. You feel pain, quickly lift your fool and realize what happened. Which of the following best explains how the nervous system processes this event? A. Sensation: Your brain registers pain from the rock Integration: Your muscles prepare to move your foot Response: Your skin detects the sharp rock B. Sensation: Your skin detects the sharpness of the rock Integration: Your brain identifies the sensation as pain Response: Your muscles contract to lift your foot. C. Sensation: Your brain decides to lift your foot. Integration: Your muscles contract to avoid injury. Response: Your skin detects the sharpness of the rock D. Sensation: Your foot lifts to avoid further injury Integration: Your brain decides stopping on the rock is painful Response: Your foot detects a sharp rock. 24. Which BEST describes the role of the nervous system in maintaining homeostasis? it _ A. exclusively controls, voluntary actions like walking. B. is responsible for digestion and nutrient absorption C. sends sensory signals to the muscles to create movement D. regulates body temperature by controlling sweating and shivering 25. A person walks outside on a cold day without a jacket. His body begins to shiver to maintain a stable internal temperature. Which of the following best explains how the nervous system helps coordinate this response to maintain homeostasis? A. - The brain detects cold without sensory neurons. - The brain sends signals to stop movement B. - Sensory neurons detect cold and signal the brain. - The brain signals blood vessels to dilate and release heat C. - Sensory neurons detect cold and directly cause shivering - The brain is not involved. - Shivering generates heat to cool the body. D. - Sensory neurons detect cold and signal the brain. - The brain sends signals to muscles to shiver. - Shivering generates heat to restore temperature. 26. Which term describes the condition when all parts of the body function in harmony with each other? A. impulse B. unstable C. feedback D. homeostasis 27. Anna has been jogging on a hot day and starts to sweat heavily. the following best explains how sweating helps her body maintain homeostasis? Sweating _ A. removes toxins to cool the body. B. releases heat through evaporation. C. blocks heat from entering the body. D. raises blood pressure to stay hydrated. 28. Which other term refers to a nerve cell? A. neuron B. ganglion C. autonomic D. mitochondrion 29. How does the nervous system contribute to negative feedback mechanisms in the body? By _ A. controlling only voluntary actions that are unrelated to balance. B. detecting changes and activating systems that restore balance. C. amplifying the body's response to stimuli, increasing imbalance. D. controlling hormone production that causes immediate responses. 30. Which type of band holds complimentary nitrogenous bases together in a DNA molecule? A. Ionic bond B. peptide bond C. hydrogen bond D. high energy bond 31. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication? A. Ligase B. Helicase C. DNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase 32. Which of the following sequences of DNA bases is complementary to the sequence: ATC-GTG-CCC? A. AUG-CAC-GGG B. AUG-TAT-GGG C. TAG-CAC-GGG D. TAG-TAT-GGG 33. What is the complementary RNA base pairing rule during transcription? A. A pairs with T, and C pairs with G B. A pairs with U, and C pairs with G C. T pairs with A, and G pairs with C D. U pairs with T, and G pairs with C 34. During DNA replication, which of the following correctly describes the role of polymerase? It _ A. transcribes DNA into RNA. B. unwinds the DNA double helix. C. seals the gaps between newly synthesized DNA fragments. D. synthesizes a new strand by adding complementary nucleotides. 35. What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis? It A. adds amino acids to the growing protein chain. B. forms the structural components of the ribosome. C. catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids. D. carries the genetic code from the DNA to the ribosome for protein synthesis. 36. Why is tRNA important in protein synthesis during translation? It _ A. delivers DNA to the ribosomes, B. transports amino acids to build protein. C. aids mRNA in binding to the ribosomes. D. assembles the protein in the ribosomes 37. Which is a stop codon? A. UAG B. UCC C. UUC D. UUU 38. Which is the correct order of events that take place during the synthesis of a specific protein? I. Amino acids are bonded together. II. Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome. III. Transfer RNA bonds to a specific codon. IV. RNA exits from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. V. DNA serves as a template for the production of RNA. A. V-IV-II-III-I B. I-II-III-IV-V C. III-I-IV-V-II D.V-I-IV-II-III 39. What do you call the change in a gene due to damage or being copied incorrectly? A. meiosis B. mutation C. evolution D. segregation 40. Which type of DNA mutation involves the substitution of one nucleotide for another? A. Deletion B. Insertion C. Duplication D. Substitution 41. Which of the following describes a frameshift mutation? It _ A. deletes part of the protein chain. B. swaps one amino acid for another C. links two different proteins together. D. introduces an abnormal sequence of amino acids, 42. Which substance is least likely to cause changes in DNA? A. vitamins B. radiation C. cigarette smoke D. alcohol and drugs 43. Which of the following would be the corresponding mRNA codon if the DNA template reads "ATA"? A. ATA B. UAU C. TUT D. UCU 44. When does gene mutation occur? During _ A. DNA repair B. cell division C. DNA replication D. RNA transcription 45. Which method can help determine the age of fossils? A. Checking the size of the fossil. B. Examining the appearance of the fossil. C. Measuring the amount of carbon-14 in the fossil. D. Identifying the cause of the fossil's discoloration. 46. A group of Grade 10 students is studying the wing structures of a bat and a bird. Both animals use their for flight, but upon closer inspection, the bone structures of their wings are different. Despite these differences, both wings serve the same function of enabling flight. This is an example of analogous structures. What does the similarity in function between the bats and birds' wings despite their different bone structures suggest about their evolutionary relationship? The _ A. bats and birds have similar genetic material that determines the structure of their wings. B. bats and birds share a common ancestor, and their wings evolved to serve the same function. C. wings of the bats and birds are homologous structures, meaning they evolved from the same bone structure. D. bats and birds evolved independently. Their wings adapted to serve similar functions in response to similar environmental challenges. 47. Which BEST describes homologous structures? Structures that _ A. are unique to a single species and are not found in other organisms. B. are from mutations and disappear over time without serving a purpose. C. in different organisms serve the same function but have different evolutionary origins. D. are similar in origin and structure, but may serve different functions in different organisms. 48. Which BEST describes the Theory of Natural Selection? A. Developed characteristics of parents can be passed on to their offspring. B. Organisms develop necessary structures to survive in a given environment. C. Organs that are not used may fade, while organs that are constantly utilized may develop. D. In nature, the organism with necessary characteristics may survive, while those with weaker traits may not 49. During biology class, students learn about different theories of evolution. Their teacher explains Lamarck's idea using giraffes as an example. According to Lamarck, giraffes originally had short necks, but over time, they stretched their necks to reach leaves on tall trees. This stretching, he believed, TIME caused their necks to grow longer, and this trait was passed down to their offspring. After hearing the explanation, the teacher asks the class a question: Which BEST explains how giraffes evolved according to Lamarck's theory? Giraffes _ A. living in areas with shorter trees did not need to stretch their necks and therefore, kept shorter necks. B. randomly developed long necks due to mutations, and this trait became common over generations. C. stretched their necks to reach higher leaves, and this acquired trait was inherited by their offspring. D. with naturally longer necks were more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on the trait to their offspring. 50. What does adaptation promote in a species? To _ A. help organisms avoid competition B. increase the chances of finding food C. allow organisms to change behavior D. increase the chances of survival and reproduction CORRECT ANSWERS 1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. D 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. B 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. D 36. B 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. B 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. D 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. D