SCB 203 LEC MIDTERM PDF
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This document contains questions that appear to be a review of previous quizzes for a biology course. The questions cover topics such as gross anatomy, cells, characteristics of living things, reactions, examples, and the study of tissues.
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*Questions on previous quizzes* *Mentioned as important in class* QUIZ 1 REVIEW: 1. Study of an organ by using your eyes and hands, you are studying? Gross anatomy 2. Which level of structural organization involves the smallest units of living...
*Questions on previous quizzes* *Mentioned as important in class* QUIZ 1 REVIEW: 1. Study of an organ by using your eyes and hands, you are studying? Gross anatomy 2. Which level of structural organization involves the smallest units of living matter? Cell 3. Characteristics of living things? a. Cellular composition: the cell is the basic unit of life - All living organisms exist as one or more cells. b. Metabolism: all chemical reactions of an organism - Reactions that “build up” and anabolic reactions - Reactions that “break down” and catabolic reactions (QUIZ) c. Growth: occurs when anabolism exceeds catabolism - It may increase the size of individual cells and/or the number of cells. - Example: if you earn money and don’t spend, you’re saving the money so the money you accumulate will grow: growth = anabolism > catabolism d. Excretion: removing wastes produced from metabolic processes e. Responsiveness: also known as irritability - Sense and reaction to changes in the environment f. Movement: motion inside and between cells, the motion of one or more cells, or, the motion of the organism itself g. Reproduction: creation 4. Examples of positive feedback and negative feedback in the human body. Positive feedback: when someone is going into labor and it’s having contractions Negative feedback: when the body is cold, it will shiver to retain some of the body temperature, it is going against what the body is initially doing 5. The study of tissue is histology, and the study of cells is cytology. True, tis = his, cell = cyto 6. Which part of the feedback loop receives information from the receptor? The control center 7. The human body has more positive than negative feedback loops. False, the human body has more negative than positive feedback loops 8. Function of the muscular system and integumentary system Muscular system: - Includes skeletal muscles - Functions: movement and body heat Integumentary system: - Hair, skin, nails - Functions: protection and regulate body temperature 9. Which biological molecule of the human body has the highest pH value? Ammonia 10. The ability of an organism to maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in the external environment is known as? Homeostasis 11. Which subatomic particle possesses a positive charge and which possesses a negative charge? Protons = positive, Electrons = negative 12. What subatomic particles are located in the nucleus? Protons and neutrons 13. Can there be several elements with the same atomic number? False 14. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom is? 2 electrons 15. An electrically neutral atom with an atomic number of 8 and a mass of 17 has how many protons? 8 protons 16. Example of potential and kinetic energy? Potential energy is just staying still and then storing the POTENTIAL energy that the object may have whereas kinetic energy is the object using the energy that was stored up during potential energy 17. Properties of enzymes. a. Speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy b. Specific for individual substrates and reactions c. Each has a unique active site that binds the substrate d. Does not alter reactants or products e. Not permanently altered in reaction f. Enzymes saturate g. Enzymes are proteins h. Most enzymes end in -ase 18. Example of an exchange reaction? AB + CD ⇾ AD + BC 19. Which type of mixture has visible particles that settle out? Suspensions (example: water and sand) 20. Increasing the temperature will increase the rate of a chemical reaction. True 21. The four major elements of the human body: Hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and nitrogen 22. Common element abbreviations? Iron, Calcium, Iodine, Chlorine, Magnesium, Carbon, etc Fe, Ca, I, Cl, Mg, C 23. Define molecule, compound, isotope, anion, and cation Molecule: two or more atoms chemically bonded together Compound: two or more different atoms chemically bonded together - All compounds are molecules but not all molecules are compounds Isotope: atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons (QUIZ) Anion: an ion with a negative charge Cation: an ion with a positive charge and is labeled as Na+ (QUIZ) 24. Buffer in the human body? The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system is one of the major buffers in the body - Buffers are chemical systems preventing large changes in pH. True 25. Hydrogen ion donor? Acid 26. Properties of water - Absorbs heat - Carries heat - Cushions and protects - Acts as a lubricant - Which property does water help in the lung to prevent friction? Water acts as a lubricant - The solvent is a liquid that dissolves the solute - Hydrophilic: water-loving, hydrophobic: water-hating 27. The atom’s energy shell contains the neutron. False, the shell contains the electrons 28. Electrolytes are ions formed from the dissociation of salts in solution True 29. Which type of bond equally shares electrons Nonpolar covalent bonds 30. Stable atoms have either 2 or 8 valence electrons. True 31. Which has a polar covalent bond? H2O 32. Which type of reaction is glucose + glucose = glycogen? Anabolic reactions 33. Which will decrease the rate of a reaction? Larger reactant size 34. Which pair of molecules are hydrophobic? Hydrocarbon bonds/carbon and hydrogen bonds 35. The chemical reaction: H2CO3 -> H + +HCO3- will it help prevent alkalosis? True ADDL NOTES: QUIZ 1: 1. The 7 properties of all organisms: a. Cellular composition b. Reproduction c. Growth d. Excretion e. Responsiveness f. Metabolism g. Movement 2. Smallest to largest - chemical → cellular → tissue → organ → organ system → organism 3. Gross anatomy (repeated) 4. Negative feedback loops > positive feedback loops (repeated) 5. Proton and neutron weigh 1, an electron is the smallest 6. 2 e, 8 e, 18 e 7. COHN 18, 65, 10, 3 8. Isotopes have the same protons but different neutrons (repeated) 9. Covalent bonds are the STRONGEST 10. Electrons that are shared equally are nonpolar covalent bonds 11. Water (H2O) is a polar covalent bond 12. Energy in food is chemical energy 13. Catabolic = deposition / Anabolic = synthesis AB → A + B A + B = AB 14. Enzymes (repeated) 15. Friction in the lungs is water as a lubricant 16. Acid: H+ donor, base: H+ acceptor 17. Blood is alkaline (7.4) 18. The more H+, the less pH / the less H+, the more pH 19. Hydrophilic: water-loving / hydrophobic: water-hating QUIZ 2 REVIEW: 1. Polypeptides, polysaccharides, nucleic acids, and triglycerides are formed by what kind of reaction? Condensation reactions / dehydration synthesis reactions 2. Facts about glucose, fructose, and galactose. Isomers of glucose. - Are isomers: have the same chemical formula, but a different structural formula - Glucose, fructose, and galactose have the molecular formula, C6H12C6 - Featured on quiz two: maltose is NOT an isomer of glucose 3. Major polysaccharides stored in the human body's skeletal muscle and liver? Glycogen 4. Facts about fatty acids? - Fatty acids are monomers of lipids 5. Saturated or trans fats are the “good fats” and are important for cardiovascular health. False 6. Which lipids are stored in fat cells for insulation, temperature regulation, and energy? Triglycerides 7. Facts about amino acids? - Amino acids are monomers of proteins - There are 20 different kinds - Each amino acid has: - A central carbon attached to an amino (NH2) group - Carboxylic acid (-COOH) group - Unique R group - R groups vary widely in complexity and properties 8. Which chemical reaction joins monomers together? Dehydration synthesis reactions by special covalent bonds 9. The simplest sugar? Glucose 10. Parts of a nucleotide? Nucleotides: monomers of nucleic acids (RNA, DNA) and ATP Nucleotides are composed of 3 parts: (QUIZ) - A nitrogenous base a. Nitrogen-containing molecule with a hydrocarbon ring structure i. Purines and pyrimidines - A pentose sugar b. 5 carbons c. May be ribose or deoxyribose - A phosphate d. Covalently bound to pentose sugar e. Nucleotides may have one, two, or three phosphate groups 11. Which type of bond holds together the two strands of DNA? A hydrogen bond and is composed of 2 long strands of nucleotides that trist forming a double helix 12. A fatty acid that contains no double covalent bonds is: A saturated fat - No double bonds and most are animal fats - Palmitic acid (C16H32O2) is a saturated fatty acid 13. Characteristics of carbohydrates: - Organic molecules compose and “hydrate” (hydrogen and oxygen) - Many carbohydrates end in -ose - Includes sugars (glucose and fructose) - Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are close to a 1:2:1 ratio - May exist as monosaccharides (1 sugar), disaccharides (2 sugars), and polysaccharides (many) 14. Which is correct about transcription? A. It occurs in the cytoplasm. B. It produces ribosomal RNA. C. It requires an RNA polymerase. D. It removes the exons. 15. The monomer of the lipid: Fatty acids 16. Mutation- definition, Mutagen-examples Mutation: a single nucleotide change may cause a change in amino acid (QUIZ) Common mutagens are UV light, radiation, chemicals, and viruses - QUIZ: what are some common mutagens? 17. Difference between DNA and RNA DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): blueprint to make all proteins of the human body a. Composed of 2 long strands of nucleotides that twist forming a double helix b. Confined to nucleus RNA: (ribonucleic acid): a. The task of assembling the correct amino acid sequence b. Not confined to nucleus c. Consists of a single strand of nucleotides d. No thymine in RNA, replaced by uracil e. Most important role of RNA: Involved with transcription (copying of a gene) and translation (converting it into amino acids) 18. Important points about the plasma membrane: Plasma membrane: Provides: - Structural support - Communication - Cell identification - Separates extracellular and intracellular spaces 19. Endomembrane system? Endomembrane system: composed of endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and lysosomes - Forms vesicles that exchange proteins and other molecules - Allows for synthesis, modification, and packaging of molecules produced by cell 20. Phagocytosis? Phagocytosis for particles a. Cells ingest large particles (bacteria, dead body cells or parts of cell) b. Only phagocytes of immune system carry out phagocytosis Featured on quiz two: all cells carry out phagocytosis. False. 21. Sodium potassium pump? A type of active transport (using cash) a. Also known as the Na+/K+ ATPase. Major primary active transport pump i. Pump bings 3 Na+ from cytosol ii. ATP is hydrolyzed iii. Pump releases 3 Na+ into ECF and binds 2 K+ iv. Pump releases 2 K+ into cytosol 22. Which organelle has a function for calcium storage? Smooth ER 23. Which cytoskeletal protein is rope-like with keratin being an example Intermediate filaments 24. Organelle which is membranous sac containing water and acid hydrolases for digestive function? Lysosome 25. Which cellular extension increases surface area in cells specialized for absorption such as in the kidney and small intestine. Microvilli 26. Protein denaturation? Denaturation is the process by which a protein loses its 3D structure and function due to external factors such as heat, pH, or chemicals 27. Function of the plasma membrane proteins? - Enzymatic activity - Signal transduction - Cell recognition - Attachment to the cytoskeleton Featured on quiz two: which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma membrane proteins? Stabilizing temperature Other options: acting as channels, acting as carriers, acting as enzymes 28. The resting membrane potential Consequence of ion transport across plasma membrane Movement of ions produces unequal concentrations between cytosol and SCF Charges separate across plasma membrane Positive outside with negative inside 29. Characteristic of organic molecule? Contain a carbon and hydrogen atom Featured on quiz two: which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organic molecule? Usually hydrophobic Other options: produced by living organisms, almost always contain carbon and nitrogen, larger and complex 30. Examples of steroid? Examples are testosterone, estrogen, aldosterone, and cortisol 31. Organic compound that include DNA and RNA? Nucleic acid 32. What type of polar covalent bond links amino acids? Peptide bond 33. The primary source of chemical energy in the body comes from Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) 34. Three main parts of a cell? Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus 35. Function of the plasma membrane? Provides structural support, communication, and cell identification 36. Which is “cell drinking”? Pinocytosis for fluids PINOcolada = PINOcytosis 37. Purine, Pyrimidine Purine: AG Pyrimidine: CT (U in RNA) 38. Cytosol is also known as: Intracellular fluid 39. Which describes the process of mRNA to Protein? a. Translation. b. Transcription. c. Transformation. d. Transition. 40. Membrane bound organelles and nonmembrane organelles Membrane-bound: - Mitochondria - Peroxisome - Smooth ER - Rough ER - Golgi apparatus - Lysosome Nonmembrane bound: - Ribosomes - Centrosomes - Centrioles 41. Difference between Rough ER and Smooth ER Smooth ER: large folded membrane surrounding nucleus - Without ribosomes - Functions: - Calcium storage - QUIZ: which organelle helps to store calcium? - Detoxification - Lipid synthesis - Lipids taken by vesicles to golgi apparatus - Rough ER: large folded membrane surrounding nucleus - Bound with ribosomes - Functions: - Folds polypeptides into 3-dimensional shape - Enzymes attach sugars to form glycoproteins - Proteins packaged into vesicles and sent to golgi apparatus - Synthesizes cholesterol and phospholipids ADDL NOTES: QUIZ 2: 1. Isomers: have the same chemical formula, but a different structural formula 2. Glycogen is primarily stored in the liver and skeletal muscle 3. Lipids: includes fats and oils with only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen - The carbon and hydrogen ratio is close to 1:2 with less oxygen than carbohydrates - Example: C16H32O2 (whether carbon is greater in lipids or carbohydrates) 4. Monomers of lipids (QUIZ: What are the monomers of lipids? Fatty acids) 5. Saturated a. No double bonds and most are animal fats b. Each carbon is attached to the maximum number of hydrogen atoms c. Palmitic acid (C16H32O2) is a saturated fatty acid 6. Triglycerides are stored in fat cells for insulation, temperature regulation, and energy 7. Steroids all have 4 rings and are derived from cholesterol a. Examples are testosterone, estrogen, aldosterone, and cortisol 8. Amino acids are monomers of proteins 9. Peptides/peptide bonds: amino acid monomers linked by dehydration synthesis reactions by special covalent bonds a. What type of covalent bonds are there to join the amino acids? Peptides b. Dehydration reaction results in the formation of a peptide that is joined by a peptide bond that produces an H2O molecule i. This peptide is composed of two amino acids and is called a dipeptide ii. A dipeptide is held together by one peptide bond 10. Polypeptides: protein of 10 or more amino acids 11. Primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary (only for quaternary: found in proteins with more than one polypeptide chain) 12. Proteins Denature: QUIZ: How is the protein made, or broken down? Due to heat, pH, and chemicals) Loss of shape due to heat, pH, and chemicals - Protein function is lost - Enzymes lose the ability to bind substrates and carry out functions 13. Nucleotides: monomers of nucleic acids (RNA, DNA) and ATP Nucleotides are composed of 3 parts: (QUIZ) - A nitrogenous base - Nitrogen-containing molecule with a hydrocarbon ring structure - Purines and pyrimidines - A pentose sugar - 5 carbons - May be ribose or deoxyribose - A phosphate - Covalently bound to pentose sugar - Nucleotides may have one, two, or three phosphate groups 14. QUIZ: What is the primary source of chemical energy in our body? ATP 15. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): blueprint to make all proteins of the human body a. Composed of 2 long strands of nucleotides that trist forming a double helix b. Confined to nucleus 16. Genetic Code: Most important role of DNA: a. Receipt in DNA for every protein in human body 17. No thymine in RNA, replaced by uracil (AT becomes AU) 18. Most important role of RNA: Involved with transcription (copying of a gene) and translation (converting it into amino acids) 19. new DNA strands are made using old DNA strands as a template with enzyme DNA polymerase 20. Protein synthesis is divided into transcription and translation 21. Transcription: is copied creating a molecule of messenger RNA (mRNA) a. To copy 22. Translation: ribosomes read mRNA and synthesize a polypeptide chain a. To read and understand 23. Common mutagens are UV light, radiation, chemicals, and viruses a. QUIZ: what are some common mutagens? 24. Mutation: a single nucleotide change may cause a change in amino acid (QUIZ) 25. Transcription: synthesis of a complementary copy of a gene - (QUIZ: what is the definition of transcription?) 26. Ribosomes: non-membrane bounded organelles and site of translation 27. Membrane-bound and nonmembrane-bound organelles ^^ 28. Calcium storage a. QUIZ: Which organelle helps to store calcium? Smooth ER b. Lysosome: Digest nutrients, old organelles, and cells 29. Microvilli a. Increases surface area in cells specialized for absorption (kidney and small intestine) b. Surface area may increase up to 40 times QUIZ 3 REVIEW: 1. Function of epithelial tissues. - Protection - Immune defenses - Secretion - Transport - Sensation 2. ECM of epithelial tissue is located in the: Basement membrane 3. What is the free surface of an epithelial tissue? Apical surface 4. What protein makes stratified epithelial tissues tough and resistant to friction? Keratin 5. Epithelium is classified by the number of cell layers and the shape of the cells. T/F True 6. Which cell junction contains protein channels in adjacent plasma membranes that allow substances to pass from one cell to another cell? Gap junctions - Protein channels in adjacent plasma membranes - Allow substances to pass from one cell to another 7. Which term best describes the movement of substances between cells? Paracellular transport 8. When observing a tissue slide under a microscope: a. you identify a single layer of flattened cells. Which epithelial tissue type is most likely present? Simple squamous epithelium b. you identify multiple layers of tall cells. Which epithelial tissue type is most likely present? i. Stratified columnar epithelium 9. Functions of connective tissue. - Connecting and binding - Support - Protection - Transport 10. Types of connective tissue proper? - Loose conneective tissue - Dense connective tissue - Dense regular connective tissue - Dense regular collagenous connective tissue - Dense regular elastic connective tissue - Dense irregular connective tissue Reticular connective tissue Adipose (fat) connective tissue 11. Function of reticular fibers. Location of reticular tissue? - Reticular fibers and supports blood and lymphatic vessels - Traps old and foreign cells in lymph nodes and spleen Location: - Basement membrane of epithelial - Liver - Bone marrow 12. Which mature cell has the properties of an immature cell? Fibroblasts 13. a. Types of protein fibers: Collagen, Elastic, and Reticular. b. What type of protein fiber, commonly found in the extracellular matrix, is extensible? Elastic fibers 14. Which tissue type would most likely be found under epithelial tissue? Connective tissue 15. Which cells are phagocytes of the immune system? Macrophages, monocytes, and neutrophils 16. Resident cells and Migrant cells example: Resident cells: Migrant: Fibroblasts Neutrophils Mast cells Monocytes Macrophages (either or) 17. Specialized Connective tissue? Blood, bone, cartilage 18. Types of cartilage? Elastic cartilage location? Cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic. External ear and parts of larynx 19. Which type of cartilage forms most of the fetal skeleton? Hyaline cartilage 20. Compare the 3 types of muscles: Striations, Number of nuclei, Voluntary/Involuntary Skeletal: Smooth: Cardiac: Cylindrical Spindle-shaped Branching Multinucleated Single nucleus Single nucleus Striations present Absent Present Voluntary Involuntary Involuntary Attached to bones Internal organs Heart Intercalated disc absent Absent Present 21. Nervous tissue, neurons, and neuroglial cells. Nervous tissue: location: brain, spinal cord, and nerves Neurons: send and receive information through electrical signals Neuroglial cells: perform supportive functions 22. Tissue repair/ healing: Regeneration, fibrosis. Where does fibrosis occur? Regeneration - Damaged cells are replaced with the same types of cells - Epithelial tissue - Connective tissues except cartilage - Smooth muscle - The function is completely restored Fibrosis - Some tissues are incapable of full regeneration - Fibroblasts divide and use collagen to fix injuries - Results in scar tissue - a type of dense irregular connective tissue - Cartilage is only connective tissue - Cardiac and skeletal muscle - Nervous tissue - Does not regain the ability to function normally Fibrosis can occur in the heart, lungs, liver, kidneys, skin, bone marrow, and brain 23. True membranes? Membranes like structure, Serous membranes, examples? True membranes: Membrane-like structures: Do not open to outside of body Opens or lines external body surface Examples: Examples: - Serous membranes - Mucous membranes - Synovial membranes - Cutaneous membranes Serous Membranes (serosae): - Lines pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal body cavities - Lungs, heart, abdominal cavity - Consists of - Mesothelium (simple squamous epithelium) - Basement membrane - Loose connective tissue 24. Functions of the skin. - Protection - From mechanical damage - From pathogens - From environment - Sensation - Thermoregulation - Excretion - Vitamin D synthesis 25. Most superficial component of the skin: Epidermis: Most superficial of epidermis: stratum corneum 26. Derivatives of the epidermis? Nails, skin, and hair 27. Which layer of the epidermis is found only in thick skin? Stratum lucidum Only in thick skin of palms and feet QUIZ: what skin is present in your palms and feet? Lucidum) 28. Functions of vitamin D? - Skin converts cholesterol into vitamin D precursor - UV light converts precursor into cholecalciferol that enters the blood stream - Liver modifies cholecalciferol - Kidneys form calcitriol (active form of vitamin D) 29. Dermis: Layers of dermis, Tactile (Meissner) corpuscles, Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles. - Deeper to epidermis - Highly vascularized Functions: - Blood supply for epidermis - Sensory receptors - Anchors - Epidermis Divided into papillary and reticular layers: 2 layers: Papillary layer: Superficial and thinner layer of dermis - Composed of loose connective tissue - Collagen fibers anchor the epidermis in place - Tactile (Meissner) corpuscles: found in the dermal papillae are sensory receptors for light touch. Greatest in fingertips, lips, face, and external genitalia Reticular layer: - Deeper and thicker layer - Lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles responds to pressure and vibration 30. Which unicellular gland is responsible for mucus secretion? Goblet cell 31. Which gland produces a protein-rich sweat and is found in the axillae, anal area, and areola. Apocrine gland 32. Mammary gland is a specialized sweat gland. T/F True, specialized sweat glands that produce milk 33. Sweat glands are absent in the palm and sole. T/F. Hair is absent in palm and sole. T/F False, sweat glands are present in the palm and sole True, hair is absent in the palm and sole 34. Uses of The ABCDE rule, ABCDE rule of malignant melanoma? ABCDE Rule of Malignant Melanoma: A: asymmetrical shape B: border irrehularity C: color (blue-black or variety) D: diameter (large > 6 mm) E: evolving (changing shape and size) 35. Incisions perpendicular to tension lines heal faster with less scarring than if parallel to them. T/F False, incisions parallel heal faster than incisions that are perpendicular 36. Epidermal ridges. Fingerprints are unique. T/F True 37. Melanocytes: Melanin. Different skin color: Erythema, Cyanosis, Jaundice. Melanin is the primary skin pigment Erythema: red skin due to increased blood flow in exercise of trauma Pallor: white skin due to decreased blood flow and the appearance of collagen Cyanosis: blue skin due to low oxygen turning hemoglobin reddish purple Jaundice: yellow skin due to liver dysfunction 38. Degree of burn. Uses of Rule of Nine? First: - Only epidermis damaged - Erytherma occurs with minor pain - No blisters or permanent change Second: - Involved epidermis and parts of dermis - Significant pain, blistering, and possible scarring - Requires medical attention Third: - Involves epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, and possibly deeper tissues - Usually not painful - Major tissue damage, dehydration, swelling, and risk of infection - May require skin grafting Body divided into 11 areas to estimate percentage of affected body surface ADDL NOTES: QUIZ 3: 1. Three: protein fibers: Collagen, elastic, reticular 2. Three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic 3. Serous membranes: line pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal body cavities 4. Stratum lucidum - Only in thick skin of palms and feet - QUIZ: what skin is present in your palms and feet? Lucidum) 5. Melanocytes: - Located in stratum basale - Produces melanin an orange-red to brown-black pigment 6. Dermis: Divided into papillary and reticular layers: 2 layers: Papillary layer: Superficial and thinner layer of dermis - Composed of loose connective tissue - Collagen fibers anchors epidermis in place Reticular layer: Deeper and thicker layer Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles responds to pressure and vibration 7. Tension (cleavage) lines: - Indentations of epidermis form gaps between bundles of collagen - Clinically important since incisions parallel to tension lines heal faster with less scarring than if perpendicular to them 8. Skin glands: Apocrine (certain area of body) - Axilla, anal area, and areole of breast 9. ABCDE Rule of Malignant Melanoma: A: asymmetrical shape B: border irrehularity C: color (blue-black or variety) D: diameter (large > 6 mm) E: evolving (changing shape and size) MIDTERM: 1. Protein channels situated between cells and create small pores for the passage of small substances are: (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Gap junctions 2. Metabolism is all the chemical reactions of the human body. T/F True - Metabolism: all chemical reactions of an organism 3. a. The smallest unit of life? Cells b. Group of similar cells that perform a common function? Tissue c. The study of tissue is called? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Histology 4. Study the overall structure and shape of a bone without the aid of a microscope. This is a study known as: (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Gross anatomy 5. Excretion? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1 - A characteristic of a living thing. - Also, includes cellular composition, metabolism, growth, responsiveness, movement, and reproduction. - Excretion: removing wastes produced from metabolic processes 6. Which organ system supports the body and protects internal organs? The skeletal system 7. Which organ system functions through hormones? The endocrine system - Functions: regulates body functions through hormones 8. Homeostasis: Define Homeostasis: the maintenance of the body’s internal environment 9. a. Skin colors? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Erythema: red skin due to increased blood flow in exercise of trauma Pallor: white skin due to decreased blood flow and the appearance of collagen Jaundice: yellow skin due to liver dysfunction b. Cyanosis signify? Cyanosis: blue skin due to low oxygen turning hemoglobin reddish purple c. Yellow-orange skin pigment is produced by? Carotene: - Yellow-orange pigment from vegetables accumulates in the stratum corneum - Promotes slight yellow-orange color in thick skin 10. Which organ system involves the regulation of body functions through hormones? The endocrine system (REPEATED) 11. The type of feedback that increases or enhances the effects of the variable is:(REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Positive feedback (most are negaitve feedback loops) 12. Where does the process of translating mRNA into protein occur? Translation: ribosomes read mRNA and synthesize a polypeptide chain - Translation occurs in the ribosomes 13. Colloid, Suspension. Example of suspension. (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Colloids: two distinct components - Appears opaque with particles NOT visible - Particles do not settle out - Examples are milk and cytosol Suspensions: liquid and solid - Particles visible and settle out - Examples are water and sand 14. The four most common elements, comprising 96% of the body’s mass, are: - Hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen 15. An Atom has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost shell)? 7 electrons (2, 8, 7) 16. a. What does the H in the pH scale represent? Power of Hydrogen b. Pure water pH? Pure water pH: 7 17. Factors that increase the rate of a reaction? - Concentration - Temperature - Reactant properties - Presence or absence of a catalyst 18. a. Exchange reaction? Exchange reactions: one or more atoms switch places AB + CD ⇾ AD + BC b. What reaction occurs when digesting food breaks large food particles into smaller particles? Catabolic reactions: larger substances broken down into smaller ones. Also, called deposition reactions. AB ⇾ A + B Example: breakdown of nutrients in the food we eat (carbohydrates ⇾ glucose ) 19. Which feedback functions when we sweat to reduce body temperature in hot conditions? Negative feedback loop 20. Formation of Glucose from Carbohydrate is an example of? Catabolic reactions: larger substances broken down into smaller ones. Also, called deposition reactions. AB ⇾ A + B Example: breakdown of nutrients in the food we eat (carbohydrates ⇾ glucose) 21. Which of the following is an organic compound? List properties and some examples Molecules with mostly carbon and hydrogen Molecules produced by living organisms Usually larger and more complex than inorganic compounds Simplest are hydrocarbons - Hydrocarbons: contain only hydrogen and carbon 22. a. Which biological catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction? Biological catalysts are called enzymes b. Enzyme functions? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy Specific for individual substrates and reactions Each has a unique active site that binds the substrate Does not alter reactants or products Not permanently altered in reaction Enzymes saturate Enzymes are proteins Most enzymes end in -ase 23. Ion: Cation? Anion? Na+ is an example of? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1) Cation: an ion with a positive charge and is labeled as Na+ Anion: an ion with a negative charge 24. Which subatomic particle carries a negative charge? Electron 25. How many electrons are in the outermost shell of an atom with 15 electrons? 5 electrons (2, 8, 5) 26. The innermost shell of an atom holds: 2 electrons 27. Atomic number? An atom of iron has an atomic number of 26, how many protons does it carry? 26 protons. Atomic number = number of protons 28. Two or more atoms of the same element that are chemically combined are known as: Molecules: two or more atoms chemically bonded together - May include the same or different atoms 29. The formation of a cation and an anion is indicative of an ionic bond. T/F True 30. Amino acid is the monomer of Protein. T/F (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 2) True, amino acids make up proteins 31. A mixture could be in the gas form: T/F True, Solutions: consists of solid, liquid, and gas mixed with a liquid 32. A saline solution consists of both salt and water. What is the solute here? Salt (solute: what is in the solvent, solvent: what the solute goes in) 33. Three main parts of a cell? The main structural components of cell membranes are: (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 2) - Nucleus, plasma membrane, cytoplasm - The main structural components are phospholipids and proteins 34. Two types of active transport via vesicles are endocytosis and exocytosis. T/F True, 2 main types of vesicular transport 35. What is NOT part of the endomembrane system? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 2) Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, and lysosomes (going to the ER, Good Luck) 36. The cellular extension of a cell that has a long tail, moves in a whip-like manner: Flagella - Long extensions move in whip-like manner - Sperm only cell in human body with flagellum 37. Where does the process of translating mRNA into protein occur? (REPEATED) Translation: ribosomes read mRNA and synthesize a polypeptide chain - Translation occurs in the ribsosomes 38. A process that requires energy to move a substance against a concentration gradient is called: Active transport 39. What is transported across a membrane during osmosis? Water 40. Types of connective tissue cells? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Resident cells: Migrant: Fibroblasts Neutrophils Mast cells Monocytes Macrophages (either or) 41. Location of hyaline cartilage: (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) External ear and larynx 42. What tissue composes the reticular layer of the dermis? Dense irregular connective tissue Found in: - Dermis - Around organs - Joints 43. a. Glands: Endocrine glands. Includes pituitary gland and pancreas Functions: regulates body functions through hormones b. Which gland produces ear wax? Ceruminous - Modified apocrine glands located in ear - Secrete cerumen (ear wax) into hair follicles 44. a. Single layer of flat epithelial cells called? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Simple squamous epithelium b. Multiple layers of tall epithelial cells called? Stratified columnar epithelium 45. Serous membranes serve to lubricate an organ so it can move without friction. T/F (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 1 & 3) True - Serous membranes surrounding lungs, heart, and abdominal organs reduce resistance as organs move - Which property does water help in the lung to prevent friction? Water acts as a lubricant 46. What type of membrane lines cavities that open to the outside of the body? Mucous and cutaneous membrane 47. a. Function of the skin? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Protection (from mechanical damage, pathogens, environment), excretion, thermoregulation, sensation, vitamin D synthesis b. Thick skin lacks: Thick skin last hair follicles 48. Vitamin D functions? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Found online: - Calcium balance, muscle health, immune defenses, nerve communication 49. Function of collagen fibers? Collagen fibers anchors epidermis in place in the papillary layer 50. The superficial layer of the dermis is? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Papillary dermis 51. What tissue composes the reticular layer of the dermis? (REPEATED) Dense irregular connective tissue Found in: - Dermis - Around organs - Joints 52. We have unique patterns on our fingers, toes, palms, and soles created by Epidermal ridges: unique patterns for every individual 53. a. Melanin is produced upon exposure to? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) UV light b. ABCDE rule of malignant melanoma? ABCDE Rule of Malignant Melanoma: A: asymmetrical shape B: border irrehularity C: color (blue-black or variety) D: diameter (large > 6 mm) E: evolving (changing shape and size) 54. Collagen fibers help bone resist twisting, pulling, or stretching forces. T/F True 55. Which cells participate in the process of bone deposition? Osteoblasts: build up the bone: - Builds bone and mature into osteocytes - Derived from osteogenic cells (build up the cell) - OsteoBlasts Build Bone 56. Which structures in a bone persist for life? Found online: articular cartilage 57. Epiphyseal plate. Bones lengthen due to chondrocytes at the epiphyseal plate Epiphyseal plate: - Hyaline cartilage that did not ossify - 5 different zones of cells - Zone of reserve cartilage (closest to epiphyses) not involved in bone growth 58. Which dietary requirement for bone can be made by skin exposure to UV light? (REPEATED FROM QUIZ 3) Vitamin D 59. Bone growth and remodeling depends on adequate intake of calcium, vit C, and vit K. T/F True 60. Blood cells are made in the red bone marrow of bones, a process known as: Hematopoiesis: formation of blood cells, occurs in red bone marrow 61. Bones with a diaphysis and epiphyses are classified as: Long bones - Most bones of arms, legs, hands, feet, fingers, and toes 62. What stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? Receptor: parathyroid gland cells detect a low blood calcium level Control center: parathyroid gland cells release PTH into the blood Effector/response: osteoclasts resorb bone/kidneys retain calcium/intestines absorb calcium 63. Parathyroid hormone will decrease blood calcium levels. T/F False, parathyroid hormone will INCREASE blood calcium levels 64. a. Function of the skeletal system? - Protection - Mineral storage - Acid-base homeostasis - Blood cell formation - Fat storage - Movement - Support b. 5 types of bones: - Flat, long, short, irregular, sesamoid (sesame seed) 65. The bones of the arms and legs are long: T/F True 66. Components of an osteon? - Osteon, endosteum, circumferential lamellae, concentric lamellae, interstitial lamellae, perforating canals, perforating fibers, periosteum, central canal, trabeculae of spongy bone 67. Bone is the most important storehouse for: Bone is a store house for calcium, phosphate, salts 68. The hard, dense bone that forms the outer surface of bones is: Compact bone 69. a. Fracture: Simple, Compound. Simple or compound fractures - Simple fractures but skin and tissue remain intact - Compound fractures involve damage around the fracture b. Types of fracture? - Spiral - Resulting from twisting forces applied to bone - Comminuted - Bone is shattered into multiple fragments - Greenstick - Bone breaks on one side but only bends on the other - Common in children - Compression - Bone is crushed under the weight it supports - Common in the elderly and those with reduced bone mass - Avulsion - Tendon or ligament pulls a fragment of bone - Often seen in ankle fractures - Epiphyseal plate - Involved part of epiphyseal plate - Occurs in children and young adults - May interfere with growth c. Which type of fracture is common in children and the bone breaks on one side but only bends on the other? Greenstick - Bone breaks on one side but only bends on the other - Common in children 70. a. Appositional growth. Appositional growth - What do you call a bone growing in width? Appositional growth b. Factors needed for normal bone growth? Found online: vitamins, minerals, growth factors, physical activity ADDL NOTES: LECTURE 16-17: 1. Skeletal System Functions: (REPEATED) Which of the following is or is not a function of the skeletal system? QUIZ 2. Hematopoiesis: formation of blood cells, occurs in red bone marrow a. Hema: blood, poiesis: formation/production 3. Most bones of arms, legs, hands, feet, fingers, and toes (REPEATED) 4. Long bones have epiphysis and diaphysis (REPEATED) a. QUIZ: true or false 5. Bone is a storehouse for calcium, phosphate, salts (REPEATED) 6. What do you call a bone growing in width? Appositional growth 7. Greenstick a. Bone breaks on one side but only bends on the other b. Common in children 8. Ligaments: - Dense regular collagenous connective tissue - Connect bones Tendons: - Composed of dense regular collagenous connective tissue - Connect skeletal muscle to a bone - Also, stabilize joints 9. Contractibility - Only present in muscle cells 10. Ensomysium 11. Three types of myofilaments: Thick filaments (talis) - Composed of the contractile protein myosin - Myosin has two globular heads and two intertwining tails - Myosin heads extend from tail on a neck - Neck is flexible where it meets the rail at the hinge - Need to know myosin for thick filaments Thin filaments (actin, tropomyosin, troponin) Elastic filaments (titin) What is titin? It is an elastic filament. QUIZ 12. The functional unit of contraction - What is the functional unit of contraction? The sarcomere QUIZ