SST Question Bank Class VIII PDF

CHAPTER 1 NATURAL RESOURCES: UTILIZATION AND DEVELOPMENT 1. All the things which are necessary for existence on the earth is known as a) resources b)energy c) fuel d) shelter 2. On the basis of l...

CHAPTER 1 NATURAL RESOURCES: UTILIZATION AND DEVELOPMENT 1. All the things which are necessary for existence on the earth is known as a) resources b)energy c) fuel d) shelter 2. On the basis of level of development resources are classified into a) biotic and abiotic b) natural and manmade c) renewable and non- renewable d) potential and actual 3. _________is a renewable resource. a) Coal b)solar energy c) petroleum d) mineral 4. Which is the correct reason for the African countries being less developed? a) most of the people are illiterate and unskilled b) country is rich in resources c) the workforce is underpaid d) none of the above 5. The watering of Land or crops through Canal, tube wells or sprinkler is known as a) navigation b) irrigation c) conservation d) depletion 6. Which of the following steps are necessary for sustainable development? a) Use all renewable resources judicially b) Conserve the variety species c) Minimise the depletion of natural resource d) All the above 7. Which one is not a natural resource? a) Road b) Water c) Mineral d) Forest 8. Fill in the blanks : a) ______________means sustainable and optimum utilisation of resources. b) ____________is when quality or number of something is continuously reducing. c) Road buildings are ____________ resources. d) The _____________of Africa eat the edible parts of plant and hunt animals. e) _________________ can be used again and again after processing. f) ______________Resources are renewable and_____________ resources are non renewable.  9. Write the technical term for each of the following statements : a) The continuous reduction in the quantity or number of something : b) The ability to perform certain task with efficiency : c) The watering of land or crops through canals, tubewells, sprinkler method : d) All non living resources are known as. e) Resources which are available but not properly utilised. 10. Match the following : COLUMN I COLUMN II a) Biotic resources Renewable b) Solar energy Living being c) Coal Man _ made d) Road Exhaustible 11. Prepare a chart showing the classification of resources also give a suitable example of each category: Classification Based on Classification of ResourcesWx Examples 1. RENEWABILITY 2. 2. ORIGIN 3. 3. OCCURRENCE 4. 4. DEVELOPMENT 12. Define resources. 13. Mention two disadvantages of over irrigation. 14. How utilisation of resources in advanced society is different from ancient times? 15. "USA is a developed nation and on other hand India is a developing Nation". Justify. 16. A resource which is available in spite of human activity is known as _____________ resource. Example of the above-mentioned resource is__________________. 17. "All biotic resources are renewable". Explain. 18. "The quality and quantity of people of a country determine its human resource". Explain. 19. As human beings are the most intelligent inhabitants of earth, how can they ensure sustainable development? 20. Why is it very essential to use resources more efficiently and reduce their wastage? Explain any three reasons. 21. Explain any three points to highlight the importance of resource planning. 22. State any three reasons for preferring renewable resources over non renewable resources. 23. "The use of resources varies from one country to another. Support the statement with two suitable arguments. 24. Classify resources on the basis of their occurrence and explain them with the help of examples. 25. Show with the help of examples that merely the presence of resources does not guarantee development. 26. Classify the resources on the basis of development. Explain the differences between them. 27. Why is USA termed as a developed country? Examine the role of human resource in the development of a country. 28. Suggest any three measures to conserve resources. 29. Explain any three reasons responsible for processing of the human civilization along the river valleys. 30. Look around your house and School, list any three ways to reduce wastage of water. 31. “Use the resource according to the need and not according to the greed”. Evaluate the statement by giving suitable argument (Any two). 32. What are renewable resources known as?  CHAPTER -2 NATURAL RESOURCES: LAND, SOIL AND WATER Section-A 1. Lithosphere consists of loose surface, which is a combination of organic and inorganic matter. a)water b)soil c) rocks d) none 2. Soil is formed due to long continued process known as a) reservation b) weathering c) decomposition d) tilling 3. The thickness of the soil cover is dependent on a) the climate b) the parent rock c) the topographical variation d) the vegetation cover 4. Which is not correct about Soil Conservation? a) Afforestation b) Overgrazing c) Shelter belts planted in the desert d) Rotation of Crops 5. The disease caused due to the polluted water is a) Jaundice b) Malaria c) Common Cold d) Influenza 6. Which of the following steps are necessary for water conservation? a) Water harvesting b) Having vegetation cover c) Making dams across the river d) All the above 7. Give one word or technical term for the statement given below : a) The storing of rainwater through various method b) The cutting down of large number of trees in an area or clearing of forest cover c) The use of land for various purposes d) The process of disintegration of rocks into small pieces till it get converted into Soil 8. Fill in the blanks: a) The most appropriate method to check soil erosion in desert region is _______________. b) ___________ soil of India is derived from the Lava rock. c) The percentage of freshwater on the earth is _________. d) ______________ is the process of planting more trees and seeds on the land. e) _____________ farming and______________ ploughing should be encouraged across the hill slopes. f) The interrelationship of biological element with physical element of the environment is ______. 9. Match the following: Column A Column B 1. Damoder dam Egypt 2. Hoover dam India 3. Hirakud dam USA 4. Aswan dam India 10. Correct the following statement: a) 70% of the world population is inhabited in the plain areas. b) The distribution of fresh water resources on the earth's surface is even. c) Soil cover is always thin in plains. 11. A) Identify the technique of ploughing in the given picture: _____________________ B) Identify the irrigation from the given picture: _____________________ 12. Name the four spheres present on the earth. 13. On what factor does the utilisation of land depends upon? 14. Define land use pattern.  Section-B 15. Explain any two points of importance of the study of land use pattern for the economic planning of a nation. 16. Interpret the reason for 90% of World Population living in the plain areas of the world in contrast to the sparse population in deserts. 17. "Soil is of immense value to the farmers". Support the statement with three arguments. 18. Explain with the help of two examples as to how the topography helps in the formation of soil. 19. “Both plants and animals directly or indirectly depend on soil for the survival” justify. 20. “Climatic factors affect the formation of soil” justify your answer with suitable examples. 21. How far is it correct to say that the vegetation cover is an important factor affecting the formation of soil? 22. "It is the need of the hour to conserve water resources for human survival on the earth". Support the statement with any three arguments. 23. Assess any three ways to show the importance of soil as a resource. 24. Mention any two natural and human factors that cause soil erosion. Section –C 25. Suggest any five measures for the conservation of soil so that this planet can remain fit for the coming generation. 26. Define hydrological cycle. Explain the distribution of freshwater resources on the earth. 27. Show with relevant examples that multipurpose river valley projects are developed all over the world to utilise the water. 28. "Although large dams are useful yet they cause ecological problems". Explain. 29. The Latur district of Maharashtra and many other districts were severely affected by drought in the year 2016-2017 due to the deficient rainfall as a result of global warming. As an aware citizen develop a few plans to combat this situation. Section -D 30. On a political map of world, identify these features with the help of following information and write the correct names on the lines marked on the map. A. A region of high rainfall in South America. B. A region of low rainfall in Australia. C. An area having low rainfall in northern part of Africa On the same political map of the world, locate and label the following items with appropriate symbols. D. An area having low rainfall in Southern part of Africa E. An area having high rainfall in Asia. F. An area having high rainfall in Africa.  CHAPTER 3 NATURAL RESOURCES: VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE 1. The condition required for the forest to be thick and dense is a) heavy rainfall b) scanty rainfall c) low temperature d) none 2. Mahogany and Ebony are found in a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Tropical deciduous forest c) Mediterranean forest d) Coniferous forest 3. Trees of medium height( 30-40m) are found in a) Tropical deciduous forest b) Coniferous forest c) Mediterranean forest d)Tropical evergreen forest 4. In which of the following countries the blackbuck, peacock and lion are found? a) Australia b) China c) India d) America 5. Siberian cranes visit which sanctuary of India a) Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary b) Chinnar wildlife sanctuary c) Manas Sanctuary d) None of the above 6. The place where hunting of animals and cutting of trees is banned but people can collect firewood, timber and medicinal herbs in moderate amount is _______________. a) National parks b) Wild life Sanctuary c) Zoological Park d) None 7. Fill in the blanks _ a) At present India has_________ Wildlife sanctuaries and____________ national parks. b) The animals which are tamed as for agricultural purpose are known as______________. c) Temperate soft wood forest found on southern slopes of Himalayas is commonly known as_____________________. d) Pine, Spruce, Cedar are found in__________________. e) Tropical rainforest are found in the______________ of India. f) Mediterranean forest is usually found in areas having____________ and moderate rainfall during_______________. g) _______________is a region drained by river and its tributaries. h) Our wildlife suffers severally due to_________________ and_________________. i) _____________is famous for koala bear, emu and Kookaburra. j) _____________changes at the time of natural disaster like tsunami and earthquake k) Temperate softwood forest is commonly known as________________. 8. Give one word or technical term for the statement a) A declared protected area in which limited human activities are permitted. b) Forest having plants which shed leaves during dry season to conserve water. c) Forest which always appear green. d) The assemblage of plant species in an environment. 9. State whether given statements are True or false a) Eucalyptus is common in Australia. b) Citrus fruits and olive trees are commonly found in temperate softwood forest. c) Forest help us to breathe by converting oxygen into carbon dioxide. d) Grand Canyon national park of USA is declared as a World Heritage site by the UNESCO. e) At present India has 150 National Park and 528 Wildlife sanctuaries. 10. Match the following COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III Tropical evergreen forest Sal , Teak Monsoon forest Tropical deciduous forest Pine, fur Coniferous forest Temperate softwood forest Ebony Rain forest 11. MATRIX Type of Forest Leaves Trees Animals Correct Tropical deciduous Sheesham Lion forest Temperate softwood Needle shaped Deodar Golden eagle forest 12. Give two examples for each of the following: a) Animals found in deciduous forest b) Animals found in Mediterranean forest c) Animals found in Temperate Softwood forest d) Plants found in Mediterranean forest e) Plants in Temperate Softwood forest 13. State the types of forest where trees like mahogany and Rosewood are found. 14. Shalu went to see a forest and found rubber trees there. Identify the type of forest she went into. 15. Wildlife conservation project was launched in which national park of India? 16. Name the main constituent of natural vegetation. 17. Name a National park and a wildlife sanctuary which has been declared as Heritage site by UNESCO. 18. Describe three consequences of deforestation. 19. Highlight any two features of the trees found in the Mediterranean forests that help them to retain moisture in the dry summer season. Name any two trees found in the Mediterranean forest. 20. "Wildlife is very essential to maintain the ecological balance on the earth's surface". In the light of the above statement mention any three measures taken to protect the wildlife. 21. How are human activities in several parts of the world disturbing the natural habitat of many species? Explain. 22. List the points you would like to highlight during a Radio Talk Show on conservation and importance of wildlife. 23. "Forest is the breathing Lungs of Civilization". Justify the statement by giving three arguments. 24. State the difference between Mediterranean forest and coniferous forest on the following basis a) important animals b)areas c)climate 25. On a political map of the world, identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map: (A) A type of forest in South America (B) A type of forest in Europe and Asia On the same outline political map of the world locate and label the following items with appropriate symbols: (C) one region of Tropical Deciduous Forest in Australia. (D) one region of Mediterranean Forest in Europe.  CHAPTER 4 MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES PROJECT BASED: Make a brochure of different types of minerals with detail information and pictures of their uses. Make a model of any one of the non conventional source of energy. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation on conventional source of energy Mention the steps taken by the government to use more non conventional source of energy. Paste the pictures of steps taken by the government.  CHAPTER 5 AGRICULTURE 1. The physical factors that affect the agriculture are a) climate b) means of irrigation c) size of land holdings d) machines 2. Which one is not type of subsistence agriculture? a) nomadic herding b) shifting agriculture c) dairy farming d) intensive agriculture 3. The type of agriculture in which people migrate along with their animals from one place to another in search of fodder for their animals is known as: a) Subsistence agriculture b) Nomadic herding c) Intensive agriculture d) Dairy farming 4. In Argentina and Eastern USA the animals are reared along with cultivation of crops this type of farming is known as a) mixed farming b) dairy farming c) plantation agriculture d) intensive agriculture 5. Wheat requires which type of soil for its growth? a) loamy soil b) clay soil c) alluvial soil d) poor soil 6. Which one is a beverage crop? a) cotton b) coffee c) wheat d) jute 7. Fill in your blanks : a) India is the _______largest producer of rice in the world. b) Maize is known as _________ in the USA. c) Tea grows well in_______ and ___________conditions of the Tropical and subtropical regions d) Coffee crop need well________ fertile soil. e) ________________ is combined Continental landmass of Europe and Asia. f) _____________ involves the use of living organism and bio processes in engineering g) Shifting agriculture is also called ________________agriculture. h) When animals are reared along with the cultivation of land, it is known as_______________. i) __________ is the soil that has high percentage of fine grained sedimentary material with particles smaller than.002mm in diameter. 8. Write a technical term for an appropriate word for each of the following statements: a) The study of shape and features of the surface of the earth. b) A fine grained fertile soil deposited by river water flowing over the flood plains or in river beds. c) A well organised agriculture where in a single crop is grown on large farm for sale in distant market is. d) Type of farming where farming is carried on small scale to grow food for personal or community consumption. 9. Correct the following statements: 1. Loamy and clayey soil is ideal for cotton cultivation. 2. Extensive agriculture is practised in developing countries. 3. Highlands are most suitable for agriculture than the plains. 4. USA is the largest milk producer. 5. Livestock ranching is also a part of subsistence agriculture. 10. MATRIX CEREALS SOIL TYPE TEMPERAT AREAS CORRECT URE WHEAT LOAMY SOIL SOWING UTTARPRADESH TIME 10° C_ 15°C RICE ALLUVIAL, DELTA REGION LOAMY AND CLAYEY SOIL 11. Complete the flowchart : Factors affecting Agriculture Physical or Geographical factors Size of land holding Climate 12. Match the following and write their geographical condition also:
Soil _______________ WHEAT
Temperature ______________ Rainfall __________________
Soil _______________ COTTON
Temperature ______________ Rainfall __________________
Soil _______________ COFFEE
Temperature ______________ Rainfall __________________
Soil _______________ MAIZE
Temperature ______________ Rainfall __________________ 13. Define agriculture. 14. Name the fibre crop for which India is the leading producer. 15. What is retting? 16. Give two example of each a) Natural fibres b) Artificial fibre 17. Why Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana are the main cotton producing state of India? 18. Mention the different techniques adopted by farmers to increase the agricultural productivity? 19. "The use of genetically modified crop is still limited". Why? 20. "It is often said agriculture is the backbone of our India's economic development". Justify. 21. How do the relief, climate and soil features affect the agriculture of a particular place? Explain. 22. Explain shifting agriculture. In which part of the world is this form prevalent? 23. Explain the meaning of livestock ranching. List the three major types of livestock. 24. Mohan is a farmer who wants to grow millets. Explain the geographical condition required for it. 25. "Biotechnology is useful for agriculture ".Explain. 26. While comparing the agricultural practice of USA with India which practice you find more effective and why? 27. What type of soil and temperature is required for growing jute? Name two jute producing countries in the world. What problem is being faced by the jute industry all over the world?  CHAPTER 6 MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES SECTION A 1. The smallest manufacturing unit, where the craftsmen works at home and other family members join in making the goods , this type of industry is a) Cottage or Household b)Small-scale c)Agro-based d)Animal-based 2. When the ownership of industry is in the hands of the government or its department, then it is called a) private sector b)public sector c)joint sector d)co-operative sector 3. _______ used to be called Manchester of India. a) Ahmedabad b)Jamshedpur c)Bengaluru d)Mumbai 4. The Silicon Valley of India is a) Bengaluru b)Mumbai c)Delhi d)Surat 5. Wipro and Infosys are ______ Company a) Electronic b)textile c) motor parts d)IT 6. Which of the following is a public sector undertaking? a) Bihali steel plant b)Amul c) Pepsi d) TISCO 7. Fill in the Blanks: a) The government policies, capital, management, banking, labour and developed means of transport are _______ factors responsible for location of industry. b) An enterprise operating in several countries but managed from one country is known as________. c) The industry which uses animal products like milk, egg, leather as raw material is known as_______ d) When an industry is owned and managed by a group of people belonging to co-operative society than it is _________ sector. e) _______ industry produces products which are used as raw materials for other industries. f) ________ is the basic systems and services that a society uses in order to work effectively. 8. Industries like Maruti Udyog come under which sector? a) Private sector b) Public Sector c) Co-operative sector d) Joint Sector 9. Ahmedabad was earlier known as ___________________________. 10. State whether the given statement is true or false give reason to support your answer. All public sector Iron and Steel plants are under the management of TISCO. 11. State whether the given statement is true or false. At present India has ten major Iron and Steel plants. 12. Rewrite the statement correctly. India has always produced high quality of Iron and Delhi Metro in Delhi gives ample proof of it. 13. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Manchester Of India i. Jamshedji Nusserwanji Tata 2. Back bone of modern civilization ii. Ahmedabad 3. Bengaluru iii. Iron and steel industry 4. Founder of TISCO iv. Information technology a) 1- ii 2- iv, 3- iii, 4-i b) 1- ii 2- iii, 3- iv, 4-i c) 1- iii 2- iv, 3- ii, 4-i d) 1- iv 2- iii, 3- i, 4-ii 14. TISCO: ___________:: IISCO : Burnpur 15. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Basic Industry i. Cotton Industry 2. Agro-base industry ii. Bhilai Steel Plant 3. Public Sector iii. Radio, Television 4. Consumer goods industry iv. Iron and Steel Industry a) 1- ii 2- iv, 3- iii, 4-i b) 1- ii 2- iii, 3- iv, 4-i c) 1- iv 2- i, 3- ii, 4-iii d) 1- iv 2- iii, 3-i, 4-ii 16. Rohan and his family members work at home and make tie and dye dupattas to be sold in the market. Identify the type of industry in this case. 17. State the full forms of i. SAIL ii. MNC 18. Size of industry: small scale industry :: ________________________: Co- operative sector 19. Mention the name of an industry which is owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals. 20. Mrs. Sakuntala runs an industry where her capital investment is more than1crore. What kind of industry she owns. 21. The word textile is derived from a latin word called __________________. 22. How do manufacturing industries help agriculture? 23. Name an industry that is run jointly by the state and individuals or a group of individuals. 24. Identify the person in given image 25. A large Company, producing industrial equipment, designs its products in research centre in the United States, and then has the components manufactured in China. These are then shipped to Mexico and Eastern Europe where the products are assembled, and the finished products are sold all over the world. Meanwhile, the company’s customer care is carried out through call centre located in India. Identify the type of company in the above example. 26. How do manufacturing industries help in earning foreign exchange? 27. When and where was the first Iron and steel industry established? SECTION B 29. Categorise the following factors influencing the location of an industry into geographical and non- geographical factors: Raw material, capital, infrastructure, land, climate, government policies 30. Classify the industries on the basis of finished products. 31. ‘The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.’ Give three arguments to support this statement. 32. How does manufacturing lead to value addition of the raw material? Explain with the help of examples. 33. Distinguish between joint and co-operative industries with examples. 34. State any three problems faced by cotton textile industries in India. 35. Why is cotton textile industry concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat? Give any three reasons. 36. Elucidate why peninsular India is an ideal region for the establishment of Iron and Steel Industry? 37. Classify industries into two categories on the basis of their capital investment. Give two examples of each category. 38. Classify iron and steel industry and sugar industry into industries on the basis of their source of raw material. State one point of difference and one example of each. 39. How does a manufacturing industry play an important role in making country economically prosperous? 40. Differentiate the cottage industry from the small scale industry. 41. Examine the main features of private sector. 42. Give a comparative account the development of cotton textiles in Ahmedabad Ah dabad and Osaka. 43. What is meant by Industrial region? Mention two factors responsible for the development of an industrial region. SECTION C 44. Highlight the importance of manufacturing industries in five points. 45. How are manufacturing industries classified? 46. State any five reasons for the growth of textile industry in Ahmedabad over Mumbai. 47. Name the important industrial regions in India 48. “Bengaluru in India is a center of information technology.” Justify 49. Explain the advantageous location enjoyed by TISCO. 50. Highlight the feature of the IT Industry in USA. 51. Explain how the city of Jamshedpur enjoys an advantageous location. 52. “Starting of software Technology Park in Bengaluru resulted in rapid growth in IT arena.” Support the statement by giving relevant facts. SECTION D 53. On the given political map of the world identify the country mark and write their name on the line provided on the map: A. Important Iron and steel manufacturing county B. Important cotton manufacturing country of the world. world  CHAPTER 7 HUMAN RESOURCE SECTION A 1. The average population density on this earth is __________ persons per sq. km. a) 50 b)47 c)250 d)75 2. Which country has larger population than that of combined population of USA, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan and Bangladesh? a) India b) China c) Russia d) Australia 3. Which one is not an economic factor that controls the distribution of population? a) Minerals b) Industries c) Climate d) developed means of transport 4. When a country has large population of children below 15years and people above 59 years. Then the country has________ population. a) dependent b) productive c) young d) adult 5. Name the state which has the highest sex-ratio. a) Haryana b) Punjab c) Kerala d) Rajasthan 6. Fill in the blanks : a) The human density on this earth is ______ persons per sq. Km. b) The areas with population density less than 1person per sq. Km are the _______ and the________ regions. c) The physical factors which affect the distribution of population are _________, _______, __________ and _________. d) An Indian state with highest sex-ratio is______ and lowest sex-ratio is ________. e) When people come from another area it is ___________. f) ______ is the number of deaths per 1000 people in a particular year. g) _______________ are an interesting means of studying population pattern of any country. 7. The composition of Human resource does not include a) Age Structure b) Sex- Ratio c) Working and non-working population d) Birth rate and death rate 8. State whether the statement is true or false. Also state the reason The first complete census of India was brought out in the year 1981. 9. If there are 990 persons staying in 3 sq sq. km, find the population density of the given area? 10. Give the full form of UNDP. 11. China: Most populous country in the world :: ______________________: second most populous country in the world. 12. When is the growth rate of a given area negative? 13. If the birth rate increases in a given area, how will it affect the population of a given area? 14. tatement is true of false, State whether the statement false also state the reason for it. The population is concentrated in thickly forested areas. 15. Define growth rate of population. 16. State whether the given statement is true of false, false also state the reason for it. A large number of children below 15 years and older people above 49 years come under adult population. 17. Define literacy rate. 18. When a country has large number of people in the age group of 15- 15 59 years, what does it mean? 19. Source: Census-2011 In which year the child sex ratio has been the lowest, lowest state one reason for low sex ratio in India. 20. Sex ratio 1500 968 876 777 821 921 898 919 875 900 922 1,0581,001 1000 500 0 Source: Primary Census Abstract : Census of India 2001 From the above graph name ame the state with the highest and the lowest sex ratio. 21. State one reason why human beings are considered and integral part of eco system. 22. State the full form of HRD 23. Rewrite the following statement correctly. In the Antarctic and Arctic regions, the density of population is more than 10 persons per sq. km. 24. India is the ____________ largest country in the world in terms of geographical size. 25. CONTINENTS POPULATION Africa 5% 1% 6% 17% 10% Asia 60% Source: United Nations World Population Prospects What is the total percentage population of Asia and North America? 26. Source: https://www.census2011.co.in/census/state/delhi.html In the above bar graph of population of Delhi the number of males is more than the no of female in 2001 and 2011 census which dimension of population does is signifies? 27. Physical factors affecting the distribution of population : Relief :: ____________________ ____________________: Minerals 28. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. In Migration i. People in the age group 15 15-59 years 2. Literacy rate ii. Number of females per 1000 males 3. Sex ratio iii. When people come from another area. 4. Productive population iv. % of people who can read and write in a certain language.  a) 1- iii 2- iv, 3- ii, 4-i b) 1- ii 2- iii, 3- iv, 4-i c) 1- iv 2- i, 3- ii, 4-iii d) 1- iv 2- iii, 3-i, 4-ii 29. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Age structure i. Number of deaths per 1000 people in a particular year. 2. Dependent population ii. Children below 15 years of age and adults above 59 years of age. 3. Birth Rate iii. It refers to the number of people belonging to different age groups. 4. Death Rate iv. Number of births per 100 people in a particular year. a) 1- ii 2- iv, 3- iii, 4-i b) 1- iii 2- ii, 3- iv, 4-i c) 1- iv 2- i, 3- ii, 4-iii d) 1- iv 2- ii, 3-iv, 4-i 30. When a country has large number of people in the age group of 15- 59 years, what does it signify? 31. State whether the given statement is true or false. People prefer to live in regions where rainfall is high. SECTION B 32. Give an account of age wise distribution of population. 33. Define the term ‘growth rate’ of population. Explain any two conditions which may lead to an increase in the population growth. 34. “The well being of human beings is of utmost importance.” Justify the statement by giving three relevant arguments. 35. “People of a country are considered as its resource.” Justify 36. State three factors that has disturbed the balance of sex ratio in India. 37. “Plain areas of the world are most favourable places for human habitation.” Justify the statement with suitable examples. 38. Elucidate that population is an asset for the country rather than a liability. 39. Categorise the following factors affecting the distribution of population into physical and economic factors: Developed means of transport, relief, vegetation, minerals, climate, Industries. Explain any one physical and any one economic factor affecting the distribution of population.  SECTION C 40. Define age structure. How does it reflect the working and non-working population? 41. Highlight the reasons for declining sex ratio in India. 42. a) Name two countries which have the largest share of world’s total population. Also arrange Europe, Asia, North America, Africa and Oceania in decreasing order of their population. b) State the reason why HRD is formed. 43. Explain the following factors affecting the distribution of population: a) Relief b) Climate c) Developed means of transport d) Minerals e) Soil and water 44. Define distribution of population. “The distribution of population in the world is highly uneven.” Justify the statement with four example two from densely and two from sparsely populated regions. 45. Sex Ratio ( females/1000 males) 980 960 940 920 900 Sex Ratio ( females/1000 males) 1901 1911 1921 1931 1941 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001 2011 CENSUS YEAR Answer the following questions based on the graph given above a) Define sex ratio b) When the sex ratio is considered to be favourable. c) In the above column graph in which year the sex ratio have been most favourable. d) Name the states which have the highest and the lowest sex ratio in India. e) If the number of female is 1005 per thousand males it expresses what kind of sex ratio? 46. If you are a television reporter who is covering a story on the decline of sex ratio in India what reasons would you like to highlight? 47. “Literacy rate of any country is an important indicator as it affects the socio economic development of a nation.” Explain 48. Classify Indian population on the basis of density. Explain any two with examples.  CHAPTER 8 THE MODERN WORLD SECTION A 1. The Indian National Congress was established in the year a) 1857 b)1885 c)1858 d)1890 2. In which year was the power transferred from the East India company to the British Crown? 1857 b) 1885 c)1858 d)1819 3. Which one of the following is not a British Document? a) Morley-Minto reforms b) Simon commission c) Anandmath d) Arms bill 4. ‘Freedom is our birth right’ was a slogan given by a) BalGangadharTilak b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Subhash Chandra Bose d) Jawharlal Nehru 5. Who amongst the following is the author of Anandmath? a) B C Chattopadhyay b) Subhash Chandra Bose c) Mahatma Gandhi d) LalalajpatRai 6. Fill in the blanks: a) ‘Freedom is our birthright’ was the slogan given by ________. b) The book Anandmath was written by __________. c) About 6000 original photographs of Gandhi ji are housed at ________. d) The ____________ reforms (1909), Report of the__________ commission (1929) are some of important source of information. e) The architectural style of __________, artifacts and people of that period tell us the tales of the past. f) The Indian Congress was established in the year ______. 7. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Report of Simon Commission i. 1858 2. Transfer of power from East India ii. 1929 Company to the British Crown 3. Morley Minto Reforms iii. 1885 4. Establishment of India National Congress iv. 1909  a) 1- iii 2- iv, 3- ii, 4-i b) 1- ii 2- i, 3- iv, 4-iii c) 1- iv 2- i, 3- ii, 4-iii d) 1- iv 2- iii, 3-i, 4-ii 8. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay:: _________________ :: ____________________ : Unhappy Indian 9. Rewrite the statements correctly. “Freedom is my birth right : was the call given by NetajiSubhashChanrda Bose. 10. Identify the building in the following image 11. Identify the building in the following image 12. Find the odd one out: a) London Times b) Amrit Bazar Patrika c) Dacca Prakash d) Kesari 13. Stae whether the statement tatement is true or false also state the reason to support the statement. Gateway of India is in Delhi. 14. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Gateway of India i. Kolkata 2. Victoria Memorial ii. Kesari 3. RashtrapatiBhawan iii. Mumbai 4. BalGangadharTilak iv. New Delhi  a) 1- iii 2- iv, 3- ii, 4-i b) 1- ii 2- i, 3- iv, 4-iii c) 1- iv 2- i, 3- ii, 4-iii d) 1- iv 2- iii, 3-i, 4-ii 15. State the objective behind the surveys and reports of the British. 16. Which one of the following newspaper was written in Marathi language by Bal Gangadhar Tilak? a) London Times b) Amrit Bazar Patrika c) Dacca Prakash d) Kesari 17. Name the largest museum of on Gandhi Ji at Gandhi Smriti at Rajghat. 18. Rewrite the statement correctly. The biggest museum on Gandhi Ji, Gandhi Smriti near Rajghat has a library with around 600 original books. 19. Name the author of the book “My Experiments with Truth.” 20. Rearrange the following events in the correct sequence : i. Partition of India into India and Pakistan, ii. Formation of India National Congress, iii. Death of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb iv. JallianwalaBagh Massacre a) i, iii, iv and ii b) iii, ii, iv and i c) ii, i, iv and iii d) iii, i, iv and ii 21. Name any two source of information of the modern period. 22. Which of the following facts is not correct about the biggest museum on Gandhiji? a) It has a good collection of Gandhiji’s writings b) Its library has 60000 books c) It looks after Gandhi Smriti d) The museum is located at Sabarmati Ashram. SECTION B 23. Explain with three examples how letter, speeches and writing can be a source of information about the modern period of Indian history. 24. How book can be an important source of Information of modern period of Indian history explain with examples. SECTION C 25. “The Revolt of 1857 was a major event but the colonial power suppressed it ruthlessly.” Highlight the steps taken by the Indians after the revolt of 1857 to get independence form the British under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. 26. Explain any five sources of information of the Modern period of India history.  CHAPTER 9 ESTABLISHMENT OF COMPANY RULE IN INDIA SECTION A 1. After the death of Raja of Wodeyar dynasty in 1760, who became the ruler of Mysore? a) Hyder Ali b) Tipu Sultan c) Devraja d) Nanaraja 2. Arrange the following in the sequence I. Hyder Ali gained control over Madras II. Tipu Sultan signed treaty of Srirangapattam III. Hyder Ali died IV. The Indian prince of Wodeyar dynasty ruled Mysore till 1947. a) I,II,III,IV b) IV,II,I,III c) II,I,III,IV d) IV,I,III,II 3. The following the warring parties of Battle of Plassey a) Siraj-ud-daulah and Robert Clive b) Siraj- daulah and Mir qasim c) Siraj-daulah and Mir jafar d) Siraj-daulah and Siraj ud dualah 4. The greatest annexationist was a) Hastings b) Clive c) Dalhousie d) Canning 5. The subsidiary alliance was signed between the British and the a) Madhav Rao II b) Baji Rao II c) Holkar d) Bhosale 6. Rearrange the following events in the correct sequence: e) Battle of Buxar ii) Conquest of Bengal iii) Battle of Plassey iv) The third Carnatic war a) i, ii, iv, iii b) iv, ii, iii and i c) ii, i, iv and iii d) iii, i, iv and ii 7. Define Diwani. 8. Name the British Governor of Bengal who abolished Dual government in the year 1772. 9. Right to collect Diwani lead to _______ in Bengal. 10. Match the column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Triple alliance formed against Hyder A. Madhav Rao II Ali in first Anglo Mysore War 2. Triple alliance formed against Hector B. The Nizam, The Marathas and Munro in the Battle of Buxar Hyder Ali 3. Triple alliance against the British in C. The Nizam, The Marathas and the the Second Anglo Mysore War English 4. Alliance of Raghunath Rao and D. Mir Qasim, Shah Alam II and British Shuja –ud-Daulah  a)1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A b)1-B,2-A,3-D,4-C c)1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C d)1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B 11.Define factories. 12.Which one of the following was not the main items of trade for European trading companies a) Cotton textile b) Silk c) Saltpetre d) Indigo 13. The British East India Company did not set up trading posts in a) Fort William in Bengal b) Bombay Castle c) Goa d) Surat 14.Bombay: _________:: Fort St George : _________. 15. Fill in the blanks: a) ______________, the greatest annexationist, attacked Punjab and made it a part of British India in1849. b) ___________ captured Arcot by defeating English army. c) The battle of Plassey was fought between the east India Company under_______ and the army of __________. d) The British colonial rule in Bengal Presidency and subsequent expansion of its control over India occurred because of ____________. e) The second Carnatic war occurred in ___________. f) _______became the Governor General of British in India. g) _______ was the capital of Carnatic. h) _______ landed in India in 1498 at Calicut. 16. State whether the given statement is true or false and also give reason to support your answer-Maharaja Manjit Singh was the ruler of Punjab. 17. State whether the given statement is true or false- British did not introduce administrative changes in the territories they conquered. 18. Subsidiary alliance was the British policy of not a) Allowing the adopted son succeeding the throne of adoptive parents. b) Dismissing the army of the Indian ruler. c) Keeping a British resident at the court of the Indian ruler d) Giving military assistance to the Indian ruler in exchange of payment for the army. 19. The Sikhs lost the first Anglo-Sikh War(1845-46) because the a) Army consisted of diverse people-Hindus, Muslims and Sikhs. b) Prime minister Lal Singh and Commander Tej Singh turned traitor c) The Sikh could not fight the strong British forces d) Sikh did not have modern weapons 20. Match the following: COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Third Anglo Mysore War A. Treaty of Manglore 2. First Anglo Sikh War B. Treaty OF Salbai 3. Second Anglo Mysore War C. Treaty of Lahore 4. First Anglo Maratha War D. Treaty of Srirangapatatnam a) 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A b) 1-B,2-A,3-D4-C c) 1-D,2-A,3-B,D-C d) 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B 21. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Diwani A. Bengal 2. Tiger of Mysore B. 1757 3. Battle of Plassey C. Right to collect land revenue 4. Dual government D. Tipu Sultan a) 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A b) 1-B,2-A,3-D,4-C c) 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C d) 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B Section B 22.‘Right to collect Diwani by the British began Dual government in Bengal’. Justify the statement by giving relevant arguments. 23. How was Battle of Buxar a turning point in the Indian history? 24. Explain how Hyder Ali defeated the British in their own game in the First Anglo Mysore War. 25. Explain how age of imperialism in India began with the weakening and disintegration of Mughal Empire. 26. ‘After the third Cranatic War the French ambition of establishing an empire in India ended’. Justify the statement by highlighting the results of war. 27. ‘The Third Anglo Maratha war ended the mighty Maratha power’ Support the statement with relevant arguments.  Section C 28.State the reasons for the Third Anglo Mysore War. Also highlight the results of the war. 29. Who was known as the Tiger of Mysore? State four events that brought Mysore under the control of British. 30. Explain any five reasons that turned the East India Company into an imperial power. 31.Briefly explain the circumstances that led to the First Anglo Sikh War. Mention two provisions of the treaty of Lahore. 32. ‘The Sikhs were forced to sign the treaty of Lahore.’ Justify the following statement by giving five relevant arguments.  Chapter 10 Colonialism: Rural and Tribal Societies Section A 1. The _______ system was introduced under Permanent Settlement in Bengal in1793. a) Zamindari System b) Ryotwari System c)Mahalwari System d)none 2. The system introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820 in South India was a) Permanent Settlement b)Ryotwari system c)Mahalwari System d)none 3. Which one is not a commercial crop which Britishers forced Indians to grow? a) Opium b)Indigo c)wheat d)cotton 4. The tribals who practised shifting cultivation were ________. a) Khonds b)Van Gujjars c)Gaddis d)none 5. The Khasis revolted against the English under the leadership of ________. a) Bar Manik and Tirut Singh b)Sidhu c)Birsa d)Kanhu 6. Fill in the blanks a) A process of introducing a new product in the market for earning profit is known as________. b) ____________ are certain forests where people were not allowed to live, hunt, graze animals, cut wood without the permission under the British rule. c) The Mahalwari system was introduced in Gangentic valley, North-West provinces, Central India and Punjab by ___________. d) The company forced the farmers to grow cash crops like ________, _________,__________. e) Tata Iron and Steel Company is set up by ____________. 7. State the aim of introducing the Land Revenue Settlements in India. 8. Name three commercial crops and two places where they were cultivated. 9. If I visit Manipur in summer holidays which tribal group I am likely to meet? 10.Indigo: neel :: gur:_______. 11.Rewrite the statement correctly- The British smuggled and sold indigo to China. 12.State whether the statement is true or false—Ryots were the cultivators of land and paid revenue to company. 13.State whether the given statement is true or false and also state the reason to support the statement- The ryots were jointly responsible for the payment of revenue under the Mahalwari system. 14. __________: Lord Cornwallis::_______: Holt Mackenzie. 15.Complete the following statements a) The santhals of Hazaribagh led their lives by ___________ b) __________was the biggest source of land revenue for the East India Company. c) The English shattered the _______________ economy of the tribals. 16. Match column I with column II COLUMN I COLUMN II 1. Van Gujjars A. Chottanagpur 2. Gaddis B. Assam 3. Mundas C. Jammu and Kashmir 4. Khasis D. Himachal Pradesh a) 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B b)1-B,2-A,3-D,4-C c)1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C d)1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B 17. Match the following COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III A. Khasis a) Birsa i. Assam B. Santhals b) Bar Manik & Tirut Singh ii. Jharkhand & West Bengal C. Mundas c) Sidhu& Kanhu Murmu iii. Chottanagpur Section B 18. Explain how the Mahalwari system proved to be curse for the peasants. 19.Who introduced the Zimandari system in Bengal? What were the main features of this system? 20.Highlight the condition of Indian farmers under the British rule which led to revolt of 1857. 21.State any three injustices handed to the Indian farmers by the British that led to revolt, rebellions even before the first war of Independence. 22. Name the following in questions related to Khasis- a) The state to which they belonged b) Leaders c) Reasons for their revolts. 23.‘The British industries flourished at the cost of Indian industries’. Justify the above statement highlighting the problems faced by cotton and silk industries. 24.Differentiate between Zamindari system and Mahalwari system. 25.Name two states where the following crops were cultivated a) Opium b) Cotton c) Sugarcane Section C 26.Explain with the help of examples that policies of British led to misery of the Tribals in India. 27.“The unjust policies of the British resulted in rebellions by the tribals in different parts of India.”Support the statement with five suitable examples. 28.“Birsa Munda was real hero in the true sense and fought for his tribal group till the end. Highlight his contribution towards the Mundas. Section D 29.On the given political map of India identify and label the following: a) The state to which the Mundas belong b) Khonds belong to Odisha c) Name the state to which tribal group led by Bar Manik and Tirut Singh belonged?  Chapter11 The First War of Independence--- 1857 SECTION A 1. The Revolt of 1857 was also called “The First War of Independence” because- a) It was started by Sepoys. b) It was the first time different sections of Indian society united against foreign rule. c) It was the first time Indians were fighting against the British rule. d) None of the above 2. Which Mughal emperor was proclaimed as “Shahenshah-e- Hindustan”? a) Bahadur Shah Zafar b) Jahangir c) Aurangzeb d) Akbar 3. The Revolt of 1857 was the true reflection of Hindu- Muslim unity. 4. Match the following: i. COLUMN A ii. COLUMN B a. Rani Lakshmi Bai I. Kanpur b. Tantya Tope II. Lucknow c. Begum Hazrat Mahal III. Jhansi d. Nana Saheb IV. Gwalior i. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I ii. a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV iii. a-III, b-I, c-IV, d-II iv. a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I 5. The social reforms by the British were considered as interference in the custom and traditions of the Hindus. True/ False. 6. Match the following: iii. COLUMN A iv. COLUMN B a. Subsidiary alliance I. Lord Dalhousie b. Mangal Pandey II. 1801 c. Doctrine of Lapse III. Viceroy d. Governor- General IV. Barrackpore i. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I ii. a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III iii. a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III iv. a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II 7. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation in the year 1858 was: i. To disclaim the any intention to annex Indian states. ii. To place Indian Administration under British crown. iii. To regulate East India Company's trade with India.  a) Only option i is correct b) Only option ii is correct c) Option i and ii are correct d) All are correct 8. What were the socio- religious causes during this period that caused unrest among people? I. Activities of Christian missionaries II. Attempts to bring social reforms III. Taxation of mosques and temple lands IV. Racial superiority complex of Britishers. Choose the correct option from the following- a) I, II and III b) All of the above c) Only III d) III and IV 9. The aim of the British was to exploit the resources of the country. True/False. 10. Pick out the odd one out from the following places- a) Delhi b) Agra c) Jabalpur d) Gwalior 11. ___________ was the first soldier who refused to use the greased cartridge. a) Mangal Pandey b) Bahadur Shah Zafar c) Nana Saheb d) Tanyta Tope 12. Full ____________ freedom was guaranteed to Indians after the Revolt of 1857. 13. __________________________ assumed the title of Empress of India. 14. The Madras and Bombay Regiments did not join the revolt. True/False. 15. At Gwalior the revolt was led by Begum Hazrat Mahal. True/False. 16. The immediate cause of the revolt of 1857 was the introduction of_______________. 17. Consider the following statement (s) related to the causes of failure of 1857 revolt and choose the correct one(s)- i. Lack of unity and coordination ii. It broke out before the appointed date. a) Only i. b) Only ii. c) Both i and ii. d) Neither i and ii. 18. The regiment in Meerut revolted on __________, 1857. a) May 9 b) May 10 c) May 11 d) May 12 19. What according to you is the most important cause that leads to the failure of the revolt? a) It started out before the appointed date. b) The rising was not widespread. c) Leadership of the revolt was not strong. d) None of the above 20. Fill in the blanks: i. _________ is a judicial court for trying members of armed services accused for offences against military law. ii. The rule of the East India Company ended with ___________ Proclamation of November 1858. iii. The _______ not only remained loyal to the Britishers, but helped them to suppress the mutiny. iv. On March29,1857 at Barrackpore near Calcutta, _________ , a sepoy refused to use the greased cartridge and shot down his sergeant. v. In 1801 _______________ was compelled to sign the subsidiary alliance with British. vi. Regiments that didn’t participate in the war: _________________,______________________ vii. The real strength of the revolt were ____________________and ________________________. viii. The regiments in Meerut took over the control of ________________ on May 11 and __________________ was proclaimed the shahenshan-e- Hindustan. ix. _______________________________ made it compulsory for new recruit to serve overseas. x. Mangal Pandey belonged to _________________ regiment and shot down his Sergeant at ______________ near Calcutta. xi. Indian leaders/kings who didn’t participate in the revolt._____________,_______________ xii. ________________ and ____________________ remained loyal to the British during the war. SECTION B 21.What was the extent of spread of revolt of 1857? 22.Why the revolt of 1857 was also called the first war of independence? 23.Briefly outline the major political causes of the Revolt of 1857. 24.How did Doctrine of lapse create fear among the Indian rulers? 25.Explain the Economic causes of the Revolt. 26.Describe the immediate events that led to the Revolt by Sepoys. 27.Explain two reasons for which the Sepoys revolted. 28.State the Administrative changes that were made after Queen Victoria’s Proclamation. 29.Explain the Social Causes that led to the revolt. 30.British violated treaties with Indian kings at will. Support the statement with help of an example.  SECTION C 31.Describe the course of the revolt of 1857. 32.Explain the socio-religious causes of the revolt of 1857. 33.What preparation should have been made to make the first war of independence complete success? 34.The revolt of 1857 proved to be the first great struggle for freedom. Give 5 arguments to support this statement. 35.State the changes introduced by the British after suppressing the revolt. SECTION D 36. Locate and label the following in the political map of India: a) The place from where sepoys broke into an open revolt in April 1857. b) The epicentre of the revolt. c) Place from where Tantya Tope led the revolt. d) Nana Saheb led the revolt from this place. e) The British broke the subsidiary alliance with this kingdom and shocked all the Indian Kings. f) Mangal Pandey made this place famous. g) The ruler of this kingdom joined the revolt because of Doctrine of Lapse.  Chapter 12 Impact of British Rule In India Suggested Project activities: 1. Make a timeline of various educational reforms introduced by the British along with the Pictures of the Viceroys of that time. 2. Make flash cards of Social reformers of this age who fought against various social evils. 3. Make a crossword for the social reformer of this period. Use the answers to locate the state to which they belong on political map of India. Paste stamp size pictures in or near the states. 4. Though the practice of untouchability has been banned by the Constitution of India, but still it continues to persist in some parts of India. Explore the incidents related to this on internet, newspapers, magazines etc. Make a scrap file of the incidents. 5. Make a chart on contribution of Mahatma Gandhi in alleviating the Problem of Untouchability. 6. Trace the History of contribution of Arya Samaj in field of education before independence in form of a timeline  CHAPTER 13 COLONIASLISM AND URBAN CHANGE SECTION A 1. Fill in the blanks: a) ______ are the facilities provided by the government, by the urban and rural local body. b) In 1912, Delhi’s first _______was appointed and handed over the duties and responsibilities of Inspector General of police. c) _______ was selected for the building the new capital—New Delhi. d) The architectural design for the Viceroy’s house was prepared by ______. e) The British part of Calcutta was known as_________. f) De-urbanisation during the nineteenth century destroyed the important cities of______, _________ and _____________. g) The Delhi Durbar for Queen Victoria was in the year _______. h) Villages and towns were looked after by chowkidars and __________. i) Master plan for Delhi provides a________. j) __________was built in the memory of the soldiers who died in First World War. 2. Why were the British forced to shift their capital from Calcutta to Delhi? 3. Why was Kalka Mail from Howrah to Kalka introduced? 4. Name 2 painters who were greatly influenced by Western style of painting. 5. Who were responsible for translation of ancient text and compilation of grammar? 6. Name 2 Indian literary figures, who were influenced by the English pattern of writing? 7. Which city was known as Indraprastha during the times of epic Mahabharta? 8. Why was DDA set up? 9. What were the reason for de-urbanisation of ancient towns and cities? A. Towns specialised in certain items and as their demand decline, towns also lost their glory. B. Old training centres were replaced with new. C. End of regional powers D. Development of Calcutta and Madras. Which one of the following options are correct in light of the above statement- i. ABCD ii. AB iii. ABC iv. B, C D 10. Era of Urban planning in Delhi began with- i. Delhi Municipal Committee ii. Town Duties Committee iii. Delhi Durbar of 1877 iv. Imperial Delhi Committee 11.Which of the following was established for slum clearance and slum improvement? i. Delhi Municipal Committee ii. Town Duties Committee iii. Delhi Durbar of 1877 iv. Delhi Improvement Trust 12.What was the man achievement of Delhi Municipal Committee? i. piped water and sewerage ii. Shifting of vegetable market outside the walled city iii. Setting up of Civil Lines areas iv. Building Raisina Hills 13.Delhi Durbar 1877:_______________:: Delhi Durbar 1911: King George V 14.White town: open spaces:: ______________: congested streets 15.Delhi Police Act laid down: 1857:: ______________________: 1946 16.Enable quick movement of armed forces: _____________________:: transport raw material from Mine and fields to Ports: Commercial advantage 17.Imperial Capital : ___________________:: Summer Capital: Shimla 18. Match the following A. Town hall i. Shimla B. Fort William College ii. Chennai C. Viceroy House iii. Mumbai D. Victoria Memorial iv. Calcutta a) A- ii, B-iii, C- iv, D-i b) A-ii, B- i, C-iv, D-iii c) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii d) A-iv, B-iii, C- i. D- ii 19.Match the following A. Rashtrapati Bhavan i. Kingsway B. Parliament house ii. War memorial C. Rajpath iii. Circular pillar palace D. India gate iv. Viceroy’s House a) A- iv, B- iii, C- ii, D- i b) A- iv, B- iii, C-i, D-ii c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i d) A-iii. B-iv, C-i, D-ii 20. How was the water supplied to the old city after 1877 in Delhi?  SECTION B 21.‘De-urbanisation was a significant development during the British rule in India’. Justify the statement with suitable arguments. 22.Differentiate between white and black town. 23.What was the purpose of setting up the New Delhi Municipal Committee? 24.What were the major achievements of Delhi Municipal Committee set up in 1863? 25.Name the authority set up by government after independence in1955and what was the purpose of setting it up? 26.‘Even though Railways were introduced in India for British administration, political control and travel, it proved to be beneficial to Indians’. Justify. 27.What were the objectives of Imperial Delhi Committee, Raisina Municipal Committee and Town Duties Committee? 28. What was the need of setting up Calcutta Municipal Corporation? 29.How did structure of the Police in Delhi Changed under the British from time to time? SECTION C 30.When was the first Railways introduced In India? For what reasons did the British introduce railways in India? 31.Describe the organisation of Delhi police under the British. 32.What is de-urbanisation? How did British policies affect it? 33.Analyse the impact of British painting, literature and architecture with examples.  Chapter 14 The Nationalist Movement (1870 to 1947) Section A 1. Match the following: Column A Column B Column C Radicals Aurobindo Ghosh Believed in protests, hartals and slogans Moderates Gopal Krishna Gokhle Believed in prayer, petition and protests. 2. State the tools used by the radicals to achieve Swaraj during the Nationalist Movement of India. 3. Identify the important historical event associated with the above picture. 4. Which one of following the prominent Indian leader was ready to join hands with the enemy of the British like Japan and Germany ermany to get them out of India? a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Subhash Chandra Bose c. Jawaharlal Nehru d. Abdul Gaffar Khan 5. The Radicals were referred to as ________by the British. 6. Mahatma Gandhi began his Epic Dandi march from: a. Lahore to Dandi b. Bengal to Dandi c. Sabarmati toDandi d. Kakori to Dandi 7. Identify the reason for the formation of Swaraj Party : a. To oppose the policies of the British government. b. To enter the Legislative Councils and to destroy the British administration from inside. c. To make reforms for truly national struggle. d. For the purpose of attaining self – governance. 8. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence : a. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre b. Chauri Chaura Incident c. Civil Disobedience Movement d. Non Cooperation Movement e. Quit India Movement i. a, d, c, b , e ii. a, d, b, c, e iii. b, d, a, e, c iv. d, e, b, c, a 9. When it was decided that in the Lahore session to celebrate 26 January 1930 as the first independence day of India ,we later started to celebrate it as republic day because: a. The historic resolution of Purna Swaraj was passed on this day b. We got our independence on this day c. Our constitution was adopted and enforced on 26 January 1950 d. None of the above 10. Correct the following statement: Under the Dual government all important subjects like finance and police were under the control of the Indian ministers and the British ministers were given the charge of education and health. 11. Which of the following was not a revolutionary party? a. India house b. Gadar party c. Berlin party d. Indian National Congress 12. Allan Octavian Hume formed which of the following party? a. India house b. Gadar party c. Berlin party d. Indian National Congress 13. State the following statement is true or false: Government of India act 1935 made a provision for classification of central and provincial subjects. 14. When was the Indian National Congress formed and by whom? 15. The radical minded Indians were upset when the Non-Cooperation movement was withdrawn.They decided to loot the government cash from a train for buying weapons. Many of them were arrested and tried in the ‘Kakori Conspiracy Case’.If you were a part of the ‘moderates’ what will be your approach towards the situation? a. you will get in touch with a news channel and report the things b. you will write to a news paper to attract the attention of the authorities c. you will go on hunger strike in protest against the action of the government d. you will be a mute spectator 16. On April13 1919 the people of Punjab gathered on the auspicious day of Baisakhi at JalianwalaBagh near the golden temple in Amritsar. They were protesting peacefully against the arrest of two prominent congress leaders of Punjab-Dr. Satya Pal, and Saiffudin Kitchlew. General Dyer ordered British armed forces to open fire at the hundreds of innocent, unarmed men women and children. What would be your way of bringing the situation under control? a. You would let the gathering protest peacefully b. You would jail the protesting group of people c. Talk to the representatives of the people and listen to their perspective d. Keep the police forces on high alert so that no untoward incident takes place. 17. BalgangadharTilak : Home Rule league :: --------------:Muslim league. 18. Rewrite the sentence given below to give appropriate meaning of “boycott”. “An act of accepting goods, institutions, laws or people, as a peace.” 19. Gandhiji started the historic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on:- a) March 12, 1930 b) February 12, 1930 c) March 13, 1930 d) April 13, 1930 20. The British government had a monopoly on salt production and passed a law, banning manufacturing of salt by Indians so that the British could sell salt at high rate. On March 12, 1930, Mahatama Gandhi began his epic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi. Gandhiji protested against this salt law by doing Dandi March. If you are the follower of Gandhiji, then which way of protest would you suggest? A. Boycotting British goods and services B. Hunger Strike C. Violent Protest I. A and B II. A and C III. C and B 21. Who among these was popularly known as “Frontier Gandhi”? a) Ramprasad Bismil b) Subash Chandra Bose c) Abdul Gaffar Khan d) Chandrashekar Azad 22. Select the correct reasons due to which Quit India Movement occurred:- A. Congress was banned B. Kakori conspiracy C. Failure of Cripps Mission I. A and B II. B and C III. A and C 23. Choose the suitable reason for starting Dandi March:- a) Increase of Tariff b) Inflation of vegetable prices c) Passing of Salt Law 24. Complete the following table: - (First one is done for you) Year Events 1942 Cripps Mission 1930 Death of Lala Lajpat Rai 25. Identify the cons of Quit India Movement from the following options:- A. Gandhiji was arrested B. Developed the feeling of unity and nationalism C. Police and army waged brutal terror on people. I. A and B II. B and C III. A and C 26. Identify the incorrect statement about Subash Chandra Bose: a) He gave the slogan, “you give your blood, I’ll give you freedom.” b) He was not the part of Indian National army. c) He was not ready to join hands with Britishers. 27. State whether these statements are true or false: a) Aurobindo Ghosh was popularly known as Frontier Gandhi. b) Lala Hardial formed the Gadar Party. 28. Fill in the blanks: a) _________ was organized by Netaji Subash Chandra Bose. b) Gandhiji’s gave the mantra of __________ to inspired thousands of people. c) _________ was the last viceroy of India. d) ______________ proposed the formation of an Interim Government and a Constituent Assembly. e) Indian National Army was originally organised by __________________. f) A ________ was sent to India in March, 1946 by the British. g) ‘You give me blood and I will give you freedom ‘was the slogan of ____________. h) The ___________movement was launched by Gandhi ji on 8 August 1942. i) At the Lahore session of congress it was decided to celebrate _____________ as the independence day of India. j) The ________ empowered the government to arrest anyone without warrant and imprison without trial. k) The moderates were led by ______ and __________. l) Rule of East India Company ended in ___________. m) In 1876 S. N. Banerjee established ____________. n) In 1916 an Irish lady, ______ established the Home Rule league in Madras. SECTION B 29. Who were radicals? What was the reason for their emergence? 30. How did British (Lord Curzon) attacked Hindu-Muslim unity and in turn weaken the National movement? 31. List the steps taken by radicals among congress after partition of Bengal to encourage the people to join the Swadeshi Movement? 32. Explain any three measures that British took to weaken Hindu- Muslin Unity in the 20th Century. 33. Who established the Home Rule League and what was its purpose? 34. His movement was in the support of peasant which began in Champaran district of Bihar. a) Who is he? b) What was the purpose of this movement? 35. Explain the Dual Government – Dyarchy introduced by British? 36. ‘The British rule was established and survived in India with the cooperation of Indians. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule would collapse and Swaraj would come.’ These words of Gandhi ji led to Non-Cooperation movement. Enlist the steps taken for mass participation in this movement. 37. When and why did Simon commission come to India? Give reasons for its boycott by both Congress and the Muslim league? 38. Briefly describe the incident because of which Gandhi ji called off the Non-cooperation movement. 39. Who formed the Swaraj party and what was the motive behind the formation of party? 40. Why did General Dyer order the British armed forces to open fire at the people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh? 41. ‘The withdrawal of non-cooperation movement led to many revolutionary movements for India’s Independence’. Justify with the help of example. 42. ‘Arrival of Mahatma Gandhi brought significant changes in the Indian Political scene’. Elaborate. 43. List the main features of Montague- Chelmsford Reform. Why were Indians disappointed by it? 44. Explain the significance of Lahore Session of 1929. 45. What was Rowlatt Act? Why was it introduced? How was it opposed? 46. What was Cripps mission? Did he succeed in his mission? Explain. 47. When and why did the Congress split? SECTION C 48. Describe the mass movement with which Abdul Gaffar Khan was associated? 49. Describe main events of Civil disobedience movement. What was the British reaction towards the movement? 50. State the main features of Government of India act of 1935. 51. Analyse the Role of Revolutionaries in the National movement. 52. Write a short note on Quit India Movement. 53. List the events after 1935 which led to the formation of Pakistan. 54. How Non-Cooperation movement began in India? Describe the event that led to its recalling. 55. Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh Massacre are closely related. Support the statement with suitable arguments. 56. State the important political developments from 1905 to 1916. SECTION D 57. Locate and Label the following in the political map of India. a) Place associated with formation of Indian National Congress. b) Congress and Muslim League reunited at this Place. c) Place associated with Jalianwala Bagh Massacre. d) Place where Salt was broken by Gandhiji.  CHAPTER 15 INDIA MARCHES AHEAD SECTION A 1. Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in 1975. a. Lal Bahadur Shastri b. Indira Gandhi c. VP Singh. d. JawaharLal Nehru 2. Which colonial states were liberated from foreign rule after independence? a. Goa b. Pondicherry c. Junagarh d. J&K Choose the correct option i. a and d ii. a and b iii. c and d iv. band c 3. Which of the following statement on the making of constituent assembly is correct? a. Constituent assembly was formed with indirectly elected members of the provisional legislature assemblies. b. Constituent assembly was formed with directly elected by the people of India. c. Constituent assembly was formed by freedom fighters. 4. After independence agricultural production has shot up both qualitatively and quantitatively due to- a. White revolution b. Green revolution c. Pink revolution d. Orange revolution 5. Who designed Indian Independence Act 1947? a. Clement Attlee b. Lord Mount Batten c. Lord Cornwallis d. Lord Dalhousie 6. Consider the statement A to D. Rearrange them in correct order. A. Adoption of Indian constitution B. Set up of planning commission C. Partition of India and Pakistan D. Liberation of Pondicherry and Goa from foreign rule i. C, A, B, D ii. A,B, C, D iii. D, A, B, C iv. A, C, B, D. 7. Rewrite the sentence given below to give appropriate meaning of Democracy.  ‘Where the people’s representative form the government’. 8. Why did India opt for Democracy- a. It was necessary to have a system where all the sections of society would be represented. b. In democracy the interest of the backward section of society were not protected c. Because we were free from foreign rule. 9. Arrange the challenges faced by newly formed independent India in the correct order: A. Growth rate of population B. Millions of refugees C. Corruption D. Terrorism a. C, A, B, D b. B, A, C, D c. D, A, B, C d. A, C, B, D 10. Due to which revolution the development took place in Dairy production? a. Orange revolution b. White revolution c. Yellow revolution d. Black revolution 11. Which statement was not true about The Indian Independence Act 1947? a. An independent dominion of India was made including the United Provinces under the British like Madras Presidency, Carnatic, East Punjab, West Bengal, Assam etc b. West Punjab, North-West Frontier Province, Sindh and East Bengal would not go to Pakistan c. The princely States were given the freedom to decide which dominion to join. d. The dominion of India and Pakistan were granted complete freedom. 12. Who was the first and last Indian Governor General of India? a. Chakarvati Rajagopalachari b. Rajendra Prasad c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Dr Ambedkar 13. When was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held? a. 1946 b. 14 August 1947 c. November1949 d. None of the above 14. The green revolution was carried out to gain a. Self-sufficiency in milk and its products b. Self-sufficiency of food grains c. Self-sufficiency of oil seeds d. None of the above 15. Which one of them is not a National Party? a. Indian National Congress b. BhartiyaJanta Party c. Communist Party of India d. National Conference 16. Fill in the blanks:  a. The dominion of India and Pakistan were granted complete freedom and they became members of _______. b. _________ was the last Viceroy of India. c. __________ was liberated from French in 1953-54. d. The constitution of India was passed on November26_______and adopted on_____1950. e. __________, __________ are regional parties. f. ‘The day is not far when enlightened and ignited minds will transform India into a competitive beautiful nation.’ Are words of ________. g. ________ was the first deputy Prime Minister of India. h. _______ was the first and last Indian Governor General of India. i. In 1961 _____ was liberated from Portugese. j. In 1975_______became part of free India. k. ______ and ______ joined India after military action. 17. Who designed the Indian Independence Act 1947 and on what plan was it based on? 18. Name the first and the last Indian to become the Governor –General of India. 19. Name and two colonial states which became a part of India much later than 1947? 20. When the Constituent Assembly responsible for drafting the constitution was formed? 21. Who were elected as the first President and the first Prime Minister of India? 22. Mention the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering the election process of India’ 23. Who was the chief architect of Indian foreign policy? SECTION B 24. The year 1967 proved to be turning point in Indian politics. Give reason. 25. How has the agriculture progressed in India after independence? 26. What are the different challenges of society India had to face which also acted as stumbling block to India’s progress after independence? 27. Who was the Chief Architect of Indian Foreign Policy and what does it reflect? 28. Discuss the major challenges Indian democracy had to face at the time of independence. 29. When did Niti Aayog replace the Planning Commission? Who established it and with what purpose? 30. In recent times, the multiparty system has become the axis of Indian democracy, Justify. 31. ‘In spite of having numerous internal and external problems, India has survived as a Nation with single unified identity’. Explain the statement by giving relevant examples. 32. Why did India opt for democracy after independence? 33. Distinguish between National and Regional party.  SECTION C 34. Describe India’s growth and development journey with suitable examples. 35. Analyse the challenges which Indian democracy faces. 36. “Many People had predicted that India, because of its diversities in culture, religion, caste and language, would not be able to work as united democratic country”. Do you agree with the statement? Support your answer with five suitable arguments. 37. Describe the journey of Indian democracy from dominance of Congress in the government to era of coalition government. 38. The Indian democracy has achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress but at the same time has faced herculean tasks from Independence to present. Support the statement with five suitable arguments.  CHAPTER 16 OUR CONSTITUTION SECTION A 1. Who was the President of the constituent assembly? a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) Sardar Patel 2. Identify the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. a) B. R. Ambedkar b) Mahatma Gandhi c) Maulana Azad 3. From which country have we borrowed the feature of “written constitution”? a) UK b) USA c) Ireland 4. Which of the following countries is not a democratic country? a) Sri Lanka b) Nepal c) China 5. Identify the country which does not have a federal system of Government? a) India b) USA c) China 6. Point out the country which is a secular country. a) Pakistan b) India 7. India opted for a federal form of Government because of a) Vast territory b) Administrative convenience c) Linguistic and regional diversity 8. Create a motto of your state. 9. Fill in the blanks: a) There were _____ female members also in the constituent assembly. b) The _________ was included in the beginning of the Constitution. c) The Constitution of India is the lengthiest and most detailed. It is divided into_____ parts, has_____ Articles and 12 Schedules. d) The Constituent Assembly was presided over by the___________. e) India is a _________ state because the country is free from all external controls. f) In India we have ________ citizenship irrespective of the part we live in. g) In a parliamentary democracy there is close relationship between the _______ and the _______. h) A constitution is called rigid or ________on the basis of process of amendment. i) __________________ means that every citizen, who is 18 years and above has the right to vote. j) The constitution of a _________ is written and rigid and it divides powers between the centre and states. k) India has an _________ judiciary free from the influence of the executive and the legislature. l) A _____constitution is one which cannot be amended easily. 10. Which of the following statements are true about a Flexible constitution: A. Can be amended easily B. Is progressive in nature C. It is stable and doesn’t allow hasty changes D. Helpful in development of nation a) All of the above b) A, B, C only c) A and B only d) A, B and D only 11. Which one of the following is a feature of a Democratic state? a) Administration of the country is run by elected representative. b) Head of the State is The President c) Socialism is a national goal d) No other country can interfere in our internal affairs. 12. President of Constituent Assembly: Dr. Rajendra Prasad::______: Chairman of drafting committee. 13. Correct and rewrite the statement : Best features of many existing constitution of the world were copied to make our constitution. 14. State whether True or False: a. The constitution has abolished the practice of untouchability b. All religions are equally considered in India c. Indian constitution has adopted unitary form of government d. High courts have the right to supervise District courts. e. USA has a separate Federal and State courts. f. India has independent Judiciary as its free from the influence of the Executive and Legislature. 15. England is not a republic country, why? SECTION B 16. Define the following: a. Constitution b. Universal Adult Franchise c. Secular 17. Define and discuss the word ‘Federalism’. 18. Explain the Parliamentary form of Government. 19. Why does a country or a community require rules and laws? 20. What does rule of law mean? 21. What are the demands of rule of law? 22. Explain the meaning of the constitution? 23. India is a vast country with great diversity but still we needed a constitution for governance, why? 24. How is Indian constitution different from that of France, United States and Britain? 25. Why is the Preamble known as the Soul of the Indian Constitution? 26. At times it appears that India is not really a federation but a unitary state, justify. 27. India has a single integrated judicial system, explain. 28. Distinguish between Rigid and Flexible constitution. 29. Whenever the need was felt, the India Constitution was suitably amended according to the relevant demands to achieve national goals. Explain with three examples. SECTION C 30. Explain any five key features of Indian Constitution. 31. India has Single integrated independent judicial system. Justify  Chapter 17 Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy Section A 1. Fill in the blanks: a) _________ are essential element of every democratic country. b) The Habeas Corpus,________,___________, ____________and Certiorari are writ that can be filed for restoration of the Fundamental Rights. c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is one of the ______. d) At present there are _____ Fundamental Duties. e) The Directive Principles have been grouped into_____ categories. f) Right to Education has become a____________. g) Indian secularism is related to constitutional values of_________,________,__________ and___________. h) To secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women is one of ________ principles of Directive Principles. i) The Fundamental Duties were added to the constitution in the year_______. 2. Correct the given statement: As per right to education the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group 5-15 years. 3. State true or false: Educational institutions can impart religious instructions to the students. 4. The Habeas Corpus, Manadmus, prohibition Quowarranto are: (i) Writ (ii) Fundamental Rights (iii) Fundamental Duties (iv) Directive Principles 5. Match the following Column A Column B Freedom of Speech Right to Equality Equality of Opportunity Right to Freedom. 6. Identify the given picture and which Fundamental Right protect this violation. 7. Read the extract and answer the question given below ‘After a long period of slavery and exploitation at the hands of the Britishers people aspired for life where the mind is without fear and the head is held high where education is free and for all where every citizen have their freedom of religion and faith where the sole aim of government is welfare of the people specially the downtrodden.’ List any two aspirations of people when the Indian Constitution was being framed. 8. ‘Certain limitations are necessary for the meaningful enjoyment of the Fundamental Rights’, justify the statement by citing one example where restriction is imposed. 9. Give the definition of the term ‘Fundamental Rights’. 10. State one reason for the inculcation of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. Section B 11. Identify the fundamental rights violated in the following situation. a) A girl is not allowed to step out of her village for higher education in the city whereas her brother is going aboard to pursue further studies. b) If a politician in one state decides to not allow labour from other state to work in his state. c) If group of people are not giving permission to open a Telugu medium school in Kerala. 12. ‘Even though the Directive Principles of State Policy are not justifiable it is necessary’, justify the statement by explaining its significance. 13. Explain the two aspects of Indian secularism according to the constitution. 14. As a responsible student, list any three fundamental duties that one can follow even in the school premises. 15. ‘Many a times, the government does not strictly follow the policy of non-interference with religious matters and practice.’ Justify the statement with example. 16. “The intervention of the state in the religious and social practices of a particular religion may be aimed at eradicating certain