Science Teas PDF

Respiratory system -nose, mouth, pharynx (throat), larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi (large airways), and lungs -Pulmonary ventilation: Air comes in through our noses and mouth and then passes through the pharynx, larynx, and trachea before entering the lungs, allowing air to flow to t...

Respiratory system -nose, mouth, pharynx (throat), larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi (large airways), and lungs -Pulmonary ventilation: Air comes in through our noses and mouth and then passes through the pharynx, larynx, and trachea before entering the lungs, allowing air to flow to the lungs for gas exchange. -trachea: AKA windpipe, connects the pharynx and larynx to our lungs. -external respiration: air goes into the body + supplies the lungs with oxygen. As that oxygen comes in, the lungs expel carbon dioxide. Refers to the exchange of gases between the air in the lungs and the blood. Oxygen from the air diffuses into the blood in the lungs, while carbon dioxide in the blood is expelled from the lungs. -Internal respiration exchanges gases between the bloodstream and tissues. The bloodstream carries oxygen to cells and expels carbon dioxide. -Hypercapnia: body’s internal regulation doesn’t work correctly, condition characterized by an excessive amount of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the bloodstream, occurs when the body cannot adequately expel CO₂ through the respiratory system -upper respiratory tract contains five main structures: 1. Nose 2. Nasal cavity 3. Mouth 4. Pharynx 5. Larynx -internal nose as the nasal cavity. It’s lined with hairs and a mucous membrane that acts as a human air filter. -nasal cavity warms, moisturizes, and filters air that enters the body before it reaches the lungs. - Sinuses produce mucus to moisturize the inside nose and protect us from dirt, dust + more -maxillary sinus drains into the nose through a small hole called the ostium. When the ostia become clogged, that can result in sinusitis, or a sinus infection -larynx/voice box -allows air to pass through the respiratory tract, also protects the trachea by ensuring food and drink don’t block the airway -The lower respiratory tract has four main components: 1. Trachea 2. Lungs 3. Bronchi 4. Diaphragm -trachea is main airway to the lungs, commonly referred to as the windpipe -trachea connects the larynx to the left and right bronchi in the lungs -esophageal opening provides a passageway for the esophagus and vagus nerve -aortic opening allows the aorta and thoracic duct to pass through, The aorta transports blood from the heart and is the body’s main artery - conducting zone consists of the nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles -respiratory zone is only involved in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange and consists of the bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli -alveoli are very small air sacs in the site of the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide -Ventilation is the process by which air moves in and out of the body -Inhale, and the diaphragm moves downward. Exhale, and the diaphragm moves up. When you inhale, the ribs push out and air fills the lungs. Exhale, and the ribs relax as air comes out of the lungs. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the upper respiratory tract? A) Nose​ B) Pharynx​ C) Bronchi X​ D) Larynx What is the primary function of the alveoli in the respiratory system? A) Filtering air before it reaches the lungs​ B) Conducting air from the trachea to the lungs​ C) Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide with the bloodX​ D) Producing mucus to trap dust and allergens What condition occurs when there is an excessive amount of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream due to the body's inability to expel it properly? A) Hyperventilation​ B) Hypoxia​ C) HypercapniaX​ D) Bronchitis During inhalation, what movement does the diaphragm make? A) Moves upward​ B) Moves downwardX​ C) Expands outward​ D) Remains still 5. Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for preventing food and drink from blocking the airway? A) Trachea​ B) Pharynx​ C) Bronchi​ D) LarynxX Circulatory system -cardiovascular system, also known as the circulatory system, is made up of the heart, blood vessels, and blood that circulates throughout the body -heart beats about 100,000 times a day and sends blood throughout some 60,000 miles of blood vessels -heart is composed of three layers: the epicardium, the myocardium, and the endocardium -epicardium forms the outermost layer of the heart wall and protects the heart’s inner layers. It contains the coronary blood vessels which supply blood to the heart. -myocardium layer is like a pump, contracting to pump blood out of the heart and then relaxing to let the heart fill with blood again. -endocardium, the third layer of the heart, is a thin inner layer that lines the heart’s chambers -major veins that bring blood to the heart are the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava. The superior vena cava brings blood to the heart from the upper body while the inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower body -right and left pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood from the lungs into the heart, pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs, where the blood gets oxygenated -Moving further from the heart and closer to the extremities, the blood vessels get smaller and the veins become venules -aorta branches off into smaller arteries and is responsible for distributing blood throughout the body once it’s been oxygenated, so this is the biggest, strongest artery in the body. -Capillary beds are a network of capillaries located between arterioles and venules where nutrients and wastes are exchanged -pulmonary circulation, where blood moves between the heart and the lungs,transports deoxygenated blood to the lungs to absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide -systemic circulation, which is the path blood takes between the heart and all organs and tissues in the rest of the body,oxygenated blood then flows back to the heart, where it gets pumped out to the systemic circulation (the rest of the body) - main components of the cardiac conduction system are the SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers -SA node is referred to as the ‘natural pacemaker.’ -Whole blood contains about 55% plasma and 45% blood cells. -The average man has about 12 pints of blood and the average-size woman has about 9 pints. -pathway of blood as it travels through the heart: oxygen-poor blood in the superior vena cava, this blood will flow into the right atrium where it is then forced through the right AV valve into the right ventricle. Blood passes through the pulmonary semilunar valve and is forced up into the pulmonary arteries so that it can be oxygenated in the lungs. Once the blood is oxygenated, it reenters the heart through the right and left pulmonary veins and travels into the left atrium. From here, the blood is forced through the left AV valve and into the left ventricle. Finally, the blood travels through the aortic valve and into the aorta where it can be distributed to organs and tissues throughout the body that need oxygen most -The liquid component of blood is called plasma, which transports blood cells, nutrients, waste products, antibodies, clotting proteins, and hormones throughout the body. -Red blood cells contain the protein hemoglobin that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body and then returns carbon dioxide from the body to the lungs to be exhaled Which layer of the heart is responsible for contracting and pumping blood out of the heart? A) Epicardium​ B) MyocardiumX​ C) Endocardium​ D) Pericardium Which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart? A) Superior vena cava​ B) Inferior vena cava​ C) Pulmonary arteries​ D) Pulmonary veinsX What is the primary function of capillary beds in the circulatory system? A) To transport oxygen-poor blood to the lungs​ B) To pump blood from the heart to other organs​ C) To exchange nutrients and wastes between blood and tissuesX​ D) To return oxygenated blood to the heart Which structure is known as the ‘natural pacemaker’ of the heart? A) AV node​ B) SA nodeX​ C) Bundle of His​ D) Purkinje fibers What component of blood contains hemoglobin and is responsible for carrying oxygen? A) Plasma​ B) White blood cells​ C) Platelets​ D) Red blood cellsX Coagulation Profile -coagulation profile can include a number of blood tests that tell clinicians information about the clotting ability of blood -typical tests done are called PT, aPTT, INR, Fibrinogen, and Platelets. -Coagulation tests measure your body’s ability to form a clot -PT stands for prothrombin time. Prothrombin is a protein that our liver produces to aid in clotting. Our blood normally takes 25-30 seconds to clot, Normal prothrombin time range is 10-14 seconds. -Prothrombin also goes along with another blood test called an INR which stands for International Normalized Ratio, which measures the amount of time it takes to form a clot -Thrombin time (TT), also known as the thrombin clotting time (TCT), is a blood test that measures the time it takes to form a clot in the plasma of a blood sample containing anticoagulant –“blood thinner” after an excess of thrombin has been added. Normal thrombin time range is 12-14 seconds. -partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin test (aPTT) measures the time it takes to form a blood clot, Normal range for partial thromboplastin time is 30-45 seconds. -Fibrinogen is another protein substance made by the liver, normal range is 200 to 400 mg/dL -Proteins in your blood called coagulation factors work together to form a blood clot. Which blood test specifically measures the time it takes for plasma to clot after the addition of thrombin in the presence of an anticoagulant? A) PT (Prothrombin Time)​ B) INR (International Normalized Ratio)​ C) TT (Thrombin Time)X​ D) aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) Which of the following coagulation tests directly measures the functionality of the protein prothrombin produced by the liver? A) Fibrinogen test​ B) PT (Prothrombin Time)X​ C) aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)​ D) Thrombin Time A patient's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test result is 50 seconds. Which of the following is true regarding this result? A) It falls within the normal range for PTT.​ B) It suggests a slower than normal clotting time.X​ C) It indicates a normal level of fibrinogen.​ D) It implies a deficiency in prothrombin production. Which test is often paired with Prothrombin Time (PT) to give a more standardized measurement of clotting, especially in patients on anticoagulant therapy? A) Fibrinogen test​ B) TT (Thrombin Time)​ C) INR (International Normalized Ratio)X​ D) aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) What is the normal range for fibrinogen levels in the blood, and what is its primary role in coagulation? A) 10-14 mg/dL; to activate platelets​ B) 30-45 mg/dL; to break down fibrin clots​ C) 25-30 mg/dL; to speed up thrombin formation​ D) 200-400 mg/dL; to help form fibrin clotsX Gastrointestinal System -three solid organs: the liver, the gallbladder, and the pancreas. -hollow organs: The mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestines, and anus,hollow organs push food through our bodies via a process called peristalsis -epiglottis, a small flap, covers the windpipe so food doesn’t get stuck there - food reaches the end of the esophagus, it passes through the lower esophageal sphincter and then into the stomach. -antrum, the lower portion of the stomach where food and liquid mix with digestive juices; and the pylorus, which lets food pass from the stomach into the small intestine -small intestine has three sections, food passes from the stomach, it enters the duodenum through the pylorus,middle section of the small intestine, the jejunum, absorbs sugar and amino and fatty acids before it moves on to the final part of the small intestine,ileum, absorbs nutrients that were not digested by the jejunum. Those nutrients include carbohydrates, minerals, and fats. -large intestine has four parts: the ascending colon, the transverse colon, the descending colon, and the sigmoid colon -ascending colon is the beginning of the large intestine and has two important parts: the cecum and the colic valve. -colic valve is at the end of the ascending colon and separates the cecum from the small intestine + prevents food and other materials from flowing back into the small intestine -process of fermentation takes place in the transverse colon -fermentation further breaks down the food by removing water and nutrients, once the fermentation process finishes, the remaining waste forms. -medial colic artery and the inferior mesenteric artery, provide a constant supply of oxygenated blood to the transverse colon which keeps the intestine healthy and prevents illnesses like intestinal ischemia -descending colon stores food before it’s emptied into the rectum -muscular walls of the sigmoid colon contract to push feces into rectum. -three enzymes that help break down carbohydrates. ​ salivary amylase enzyme in the salivary gland helps break down starches and sugars. The process takes place in your mouth. ​ Pancreatic amylase in the pancreas completes carb digestion and produces glucose. ​ maltase enzyme in the small intestine breaks down disaccharides into single sugars. -three enzymes that help break down proteins. ​ Pepsin, which is produced in the gastric gland, helps digest protein in food. ​ trypsin, produced in the pancreas, helps digest protein in food. ​ Peptidases, produced in the small intestines, breaks down proteins + recycles amino acids. -Nuclease and nucleosidase and two enzymes associated with nucleic acids + produced in the pancreas -Lipids are broken down by lipase and bile salt. -Lipase is found in the pancreas, while the liver makes bile salts and the gallbladder stores it -Chief cells, located in the stomach, convert pepsinogen to pepsin, which helps digest protein. -Goblet cells, found in the respiratory and intestinal tracts, secrets mucus. - Parietal cells are crucial to the production of hydrochloric acid (HC1), which helps with digestion. -Peyer’s patches, the lymphatic tissues found in the ileum of the small intestine, protect the gastrointestinal tract from pathogens Which enzyme is responsible for completing carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine by breaking down disaccharides into monosaccharides? A) Salivary amylase​ B) Pancreatic amylase​ C) MaltaseX​ D) Trypsin Which of the following describes the correct sequence of structures food passes through from the stomach to the end of the small intestine? A) Pylorus → Ileum → Jejunum​ B) Pylorus → Duodenum → Jejunum → IleumX​ C) Antrum → Pylorus → Jejunum​ D) Antrum → Duodenum → Ileum Which part of the gastrointestinal system plays a major role in removing water and nutrients through fermentation and is supplied by the medial colic artery? A) Ascending colon​ B) Sigmoid colon​ C) Transverse colonX​ D) Descending colon What is the primary function of Peyer’s patches in the gastrointestinal tract? A) Aid in protein digestion by producing trypsin​ B) Produce mucus to protect intestinal walls​ C) Secrete hydrochloric acid to break down food​ D) Protect the small intestine from pathogensX Which structure prevents food from flowing back into the small intestine from the ascending colon? A) Lower esophageal sphincter​ B) Pylorus​ C) Colic valveX​ D) Antrum Nervous System -nervous system has three main tasks. ​ First, it collects and receives sensory information from both inside and outside the body. ​ Second, it processes the sensory data. ​ Third, it then produces a response in the relevant part of the body. -separated into two main divisions: the central nervous system, which includes the brain and the spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system, which includes the nerves that stem from the central nervous system and spread throughout the body -main function of the central nervous system is to receive and integrate sensory data and then stimulate a response within the body -brain is composed of four main regions: the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and diencephalon. -cerebrum is separated into two distinct halves -left hemisphere controls the right side of the body, and the right hemisphere controls the left side of the body. This is referred to as contralateral control -frontal lobe is responsible for consciousness and other higher-level cognitive functions, including problem-solving, planning, memory, and communication. It also contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates body movement. -temporal lobes primary functions are to process auditory stimuli, store memories, regulate emotions, and help us to communicate language. -parietal lobe processes sensory input related to touch, temperature, and pain. -occipital lobe sits in the back of the cerebral cortex, and its primary role is to process visual information. -cerebellum helps coordinate our movements and is responsible for balance, posture, and muscle memory -brainstem has three primary parts: ​ midbrain, plays an important role in the regulation of our eye movements. ​ Pons, connection point between the brain and the spinal cord + plays an important role in the regulation of our sleep-wake cycles, our ability to perceive pain, and our ability to move our face. ​ Medulla is responsible for crucial life-sustaining tasks such as regulating respirations, heart rate, and blood pressure. -thalamus is responsible for initially processing nearly every sense experienced by the body, then relays the sensory data to the appropriate part of the brain for further processing. -hypothalamus is a key link between the nervous system and endocrine system, and it helps our body maintain homeostasis. -Motor data from the brain travels down the spinal cord and out to the body. -sensory data from the body travels back up the spinal cord to the brain. -peripheral nervous system is responsible for communication between your central nervous system and the rest of your body + carries sensory data from your body back to your brain, and it brings motor impulses from your brain to the target organ, muscle, or gland. -peripheral nervous system is made up of nerves that stem from the brain and spine. This includes 12 cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. -peripheral nervous system, there are two sub-systems:  ​ the somatic nervous system:involves aspects of the nervous system that we are consciously aware of and can control + contains sensory neurons, which carry information from our senses to our brain + contains motor neurons, which carry commands from the brain to our muscles to initiate voluntary bodily movements and involuntary reflexes ​ autonomic nervous system: manages involuntary movements and functions, such as communication with our internal organs and digestion -two divisions within the autonomic nervous system: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system ​ Sympathetic: responds to threats and activates our “fight or flight” response ​ Parasympathetic: activates our body’s “rest and digest” state and manages the body’s function while at rest. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary tasks of the nervous system? a) Collecting and receiving sensory information from both inside and outside the body b) Processing sensory data c) Producing a response in the relevant part of the body d) Storing memories and emotionsX Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for higher-level cognitive functions such as problem-solving, memory, and communication? a) Temporal lobe b) Cerebellum c) Occipital lobe d) Frontal lobeX What is the main function of the cerebellum? a) Regulating eye movement b) Processing auditory stimuli c) Coordinating movement and balanceX d) Managing sleep-wake cycles Which part of the brainstem is responsible for regulating life-sustaining functions such as respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure? a) Midbrain b) Pons c) MedullaX d) Thalamus Which division of the autonomic nervous system is activated during a stressful event to initiate the “fight or flight” response? a) Sympathetic nervous systemX b) Parasympathetic nervous system c) Somatic nervous system d) Central nervous system Muscular System -muscular system consists of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles -skeletal muscles have their own integrated tissues made of microfibers,which makes the muscles striated. -Biceps and triceps are examples of striated muscles -two types of skeletal muscles ​ Slow-twitch: don’t easily tire so they’re best for endurance activities. ex) you’re going on a long walk or bike ​ fast-twitch:burst of energy, hese muscles quickly contract, they’re best used for rapid movements ex) trying to sprint. , fast-twitch muscles tire easily -smooth muscle doesn’t have the same striation that the skeletal muscle or cardiac muscles have -smooth muscle contract to push food through the intestines and urine through the bladder. Smooth muscles in the uterus help in the birthing process during contractions. You’ll find smooth muscles around the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts. The stomach and lungs are two more examples of smooth muscles.. -Muscle contains two major proteins: ​ Myosin: thick filament that contains chemical energy that controls a specific movement, plays an important role in muscle contraction+Myosin controls all of the movements you make. ​ Actin: protein in the thin filament that also plays a role in motion, When the muscles contract, the thick myosin filaments grabs onto the thin actin filament. -Sarcomere is the name of the myofibril unit that contains myosin and actin. -pectoralis major:It helps the shoulder joint move in different directions+keep our arms attached to our body -external obliques, located on each side of your body, help our body rotate -latissimus dorsi muscle, located in the middle of the back, plays a critical role in extending and rotating the arm. -brachialis, biceps brachii, and the brachioradialis work together so that we can flex and extend our upper arms. -muscles, like the flexor carpi radialis and flexor digitorum superficialis, control the flexing movement. These flexor muscles control the ability for the joint to bend. -extensors, control the ability to open the joint Which of the following muscle types is characterized by striations and is responsible for voluntary movements? a) Smooth muscle b) Cardiac muscle ​ c) Skeletal muscleX ​ d) None of the above Which of the following muscles is best suited for endurance activities like long walks or cycling? ​ a) Fast-twitch muscles b) Smooth muscles c) Slow-twitch musclesX d) Cardiac muscles What is the primary function of smooth muscles in the body?​ a) Controlling rapid, voluntary movements​ b) Contracting to push food through the intestines and urine through the bladderX​ c) Providing stability and strength to bones​ d) Facilitating muscle contractions during voluntary movements like running Which of the following proteins is found in the thick filament of a muscle and plays a crucial role in muscle contraction? a) Actin​ b) MyosinX​ c) Troponin​ d) Titin Which muscle group works together to allow the upper arm to flex and extend? a) Pectoralis major and external obliques ​ b) Latissimus dorsi and brachioradialis ​ c) Brachialis, biceps brachii, and brachioradialisX​ d) Flexor carpi radialis and flexor digitorum superficialis Integumentary System - Accessory structures are also called specialized derivatives because of their biological origin and include hair, nails, and glands of the skin -epidermis:top layer of the skin that faces the external environment -epidermis is made up of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium -keratin: protein that gives skin, hair, and nails their hardness and ability to resist water. - “Stratified” refers to the multiple layers of cells in the epidermis, and “squamous” refers to the cells’ flattened shape. - epithelium:type of tissue that forms a barrier between the internal and external environments and regulates the flow of substances into and out of the body -epidermis layers:  ​ Stratum Corneum:outermost layer,made up of dried, keratinized cells that eventually slough off and are replaced by cells in the layer beneath it ​ Stratum Lucidum ​ Stratum Granulosum:Underneath the stratum lucidum in the palms and soles, and directly under the stratum corneum in all other areas of the skin ​ Stratum Spinosum:contains Langerhans cells, which break down foreign particles and damaged cells ​ Stratum Basale:most internal layer, made up of basal cells that divide to produce keratinocytes and push other cell layers towards the top. Also present are melanocytes + Merkel cells, which are receptors for sensing touch -Below the epidermis is the layer of skin called the dermis. -dermis is composed of connective tissue that gives skin strength and structure. Blood and lymph capillaries present in the dermis bring oxygen and nutrients to the skin and remove waste -dermis is divided into two layers ​ papillary dermis:Collagen forms loose connective tissue ​ reticular dermis:contains hair follicles, sebaceous glands, and sweat glands -exocrine glands: they secrete products to the outside of the body , ex) ​ sebaceous:produce an oily substance known as sebum, which lubricates hair and contribute to water-resistance of the skin, present in the dermis all over the body except the palms and soles, mixes with other secretions on the surface of the eye to keep it lubricated and clean, and in the ear canal to produce cerumen, commonly known as earwax ​ sweat glands:two main types of sweat glands: eccrine sweat glands, which empty their secretions into ducts that open at the surface of the skin throughout the body, and apocrine sweat glands, which empty into hair follicles in certain areas like the axillae and perineal region. -subcutaneous tissue/hypodermis: directly underneath the dermis is often included as the innermost layer of the skin, composed mostly of adipose tissue, and functions as fat storage, cushioning, and insulation for the body. - Blood vessels in the dermis can either dilate to allow more blood to get closer to the surface of the skin to release heat, or constrict to keep blood toward the inner body and preserve heat Which of the following is true about the Stratum Basale layer of the epidermis? A) It contains Langerhans cells that break down foreign particles and damaged cells. B) It is composed mainly of keratinized cells that slough off and are replaced by the underlying layer. C) It contains basal cells that divide to produce keratinocytes and push other layers upwards. X D) It is the layer responsible for the skin's water-resistant property. Which accessory structure or layer is responsible for sensing touch in the skin? A) Merkel cells in the Stratum BasaleX B) Langerhans cells in the Stratum Spinosum C) Eccrine sweat glands in the dermis D) Collagen fibers in the reticular dermis What is the primary difference between eccrine and apocrine sweat glands? A) Eccrine glands empty into hair follicles, while apocrine glands open directly to the skin surface. B) Apocrine glands are present all over the body, while eccrine glands are found only in specific areas. C) Eccrine glands empty directly onto the skin surface, while apocrine glands empty into hair follicles. X D) Apocrine glands primarily produce sebum, while eccrine glands secrete sweat. Which layer of the dermis provides structural support due to dense connective tissue and contains structures like hair follicles and sebaceous glands? A) Stratum Lucidum B) Papillary dermis C) Reticular dermis X D) Stratum Granulosum Which statement about sebaceous glands is correct? A) They are found in the hypodermis and produce sweat to help cool the body. B) They secrete cerumen in the ear and help keep the skin and hair lubricated.X C) They are primarily located in the palms and soles, helping with lubrication. D) They are part of the epidermis and are responsible for the skin's pigmentation. Endocrine System -endocrine system regulates several critical functions including growth, reproduction, and stress -endocrine system consists of a series of glands that produce and secrete hormones. Those hormones regulate several human body functions, including growth, sexual function, and reproduction. -contains the pituitary gland, the thyroid gland, the parathyroid glands, adrenal glands, and the ovaries in females and the testicles in males -pituitary gland ​ referred to as the “master gland” because it secretes hormones throughout your body ​ two parts — the anterior, located at the front of the gland, and the posterior, located on the rear -anterior pituitary gland ​ produces far more hormones than the posterior ​ growth hormone, or, GH. This hormone stimulates growth focusing on the bones and muscles ​ Adrenocorticotropic stimulates cortisol, the stress hormone, known for controlling the human “fight or flight” instinct and works with the brain to manage emotions like mood and fear. Cortisol also increases glucose, which increases blood sugar, regulates blood pressure, boosts energy, and manages the carbohydrate, fat, and protein use in the body. When the body is under stress, it produces more cortisol ​ body releases endorphins during periods of stress, including exercise, and works with the brain to lessen our perception of pain ​ Enkephalins losely related to endorphins because they also release hormones that help control pain ​ beta-melanocyte-stimulating hormone, helps protect the skin from ultraviolet radiation and suppress appetite ​ Luteinizing hormone which helps stimulate testosterone production in men and estrogen production in women  ​ Follicle-stimulating hormone, in women, the hormone helps produce estrogen and egg growth, while in men, this hormone is critical in sperm production. ​ thyroid-stimulating hormone critical to metabolism. -posterior pituitary gland ​ Vasopressin hormone helps the body prevent dehydration by helping conserve water, called the antidiuretic hormone ​ Oxytocin works hand-in-hand with prolactin. While prolactin stimulates breast milk production, oxytocin stimulates the release of breast milk. It also works in the uterus because it helps stimulate contractors during labor. -thyroid gland ​ controls how your body uses energy ​ controls our metabolism but also regulates several bodily functions, including heart rate, breathing, and body weight ​ produces two important hormones: triiodothyronine, called T3 for short, and thyroxine, called T4. Those hormones come from the iodine in the food we eat -parathyroid gland ​ Regulate body’s calcium levels ​ control how much calcium our bodies absorb from our food and how much calcium our kidneys excrete -adrenal gland ​ produce adrenaline, the hormone that triggers the fight or flight response in human ​ two adrenal glands: adrenal cortex produces cortisol and aldosterone, Aldosterone has a direct effect on regulating blood pressure because it conserves sodium, secretes potassium, and retains water+ adrenal medulla, which is the inner part of the adrenal gland, produces several hormones including adrenaline -ovaries ​ Secrete estrogen, and progesterone ​ Estrogen plays a critical role in female growth, development, and childbearing. There are actually three estrogens that all work together  ​ Estradiol helps the female reproductive organs grow. The placenta produces estradiol, which is why estradiol levels rise during pregnancy ​ Estrone has been linked to moodiness and weight gain , is produced more during menopause ​ Estriol helps nourish the baby and the placenta ​ progesterone helps get the uterus ready for a fertilized egg by thickening the uterine lining -testes produce testosterone, a hormone critical to the physical development of boys. -testosterone production results in several body changes, including a lower voice, growing facial hair, becoming taller, and increasing muscle mass -testosterone aids in sperm production, maintains strength and mass, and maintains sex drive. Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal cortex and plays a direct role in blood pressure regulation by conserving sodium and retaining water? A) Cortisol B) Adrenaline C) Aldosterone X D) Vasopressin The hormone responsible for stimulating the release of breast milk during breastfeeding and aiding uterine contractions during labor is: A) Prolactin B) Vasopressin C) Oxytocin X D) Luteinizing hormone Which hormone is produced in response to stress and has a role in increasing blood sugar, regulating blood pressure, and managing carbohydrate, fat, and protein use? A) Growth hormone B) Cortisol X C) Luteinizing hormone D) Thyroxine Which hormone, secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, helps protect the skin from ultraviolet radiation and also has an appetite-suppressing function? A) Beta-melanocyte-stimulating hormone X B) Follicle-stimulating hormone C) Adrenocorticotropic hormone D) Growth hormone Which of the following hormones is linked to mood changes and weight gain, especially during menopause, and is one of the three estrogens produced by the ovaries? A) Estriol B) Estradiol C) Estrone X D) Progesterone Urinary System -renal system has four primary parts—the kidneys, the ureter, the bladder, and the urethra. -urinary system has a number of important roles, including eliminating waste, working with other organs, so the body maintains a proper chemical and water balance, and regulating blood volume and blood pressure. -kidneys regulate fluid balance in our body and eliminate waste from our blood. They filter about 150 quarts or more than 37 gallons of blood in a single day. -kidneys have more than one million nephrons, which are the kidney’s filtering unit. Nephrons filter blood, remove waste and return the substances we need in our blood -Blood goes from the nephron to the Malpighian body or renal corpuscle. -The corpuscle has two structures that play a role in the filtering process. The glomerulus pulls out protein from the blood, and the Bowman Capsule takes the remaining fluid and sends it into the renal tubules. -renal tubules, in turn, absorb a number of electrolytes into the blood, including sodium, chloride, and potassium. -Before the fluid continues its journey, it becomes diluted and filled with the organic compound called urea -renal medulla, the inner and middle layer of the kidney, contains renal pyramids and collecting ducts. -Renal pyramids send fluid into the kidney and collecting ducts filter these fluids. -proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs water, glucose, and other organic molecules back into the bloodstream -Distal Convoluted Tubule removes urea and drugs from the blood and regulates the blood’s pH levels. Then, the fluid from the Distal Convoluted Tubule enter the Renal Pelvis as urine -renal artery supplies the kidneys with blood by carrying oxygenated blood from the heart to the kidneys. The renal veins drain the kidneys by carrying filtered blood back to the heart. -human bladder can hold up to about 24 ounces, or three cups, of urine -The trigone, a muscle, sends a signal to the brain when it’s time to be emptied -urethra carries urine from the bladder out of the body. -male urethra is about eight inches long and the female urethra is about two inches long -osmoregulation controls the body’s salt and water balance, the kidneys filter out any excess water and waste, maintaining that balance. What is the primary role of the glomerulus in the nephron? A) Absorbs electrolytes such as sodium and potassium B) Reabsorbs water and glucose into the bloodstream C) Filters protein out of the blood X D) Removes urea and drugs from the blood Which structure signals the brain when the bladder needs to be emptied? A) Urethra B) Renal pelvis C) Trigone X D) Renal artery What is the role of the proximal convoluted tubule within the nephron? A) Absorbs water, glucose, and organic molecules back into the bloodstream X B) Removes urea and drugs from the blood while regulating pH levels C) Collects urine before it enters the renal pelvis D) Regulates osmoregulation by balancing salt and water Which of the following statements about the renal artery and renal vein is true? A) The renal artery removes waste products from the kidneys. B) The renal vein carries oxygenated blood to the kidneys. C) The renal artery carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the kidneys.X D) The renal vein filters protein from the blood before sending it to the heart. How much urine can the average human bladder hold before signaling the need for emptying? A) 8 ounces B) 16 ounces C) 24 ounces X D) 32 ounces Immune system -immune system fights off pathogens, the viruses and bacteria that seek to invade our body. -Lymph contains white blood cells that help fight infection -Lymph moves through our system to lymphatic ducts when the skeletal muscles contract -Lymph only moves in one direction -Lymph nodes filter out harmful substances, ensuring clean lymph gets placed back in the blood supply via the subclavian veins in the neck -there are as many as 700 Lymph nodes, and they’re located in the neck, armpit, and groin. -lymph tissues, which are rich in small white blood cells called lymphocytes, protect the body from bacteria and other pathogens. The tonsils, adenoids, thymus, spleen, and Peyer’s Patches are all lymph tissues -Tonsils, located in the pharynx, filter out pathogens that can enter through the mouth or throat -thymus, located in the back of the neck, produces T-cells, an essential component of the immune system that seeks out and kills disease-carrying cells -spleen, the lymphatic system’s largest organ, is the cleansing mechanism,spleen takes dead blood cells and pathogens and removes them from the blood. -Peyer’s Patch, located in the ileum of the small intestine, protects the gastrointestinal, or digestive, tract from pathogens -Glandular secretions destroy bacteria while gastric secretions, or acids, also destroy pathogens -white blood cells can be classified into two broad categories based on their structure: granulocytes and agranulocytes ​ Granulocytes are a category of white blood cells that form in the bone marrow and play a role in fighting disease. There are three types of granulocytes. Neutrophil is the quick strike team, responding quickly to invaders. Basophil signals the body during an invasion, and eosinophil releases a substance that kills the pathogen. ​ Agranulocytes are also formed in the bone marrow and are given their name because they do not have obvious granules in the cytoplasm. There are two types of agranulocytes: monocytes and lymphocytes. lymphocytes include B-cells, T-cells, and natural killer cells (NK-cells) and are more common in the lymphatic system than the blood. Monocytes eat bacteria and other pathogens. Located in the lymph, monocytes also alert T-cells to the presence of those bacterial invaders. Monocytes eventually leave the bloodstream and become macrophages attacking microorganisms and removing dead cell debris. -B-lymphocytes make antibodies that specifically target + destroy bacteria -T-lymphocytes, or T-cells, are the attack force. They attack and kill infected cells ​ Killer T cells kill virus and cancer cells ​ memory T-cells learn from their past encounters with infected cells and remember how to defeat them ​ suppressor T-cells stop the immune system’s response after pathogens no longer pose a threat -antigen: invader that enters our body, typically as a protein from bacteria, viruses, or fungi -Antibodies: can recognize antigens and counteract them. -innate immune system springs into action like a first-strike force, quickly attacking pathogens that have invaded our body. ex)You cut yourself, opening a wound that can attract bacteria. The innate system attacks and slows the bacteria -adaptive immune system: more selective, attacking specific antigens by zeroing in on the intruders -Artificially Acquired Passive Immunity: occurs when antibodies are introduced into the body through an external source, such as an injection, usually done when immediate protection is needed against a disease, body does not produce its own antibodies in response -Artificially Acquired Active Immunity: developed when a person is exposed to a weakened or inactive form of a pathogen, often through vaccination, immune system responds by producing its own antibodies and memory cells -Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity: occurs naturally when antibodies are passed from one individual to another, most common example is the transfer of antibodies from a mother to her baby through breast milk after birth, baby receives antibodies but does not produce them on its own -Naturally Acquired Active Immunity: develops when a person is exposed to a pathogen in the natural environment, such as by getting an infection, immune system responds by producing its own antibodies and memory cells, leading to long-term immunity What is the primary function of lymph nodes in the immune system? A. To filter out harmful substances and return clean lymph to the bloodstream X B. To produce antibodies that target bacteria C. To stimulate the production of T-cells D. To move lymph through the body using smooth muscle contractions Which of the following lymph tissues is responsible for filtering pathogens that enter through the mouth or throat? A. Thymus B. Peyer’s Patches C. Spleen D. Tonsils X Which type of immunity develops when antibodies are introduced into the body from an external source, such as an injection, and does not require the body to produce its own antibodies? A. Artificially Acquired Active Immunity B. Artificially Acquired Passive Immunity X C. Naturally Acquired Active Immunity D. Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity What is the role of memory T-cells within the adaptive immune system? A. They destroy virus and cancer cells immediately upon detection B. They learn from previous infections to respond to similar threats more efficiently in the future X C. They signal basophils during an immune response D. They produce antibodies specific to bacteria Which of the following statements best describes the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes? A. Granulocytes form in the lymphatic system, while agranulocytes form in the bone marrow B. Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm, while agranulocytes lack obvious granules X C. Agranulocytes are responsible for signaling invasions, while granulocytes release substances to kill pathogens D. Agranulocytes include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils Skeletal system -When muscles contract, they pull the skeletal bones, which cause movement. -skeleton acts as a storage system for the minerals calcium and phosphorous, and we need both for our nerves, muscles, and body organs to function -axial skeleton has 80 bones made up of the skull, inner ear ossicles, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and the ribs and sternum, which is called the bony thorax -cranial bones include the parietal, the temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones. - two parietal bones are the flat bones on each side of your head, located behind the frontal bone -temporal bones are located under the parietal bones. These two irregular shaped bones are at the base and sides of the skull and house the ear structures. -frontal bone. That’s your forehead, and it also contains the eye sockets. -occipital bone is located at the back of the skull and it has an opening at the bottom. It’s from that opening that the spinal cord connects to the brain. -sphenoid bone forms a large part of the base of your skull. -ethmoid bone, located in front of the sphenoid bone, forms a part of the nasal cavity. -facial bones include the maxilla, zygomatic, mandible, nasal, palatine, concha, lacrimal, and vomer bones -maxilla bone holds the upper teeth in place and forms the upper jaw -zygomatic bone, is the cheekbone + forms the outer side of the eye socket. -lower jaw bone, called the mandible bone, lets us open and close our mouth and chew since the bone houses our lower teeth. -nasal bone is those two bones in the middle of our face that make up the bridge of our nose -palatine bone, that’s an L-shaped bone that forms the nasal and oral cavities -inferior nasal concha forms the lower part of the nasal cavity’s lateral wall -lacrimal bone is the smallest and thinnest in the skull + forms part of the eye socket. -vomer bone separates the left and right nasal cavity. -vertebral column has 33 bones -cervical vertebrae has 7 vertebrae -cervical vertebrae are the neck vertebrae that run right below the skull. The cervical spine contains seven vertebrae each designated C1 through C7 -C1 vertebra, atlas, yes bone -C2 vertebra, axis, no bone -thoracic spine has 12 vertebrae -lumbar spine has 5 vertebrae -sacrum is a large bone made up of 5 fused vertebrae -coccyx is made up of 4 small fused bones, known as the tailbone. -appendicular skeleton has 126 bones that cover our arms, legs, hands, feet, our pelvic girdle, and our shoulder girdle. -the appendicular skeleton governs movement -appendicular skeleton can be subdivided into four areas ​ pectoral girdle covers the clavicle and scapula, which connect the upper extremities to the trunk ​ upper extremities includes the humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges ​ pelvic girdle, your hip bone, serves as the attachment mechanism for the lower limbs ​ lower extremity, cover the femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges -compact bones  ​ are dense, stronger, and rigid and make up much of the skeleton’s hard structure ​ release calcium and phosphorus into the body when it needs it ​ body’s long bones, like the tibia, femur, and fibula, are examples of compact bones. -Cancellous bones ​ located within the compact bones. ​ softer and spongier ​ control the production of red blood cells, and you’ll also find nerves and bone marrow in this spongy bone -flat bones, like the sternum and cranium, protect organs. -long bones, like the femur and tibia, support weight. -cube-shaped short bones, like the carpals in your hand and tarsals in your ankle, provide stability. The -irregular bones, like the ones of the vertebrae and pelvis, protect organs. -sesamoid bones are small round bones embedded in tendons, such as the kneecap, which protect tendons from stress and wear. 1. Which of the following structures forms a large part of the base of the skull and is located near the nasal cavity? A. Sphenoid bone X B. Ethmoid bone C. Occipital bone D. Lacrimal bone 2. The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones and includes several major parts. Which of these bones or structures is NOT part of the appendicular skeleton? A. Clavicle B. Coccyx X C. Radius D. Pelvic girdle 3. Which of the following describes a sesamoid bone, and where is an example of it found in the body? A. Dense, strong bone that supports weight; found in the femur B. Small, cube-shaped bone that provides stability; found in the carpals C. Small, round bone embedded in tendons to reduce stress; found in the patella X D. Soft, spongy bone that produces red blood cells; found in the vertebrae 4. Which bone forms part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity and also plays a role in controlling airflow through the nose? A. Maxilla B. Inferior nasal concha X C. Vomer D. Nasal bone 5. Which of the following describes the function and location of compact bones in the body? A. Located within other bones; involved in red blood cell production B. Located in short bones; provides flexibility and stability C. Primarily found in irregular bones; protects organs D. Located at the outer surfaces of long bones; releases minerals like calcium X Difference Between Plant+Animal Cells -both plant and animal cells are what we call eukaryotic cells. All eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and lots of membrane-bound organelles -nucleus is surrounded by a porous bilayer membrane called the nuclear envelope that selectively allows proteins and DNA in and out of the nucleus -rough ER harbors ribosomes that act as sites for protein synthesis. The cell can use these proteins for carrying out genetic processes, sending signals, and for providing structural support for the cell -Smooth ER contains enzymes that processes lipids, or fats, for cell use -golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying and sorting all kinds of proteins from the rough ER then, modified proteins will be packaged into secretory vesicles which bud from the Golgi and are then shipped within the cell or exported/transported outside of the cell -peroxisomes in the cytoplasm break down fatty acid chains, and lysosomes that help break down other molecules so that they can be recycled and reused throughout the cell -both cell types are surrounded by a membrane that’s known as a phospholipid bilayer -plant cell unique components  ​ Chloroplasts are the site of photosynthesis where the sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water are turned into energy for the cell to use. ​ Vacuoles take up a large part of the available space in the cell because they store water and other nutrients for the cell to use. -Cellular respiration is made up of four main processes: 1. Glycolysis 2. The Krebs cycle (or citric acid cycle) 3. Electron transport through the electron transport chain 4. ATP synthesis -glycolysis: glucose molecules in the cytoplasm convert from one glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid to be used in the Krebs cycle in mitochondria. -Krebs cycle: pyruvic acid enters the mitochondrial matrix and binds to Coenzyme A to form acetyl Coenzyme A -electron transport chain: oxygen is reduced by NADH and FADH2 to generate a proton motive force for the formation of ATP molecules. - cellular respiration as a whole, glucose is oxidized to produce six molecules of carbon dioxide, six molecules of water, and 36-38 molecules of ATP -somatic cells that undergo mitosis and sex cells -gametes undergo meiosis -mitosis is where a diploid cell, or two copies of each chromosome, divides to form two identical diploid daughter cells. - Meiosis is a process by which diploid cells undergo meiosis in two stages, meiosis I and meiosis II, resulting in four haploid gametes. -diploid means that the cell has two copies of each chromosome -haploid refers to each cell having only one copy of each chromosome 1. Of the following organelles, which ones are primarily found in animal cells? A.Ribosomes B.Peroxisomes C.Plasma membrane D.Centrioles X 2. Which of the following is a unique component of plant cells, and what is its primary function? A. Lysosome; to break down molecules​ B. Ribosome; to synthesize proteins for the cell C. Chloroplast; to convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into usable energy X​ D. Golgi apparatus; to modify and sort proteins 3. In the process of cellular respiration, what role does the electron transport chain play? A. It converts glucose into pyruvic acid to be used in the Krebs cycle​ B. It reduces oxygen using NADH and FADH2 to generate ATP molecules X ​ C. It combines carbon dioxide and water to produce glucose​ D. It forms acetyl Coenzyme A from pyruvic acid 4. Which organelle is involved in modifying and sorting proteins received from the rough ER, and where are these modified proteins sent afterward? A. Smooth ER; sent to the lysosomes​ B. Nucleus; sent directly out of the cell C. Ribosomes; sent to the cytoplasm for immediate use​ D. Golgi apparatus; sent to secretory vesicles for transport within or outside the cell X 5. Which of the following best describes a difference between mitosis and meiosis in terms of chromosome copies in the resulting cells? A. Mitosis produces two haploid cells, while meiosis produces two diploid cells​ B. Mitosis generates four diploid cells, while meiosis generates four haploid cells C. Mitosis results in two diploid cells, whereas meiosis results in four haploid cellsX ​ D. Mitosis produces one diploid cell, while meiosis produces two haploid cells Plasma Membrane -separates the intracellular environment (the cytoplasm) of cells from the extracellular space into distinct units known as cells. -plasma membrane also regulates the movement of materials in and out of the cell -phospholipids are a type of lipid with hydrophobic (or “water-fearing”) fatty acid tails and a hydrophilic (or “water-loving”) phosphate group as their head. This combination of a hydrophilic and hydrophobic region makes them known as amphipathic -fluidity of the bilayer is affected by temperature and the composition of the membrane. With more heat, the membrane becomes more fluid due to the excitement of molecules -Cholesterol is a type of lipid that is a modified steroid, which contains four carbon rings and a hydrocarbon chain. It reduces membrane fluidity, resists changes in fluidity due to temperature, and also helps prevent materials from leaking through the membrane. -Proteins are large, highly functional macromolecules that are found along the plane of the membrane -Membrane proteins can either be found on one or both sides of the membrane, and are referred to as peripheral proteins, integral membrane proteins, or transmembrane proteins. ​ Peripheral proteins are temporarily bound to the membrane by hydrogen bonding or other weak non-covalent interactions and often serve as enzymes or receptor proteins. ​ Integral membrane proteins are those which have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions that allow them to line up with the hydrophobic region of the membrane and the intracellular or extracellular space. ​ Transmembrane proteins are integral proteins that have regions exposed in both the cell’s cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid. -passive transport:where substances diffuse down their chemical gradient to the area of a lower concentration. -active transport:moves substances against their gradient, often to create a high concentration in the cell. Active transport costs energy in the form of ATP to create a conformational change -In plants, cell walls have three layers: the primary cell wall, secondary cell wall, and middle lamella. ​ -The primary cell walls are made mostly from three polysaccharides: cellulose which forms long, linear chains; hemicellulose, which is a smaller, branching polysaccharide; and pectin. ​ in the secondary cell wall is primarily cellulose, xylan, and lignin, while the middle lamella is mostly pectin. ​ Bacteria, is formed primarily of peptidoglycan which forms linear polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides. ​ fungi, the cell wall is formed mostly from chitin, which is a glucose derivative, and polysaccharides 1.What is the primary function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane? A) Increasing membrane fluidity B) Reducing membrane fluidity and preventing leaks X C) Facilitating passive transport D) Assisting in protein synthesis 2.Which type of membrane protein has regions exposed to both the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid? A) Transmembrane proteins X B) Integral membrane proteins C) Peripheral proteins D) Cholesterol proteins 3.Which of the following materials is the primary structural component of the bacterial cell wall? A) Cellulose B) Chitin C) Peptidoglycan X D) Pectin 4.Which process involves substances moving against their gradient and requires ATP? A) Osmosis B) Passive transport C) Active transport X D) Facilitated diffusion 5.What is the middle lamella of plant cell walls primarily composed of? A) Cellulose B) Xylan C) Lignin D) Pectin X Mitochondria -specialized organelle found in eukaryotic cells that primarily generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by oxidizing glucose and fatty acids -energy producer for the cell -Mammalian cells have hundreds of thousands of mitochondria per cell, but this number can change based on the specific role and energy needs of the animal’s cell -special double membrane which contributes to their function. ​ double membrane consists of the inner membrane and the outer membrane. ​ outer membrane contains proteins called “porins” that allow small molecules like sugars and ions to pass through ​ inner membrane is home to lots of proteins that help with the processes of the electron transport chain ​ intermembrane space formed by the space between the outer membrane and the inner membrane. ​ second is the matrix space which is formed by the folding of the inner membrane. We call the folds in the inner membrane cristae -shape of mitochondria also indicates the age or maturity of the organelle (elongated is mature) -When a cell is under stress of some kind, whether it’s environmental stress, DNA damage, or if it has been subject to reactive oxygen species (abbreviated ROS), cells will undergo a kind of controlled cell death called apoptosis -Bcl-2 proteins are located in the outer mitochondrial membrane and begin the apoptotic process. -Bcl-2 is responsible for maintaining the outer mitochondrial membrane and keeping it impermeable to Cytochrome c. -when a cell receives stress signals, Bak and Bax proteins associate with Bcl-2 and start to make the outer mitochondrial matrix more permeable to Cytochrome c so that it can be released into the cytoplasm of the cell. -Cytochrome c is responsible for activating Apaf-1, which activates a series of caspase proteins. These caspases are proteases, meaning they will degrade proteins and cause the cell to lose its integrity 1.Which of the following are properties of mitochondria? A.They have a double membrane B.They participate in cell differentiation C.They regulate apoptosis D.They undergo glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation E.All of the above X 2.Which of the following components is primarily responsible for allowing small molecules like sugars and ions to pass through the mitochondrial membrane? A) Cristae B) Porins X C) Cytochrome c D) Caspases 3.What mitochondrial structural feature is directly related to its role in the electron transport chain? A) Outer membrane B) Intermembrane space C) Inner membrane X D) Matrix 4.When mitochondrial Cytochrome c is released into the cytoplasm, it is primarily responsible for: A) Transporting ATP out of the cell B) Initiating the electron transport chain C) Activating Apaf-1 and triggering apoptosis X D) Stabilizing the inner membrane 5.In response to cellular stress, which protein interaction directly increases the permeability of the outer mitochondrial membrane, allowing Cytochrome c release? A) Apaf-1 and caspases B) Bak and Bax with Bcl-2 X C) ATP synthase and porins D) Cytochrome c and cristae Mitosis -cell cycle is continuous and occurs so that cells can grow, regenerate, or repair themselves. -Mitosis is one of the specific stages of the cell cycle where cells prepare to divide -cells must evenly split their genetic material, or DNA, between each cell. -Mitosis only occurs in somatic cells, meaning all the cells in your body except for sex cells. -before cells undergo mitosis, they replicate their genetic material so that each daughter cell has the same genetic material as the parent cell. -Chromosomes are condensed strands of DNA. They are divided into two sister chromatids held together by their centromere. -Our cell is a human diploid cell which means it has two sets of chromosomes, one set of 23 from our mother and one set of 23 from our father -shorthand for diploid as “2n.” - prophase ​ the cell’s nuclear membrane dissolves and the chromosomes start to condense. ​ Microtubules extending from centrioles on both sides of the cell also begin to form. Together they form a spindle apparatus called the centrosome that will eventually help move the chromosomes into place. -metaphase ​ microtubules attach to the centromeres of chromosomes causing the chromosomes to line up along the equator of the cell. -anaphase ​ chromosomes get pulled apart into their sister chromatids and move to opposite ends of the cell ​ plasma membrane also starts to indent to prepare for the actual division of the cell -telophase  ​ chromosomes relax, the spindle apparatus disassembles, and the nuclear membrane reforms in each end of the cell. ​ Lastly, the plasma membrane of the cell develops an even deeper furrow that will end up dividing the cell down the middle. -cytokinesis: process where the cell actually divides itself in two -starts with a diploid cell with 46 total chromosomes, end up with two diploid daughter cells with 46 chromosomes total 1.What stage in mitosis is this? A. Anaphase B. Cytokinesis C. Telophase D. Prophase X 2.What stage in mitosis is this? A. Anaphase B. Cytokinesis C. Telophase X D. Prophase 3.What stage in mitosis is this? A. Anaphase X B. Cytokinesis C. Telophase D. Prophase 4.In human diploid cells, each daughter cell resulting from mitosis has: A) 23 chromosomes total B) 46 chromosomes total X C) 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 total) D) 92 chromosomes total 5.Which structure is primarily responsible for assisting the chromosomes in moving into place during mitosis? A) Centromere B) Centrosome X C) Chromatid D) Nuclear membrane DNA -deoxyribonucleic acid -DNA is the organic chemical of complex molecular structure located in all prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, as well as in many viruses -DNA is what makes up the codes for genetic information of inherited traits to be transmitted -nucleotide of DNA is made up of a deoxyribose sugar molecule, or a five-carbon sugar molecule + attached to this sugar molecule is a phosphate group along with one of four nitrogenous bases. -nitrogenous bases consist of two purines (adenine and guanine) and two pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine). -nucleotides are bound together by covalent bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and the sugar of the next nucleotide. This bond forms a phosphate-sugar foundation from where the nitrogenous bases project. -gene: segment of DNA that codes for the cell’s synthesis of a particular protein -The strands are held together by a hydrogen bond between the bases -purine adenine bonds only with the pyrimidine thymine, and the pyrimidine cytosine only bonds with the purine guanine -semiconservative replication: two strands break apart, and replicate, by bonding to another strand, each new DNA molecule contains one strand of the original -In prokaryotes, all the DNA is a single round-shaped chromosome in the cytoplasm -Inside of eukaryotes, you can locate the chromosomes inside the nucleus -Plasmids are self-replicating genetic material 1.Which component is NOT found in a DNA nucleotide? A) Deoxyribose sugar B) Phosphate group C) Amino acid X D) Nitrogenous base 2.In DNA, which type of bond connects the sugar of one nucleotide to the phosphate of the next? A) Hydrogen bond B) Covalent bond X C) Ionic bond D) Peptide bond 3.What is the pairing rule for nitrogenous bases in DNA? A) Adenine with Thymine, Guanine with Cytosine X B) Adenine with Cytosine, Guanine with Thymine C) Adenine with Guanine, Cytosine with Thymine D) Thymine with Guanine, Adenine with Cytosine 4.What does "semiconservative replication" mean in DNA replication? A) Each new DNA molecule contains only new strands. B) Each new DNA molecule contains two original strands. C) Each new DNA molecule contains one original strand and one new strand X D) Each new DNA molecule has a different base pair sequence than the original. 5.Where is the DNA located in prokaryotic cells? A) Nucleus B) Cell membrane C) Mitochondria D) Cytoplasm Codons -DNA is what makes up the codes for genetic information of inherited traits to be transmitted -DNA provides the instructions on what to make, and RNA (more specifically messenger RNA) attaches to the DNA and translates (or reads the genetic instructions and puts it into action in our bodies) -DNA and RNA have 4 base pairs that connect to the sugar phosphate backbone. Adenine, Guanine, Thymine (or Uracil for RNA), and Cytosine -codon codes for an amino acid, and this sequence of codons codes for a protein -role of transfer RNA, or tRNA, molecules is to bring the amino acids to the ribosomes, and interpret the mRNA per codon, or three nucleotides at a time -beginning frame which the sequence should be translated is signaled by a start codon, which is typically the very first AUG codon within the mRNA sequence. ​ start codon always signifies when translation should begin 1.Which molecule directly translates the genetic instructions of DNA into functional proteins? A) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) B) Transfer RNA (tRNA) C) Messenger RNA (mRNA) X D) DNA 2.Which base pair is found in RNA but not in DNA? A) Thymine B) Cytosine C) Adenine D) Uracil X 3.What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA) in protein synthesis? A) It reads the DNA code. B) It brings amino acids to the ribosome. X C) It forms the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA. D) It signals the start of transcription. 4.In an mRNA sequence, what is the typical start codon that signals the beginning of translation? A) UAG B) UGA C) AUG X D) AGU 5.Which statement best describes a codon in the genetic code? A) A single amino acid that codes for three nucleotides. B) The structure in DNA that translates instructions into RNA C) A sequence of amino acids that codes for an mRNA molecule. D) Three nucleotides in mRNA that code for a single amino acid. X Codons -DNA provides the instructions on what to make -RNA (mRNA) attaches to the DNA and translates (reads the genetic instructions and puts it into action in our bodies) -information in DNA and RNA is broken up into a series of three nucleotides called codons. -role of transfer RNA, or tRNA, molecules is to bring the amino acids to the ribosomes, and interpret the mRNA per codon, or three nucleotides at a time -reason that tRNAs are able to interpret (or read) codons is, because they contain an anti-codon within their sequence -codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in a strand of RNA (ribonucleic acid) that corresponds to a specific amino acid or a stop signal during the process of protein synthesis. -Codons are part of the genetic code, which determines how genetic information encoded in DNA and RNA is translated into proteins. -Start Codon: AUG is the most common start codon, signaling the beginning of protein synthesis and encoding the amino acid methionine in eukaryotes. -Stop Codons: UAA, UAG, and UGA do not encode amino acids and signal the end of protein synthesis. Codons are read in the 5' to 3' direction during translation. -Codons are read in the 5' to 3' direction during translation. -Codons in Translation: ​ Transcription: DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA). ​ Translation: The ribosome reads the mRNA in codons. Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules with complementary anticodons bring amino acids to ribosome.  ​ Protein Synthesis:Amino acids are linked together in the order specified by the codons, forming a polypeptide chain that folds into a functional protein. -AUG: Methionine (Start) -UUU, UUC: Phenylalanine -UAA, UAG, UGA: Stop Signals -GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG: Glycine 1.Which of the following best describes the function of tRNA in protein synthesis? A) It carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosome. B) It brings amino acids to the ribosome and matches them to the mRNA codons.X C) It forms the structure of the ribosome. D) It signals the termination of protein synthesis. 2.What is the sequence of the start codon, and what does it encode? A) UGA, and it signals a stop. B) AUG, and it encodes methionine. X C) UAA, and it encodes glycine. D) UUC, and it signals the beginning of translation. 3.Which of the following is not true about stop codons? A) They signal the end of protein synthesis. B) They do not correspond to any amino acid. C) Examples include UAA, UAG, and UGA. D) They encode the amino acid glycine. X 4.During translation, codons are read in which direction? A) 3' to 5' direction on the mRNA. B) 3' to 5' direction on the DNA coding strand. C) 5' to 3' direction on the DNA template strand. D) 5' to 3' direction on the mRNA. X 5.What is the relationship between a codon and an anticodon? A) Codons are sequences in mRNA, and anticodons are complementary sequences in tRNA. X B) Codons are part of the tRNA, and anticodons are part of the mRNA. C) Codons and anticodons are identical sequences in mRNA and tRNA. D) Codons are part of the ribosome, and anticodons are part of the tRNA. DNA vs RNA -DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid and is a nucleic acid that contains the genetic instructions used in the development and functioning of all known living organisms -DNA is a polymer that has a deoxyribose and phosphate foundation with four nitrogenous bases: adenine and guanine (which are purine) and cytosine and thymine (which are pyrimidine). -Adenine only pairs with Thymine, and Guanine only pairs with Cytosine. -RNA stands for ribonucleic acid and is a nucleic acid that executes the instructions given by the DNA. -RNA is housed in the nucleus and cytoplasm. -sugar in RNA is ribose. -RNA is a single-strand chain of alternating phosphate and ribose units with the bases adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil bonded to the ribose. -RNA molecules are involved in protein synthesis and sometimes in the transmission of genetic information. The primary role of RNA is to deliver the genetic information (or code) necessary for the building of proteins from the nucleus to the ribosome. -There are three main types of RNA: ​ mRNA is transcribed from DNA, and it transfers the coded instruction for protein synthesis. ​ rRNA is a part of the ribosome and controls the translation of messenger RNA into the proteins. ​ tRNA carries the amino acids, that follow the correct coding, to the ribosomes to be attached to into proteins. -DNA is more stable under extreme condition conditions, but RNA is not very stable due to it only being single stranded. -DNA and RNA perform different functions in humans. DNA is responsible for storing and transferring genetic information while RNA directly codes for amino acids and as acts as a messenger between DNA and ribosomes to make proteins -DNA and RNA base pairing is slightly different since DNA uses the bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine; RNA uses adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine. Uracil differs from thymine in that it lacks a methyl group on its ring. 1.Which of the following correctly pairs the nitrogenous bases found in DNA? A) Adenine with Uracil; Guanine with Thymine B) Adenine with Cytosine; Guanine with Uracil C) Adenine with Thymine; Guanine with Cytosine X D) Adenine with Thymine; Guanine with Uracil 2.Which sugar is found in RNA, and how does it differ from DNA's sugar? A) Deoxyribose; RNA lacks a phosphate group. B) Ribose; RNA lacks one oxygen atom compared to DNA's sugar. C) Ribose; it contains one more oxygen atom than deoxyribose in DNA. X D) Deoxyribose; RNA sugar is more chemically stable. 3.What distinguishes RNA from DNA in terms of nitrogenous bases? A) RNA uses thymine in place of uracil. B) RNA uses uracil in place of thymine. X C) RNA contains both thymine and uracil. D) DNA contains uracil instead of thymine. 4.Which of the following is not a function or characteristic of RNA? A) RNA directly codes for amino acids and assists in protein synthesis. B) RNA is double-stranded like DNA, providing genetic stability. X C) RNA is housed in both the nucleus and cytoplasm. D) RNA has three main types: mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. 5.Which type of RNA is responsible for carrying amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis? A) mRNA B) tRNA X C) rRNA D) snRNA Punnett Square -humans have a total of 46 chromosomes. -Chromosomes are made up of DNA that is tightly coiled around proteins that are called histones. -Genes are pieces of DNA found on chromosomes that can act as codes for a specific protein. -somatic cells are diploid, meaning we have two copies of each gene, one from each parent. -Alleles are sequence variants of a gene that produce a certain observable trait, or phenotype. -one allele from mom and one allele from dad for each trait. -Mendel’s law of segregation states that the parents’ allele pairs separate randomly and only one allele from each parent is passed to the offspring. -combination of alleles/genotype determines observable traits (phenotype) -all somatic cells contain two alleles for each trait, one on each chromosome -phenotype is the physical expression of genes and we derive the phenotype from the genotype 1)What is the role of histones in the structure of chromosomes? a) Histones are enzymes that replicate DNA. b) Histones allow DNA to remain uncoiled for easier replication. c) Histones tightly coil DNA into chromosomes and regulate gene expression. X d) Histones remove mutations from DNA. 2)What does Mendel’s law of segregation state? a) Alleles for the same trait are inherited together from one parent. b) Alleles for a trait separate randomly, and one allele from each parent is passed to the offspring. X c) Genes on the same chromosome always segregate together. d) All offspring inherit both alleles from each parent. 3)Which statement correctly describes the relationship between genotype and phenotype? a) Phenotype determines genotype through environmental interaction. b) Genotype is the physical trait, while phenotype refers to genetic makeup. c) Genotype consists of the alleles inherited, which determine the phenotype, the observable traits. X d) Genotype and phenotype are unrelated and independent of each other. 4)Why are somatic cells considered diploid? a) They have two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. X b) They contain only a single set of chromosomes for each trait. c) They undergo meiosis to create gametes with two copies of each chromosome. d) They can switch between diploid and haploid states during replication. 5)How do variations in alleles affect observable phenotypes? a) Only dominant alleles influence the phenotype, while recessive alleles remain inactive. b) Both dominant and recessive alleles can influence the phenotype, depending on their interactions. X c) Defective alleles always lead to non-functional traits. d) Variations in alleles only influence genotype, not phenotype. Genotype vs. Phenotype -allele is a variant of a gene on a chromosome that helps determine the heredity of an organism. -all somatic cells have two alleles for each trait -phenotype is the physical trait that is determined by the present alleles. -Phenotypes help observe and analyze genetic mutations -genotype is the allele pairing inherited for a particular gene that produces a specific phenotype -mutant alleles: contain a mutation that could cause a change or disease. -If an allele is not a mutant allele, it is called a wildtype allele. This type of allele is considered to be “normal.” 1)What is the role of histones in the structure of chromosomes? a) Histones are enzymes that replicate DNA. b) Histones allow DNA to remain uncoiled for easier replication. c) Histones tightly coil DNA into chromosomes and regulate gene expression. X d) Histones remove mutations from DNA. 2)What does Mendel’s law of segregation state? a) Alleles for the same trait are inherited together from one parent. b) Alleles for a trait separate randomly, and one allele from each parent is passed to the offspring. X c) Genes on the same chromosome always segregate together. d) All offspring inherit both alleles from each parent. 3)Which statement correctly describes the relationship between genotype and phenotype? a) Phenotype determines genotype through environmental interaction. b) Genotype is the physical trait, while phenotype refers to genetic makeup. c) Genotype consists of the alleles inherited, which determine the phenotype, the observable traits. X d) Genotype and phenotype are unrelated and independent of each other. 4)Why are somatic cells considered diploid? a) They have two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. X b) They contain only a single set of chromosomes for each trait. c) They undergo meiosis to create gametes with two copies of each chromosome. d) They can switch between diploid and haploid states during replication. 5)How do variations in alleles affect observable phenotypes? a) Only dominant alleles influence the phenotype, while recessive alleles remain inactive. b) Both dominant and recessive alleles can influence the phenotype, depending on their interactions. X c) Defective alleles always lead to non-functional traits. d) Variations in alleles only influence genotype, not phenotype. Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Genetics -Non-Mendelian traits, on the other hand, are traits that don’t have complete dominance or recessive alleles from a gene. - Any patterns of genetic theory that do not fit within Gregor Mendel’s framework are referred to as Non-Mendelian genetics -Incomplete dominance: more than one trait are displayed to some degree -Co-dominance: both alleles are displayed equally, and both are displayed in the offspring’s phenotype -Multiple alleles: more than two alleles to express a single characteristic -Sex-linked traits: genes are located on the sex chromosomes and are inherited that way.ex) if a gene is located on the Y chromosome, then it can only be inherited by males. 1)Which of the following describes incomplete dominance? a) Only one dominant allele is expressed in the phenotype. b) Both alleles are expressed equally and simultaneously in the phenotype. c) Neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in a blended phenotype. X d) The allele is located on the sex chromosome, influencing inheritance. 2)What is an example of codominance? a) A flower showing a mix of red and white petals in its offspring. b) A plant with pink flowers due to blending of red and white traits. c) Blood type AB, where both A and B alleles are fully expressed. X d) A gene located on the Y chromosome expressed only in males. 3)Which of the following correctly explains multiple alleles? a) Two alleles interact equally in the phenotype of the offspring. b) More than two possible alleles exist for a single gene, but an individual inherits only two. X c) A gene is located on the X or Y chromosome, influencing inheritance patterns. d) Neither allele completely dominates, resulting in a mixed expression of traits. 4)What makes sex-linked traits unique in terms of inheritance? a) They involve alleles that express dominant and recessive traits equally. b) They are inherited based on their location on autosomal chromosomes. c) They are located on the sex chromosomes and often show gender-specific patterns. X d) They always result in incomplete dominance in the offspring. 5)Which of the following patterns does NOT fall under Non-Mendelian genetics? a) A flower with pink petals due to a mix of red and white alleles. b) A blood type expressed as AB, showing traits of both A and B alleles. c) A gene showing complete dominance of one allele over another. X d) A gene located on the Y chromosome expressed only in males. Mendelian and Non-Mendelian Genetics -Non-Mendelian