Science 10 3rd Q RUQA PDF

REGIONAL UNIFIED QUARTERLY ASSESSMENT (RUQA) SY 2024-2025 Third Quarter – Grade 10 Science GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS. Do not write anything on this test paper. After carefully reading all the questions, reflect all your answers on the separ...

REGIONAL UNIFIED QUARTERLY ASSESSMENT (RUQA) SY 2024-2025 Third Quarter – Grade 10 Science GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS. Do not write anything on this test paper. After carefully reading all the questions, reflect all your answers on the separate ANSWER SHEET. Shade the circle that corresponds to your chosen answer. 1. Which part of the female reproductive system is directly involved in hormone production? a. Uterus b. Ovaries c. Vagina d. Fallopian tubes 2. Which of the following is a notable difference between the male and female reproductive systems? a. Common hormones c. Different responses to hormones b. Shared reproductive organs d. Similar embryological structures 3. Name the female reproductive organs responsible for producing eggs and their succeeding transport to the uterus. a. Testes - produce eggs, Uterus - transports eggs b. Epididymis - produces eggs, Cervix - transports eggs c. Prostate gland - produces eggs, Vagina - transports eggs d. Ovaries - produce eggs, Fallopian tubes - transport eggs 3. Describe the function of the male reproductive system related to that of the female reproductive system in the process of human reproduction. a. They have entirely different functions. b. There is no relationship between the functions of the two systems. c. The male system solely contributes to fertilization, while the female system nurtures the developing fetus. d. The male system produces sperm, while the female system produces eggs, both contributing to fertilization. 4. What part of the female reproductive system is the site of egg implantation and provides a place for nourishment and development of the fetus during pregnancy? a. Fallopian Tube b. Ovaries c. Uterus d. Vagina 5. Which of the following are produced in the ovaries? a. Primary oocytes, insulin, and estrogen b. Tertiary oocytes, insulin, and estrogen c. Primary oocytes, estrogen, and progesterone d. Secondary oocytes, progesterone, and cortisol 6. What is the primary function of estrogen and progesterone in females during the menstrual cycle? a. Regulating ovulation b. Fueling sperm production. c. Fostering the maturation of female secondary traits. d. Fostering the maturation of female reproductive organs. 7. If GnRH production were blocked, which of the following would occur? I. Estrogen levels would increase II. Testosterone production would decrease  2 III. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels would decrease IV. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level would increase a. I and II b. II and III c. I, II, and IV d. II, III, and IV 8. Which of the following hormones is primarily produced in the testes and is responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics? a. Estrogen b.Testosterone c. Progesterone d. Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH) 9. What hormones regulate body metabolism and cause the storage of calcium in the bones? a. Estrogen and Progesterone c. Thymosin and Adrenaline b. Insulin, Glucagon d. Thyroxin, Calcitonin 10. Which hormone is responsible for the thickening of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle? a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. Prolactin d. Oxytocin 11. What do you call the monthly changes that take place in the female reproductive system? a. Fertilization b. Implantation c. Menstruation d. Reproduction 12. Which hormone plays a key role in providing negative feedback to the hypothalamic-pituitary system during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? a. Progesterone b.Estrogen c. Inhibin B d. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 13. What organ system connects all our body parts to transmit signals from one part to another? a. Endocrine c. Male Reproductive System b. Nervous d. Female Reproductive System 14. What might happen if there is no stimulus that may trigger a nerve impulse? I. Messages will not travel in both directions along the same neuron. II. An organism will not be able to survive. III. There will be no response made IV. Reaction time will increase. a. I and III b. I and II c. II and III d. II and IV 15. Which serves as the main processing center for the entire nervous system? a. Autonomic b. Central c. Peripheral d. Somatic 16. What nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA? a. Adenine b. Cytosine c. Uracil d. thymine 17. What is the amino acid sequence of the given base sequence? AUG – CAU – CAA – CGU – UGC – UGA Refer to this codon chart below. a. Start – his – gln – arg – cys – stop c. start – gln – his – arg – cys – stop b. start – his – glu – agr – cis – stop d. start – his – gln – arg – cys – tyr  3 18. What is the relationship between protein, the cell, and DNA? a. A cell is composed of DNA and protein. b. DNA controls the production of protein in the cell. c. DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell. d. Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell. 19. What is the first step in the process of protein synthesis? a. Translation b. Replication c. Transcription d. Elongation 20. What is the sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid called? a. Anticodon b. Codon c. Promoter d. Intron 21. What mutation has occurred here? T-G-A-C-C-A T-G-A-C-A a. Deletion b. Insertion c. Inversion d. Translocation 22. What are the two main types of genetic mutations? a. Silent and nonsense mutations b. Missense and frameshift mutations c. Dominant and recessive mutations d. Substitution and insertion/deletion mutations 23. How do mutations affect protein synthesis? a. It does not affect protein synthesis b. It can affect the rate of protein synthesis c. It can alter the amino acid sequence of proteins d. It can change the stability of proteins 24. Which type of mutation results in the replacement of one nucleotide with another? a. Insertion b. Deletion c. Substitution d. Frameshift 25. Which type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence of the resulting protein? a. Missense b. Nonsense c. Silent d. Frameshift 26. What is a fossil? a. providing climate information. b. serving as decorative items. c. indicating modern identification for the ecosystem. d. preserved part or trace of an organism that once lived. 27. What geological processes contribute to the formation of various types of fossils? I. Petrified fossils II. Mold fossils III. Cast Fossils IV. Trace fossils a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. I, II and III 28. What processes are involved in the formation of fossils? a. Volcanic activity, discharge of magma, lava flows, pyroclastic flows b. Photosynthesis, carbon assimilation, carbon fixation, photo assimilation c. Magnetic Resonance, nuclear magnetic resonance, magnetic resonance imaging d. Sedimentation, preservation in ice, preservation in amber, petrifaction, replacement, carbonization, and recrystallization. 29. Homologous structures are evidence of evolution because they: a. have the same function in different species b. have different structure, but the same function  4 c. are similar in structure but may have different functions, indicating common ancestry d. do not exist in living organisms 30. The presence of similar bone structures in the forelimbs of humans, bats, and whales is an example of a. Analogous structures c. Homologous structures b. Vestigial structures d. Convergent evolution 31. What is the primary driving force behind the occurrence of evolution? a. Environmental changes c. Natural selections b. Nonhereditary mutations d. Random Chance 32. Which of the following combination of the contributing factors involve in evolution process? I. Genetic mutations and natural selection II. Environmental changes and random chances III. Genetic drift and reproductive isolation IV. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration a. I and II b. II and III c. I and IV d. III and IV 33. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for natural selection to occur? a. Variation in traits within a population c. Unlimited resources b. Heritability of traits d. Differential survival and reproduction 34.The occurrence of evolution can be seen in antibiotic-resistant bacteria. This is an example of a. Artificial selection b. Genetic drift c. Natural selection d. Gene flow 35.Which of the following best explains how evolution occurs? a Organisms change due to their own efforts during their lifetime. b. Traits acquired during an organism's life are passed to offspring. c. Genetic variations that increase an organism's fitness are more likely to be passed on to the next generation. d. Evolution happens only when there is a sudden environmental change. 36. Which of the following is the reduction of species’ ability to survive and reproduce? a. Disunion b. Assortative mating c. Outbreeding d. Inbreeding 37. Which of these environmental problems are difficult to solve because of the unprecedented growing population in rural and urban areas? I. Forest fires IV. Kaingin farming II. Human settlements V. Natural calamities III. Indiscriminate logging VI. Overpopulation a. I and II b. I and III c. II and VI d. III and IV 38. Which of the following statements best describes how environmental changes affect the incidence of evolution in various species? a. directly causes genetic mutations. b. drive natural selection. c. result in random chance events. d. only impact species with rapid reproduction rates. 39. Which factor can decrease the probability of adaptation in a population? a. Large population size c. Genetic drift in small populations b. High mutation rates d. Frequent gene flow between populations  5 40. Which of the following increases the probability of survival for a species in rapidly changing environments? a. Low reproduction rates c. Inbreeding within the population b. A high rate of beneficial mutations d. Reduced genetic diversity 41. Which of the following refers to the maximum number of individuals of a certain species an environment can maintain in the long-term. a. Carrying Capacity b. Survival Capacity c. Building Capacity d.Leveling Capacity 42. What causes the population to grow? a. The birthrate turns out to be higher than the death rate. b. The birthrate remains the same, and the death rate rises. c. The birthrate reduces than the death rate. d. The birthrate and the death rate remain unchanged. 43. What typically happens to a population when it reaches its carrying capacity? a. The population continues to grow exponentially b. The population growth rate slows down and stabilizes c. The population immediately crashes to zero d. The carrying capacity increases indefinitely 44. Which of the following factors can cause the carrying capacity of an environment to change over time? a. Only the birth rate b. Changes in food availability, water supply, and habitat space c. The constant presence of predators d. The age structure of the population 45.What term describes the situation when a population exceeds its carrying capacity? a. Population equilibrium c. Population overshoot b. Underpopulation d. Sustainable growth 46. Which impact makes the environment less able to sustain life due to “human- induced rapid environmental changes.” a. Money Impact b. Elemental Impact c. Human Impact d. Survival Impact 47. Which of following are the drivers of human induced rapid environment changes? a. Tree planting, Utilization of Natural Resources and Birth Control b. Habitat Recovery, Garbage Reduction and Recycling c. habitat destruction, Population and Over-exploitation of Resources d. Using of renewable resources, reduction of plastic generation and correct segregation of waste 48. What would happen if the humans continued cutting down trees from the forest without replacing it? a. decrease in air pollution c. increase of paper supply in the market b. decrease in acid rainfall d. increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere 49. Which practice can help conserve water in households? a. Leaving the tap running while brushing teeth b. Fixing leaky faucets and using water-efficient appliances c. Watering the garden during the hottest part of the day d. Taking long showers every day 50. Why is composting considered an environmentally friendly practice? a. It reduces soil quality b. It helps reduce landfill waste by recycling organic materials c. It requires a lot of chemical fertilizers d. It emits toxic gases into the atmosphere.