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mandystudies

Uploaded by mandystudies

University of Toronto

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medical review questions digestive system medical physiology medicine

Summary

This document contains review questions and answers on various medical topics, including digestive system function, disease processes, and clinical management. The questions cover topics such as the location of the stomach's antrum, bile release, and complications of peptic ulcers, among others.

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**[REVIEW QUESTIONS WEEK 1]** 1. Where is the antrum of the stomach located? a. Near the esophagus b. In the middle of the stomach c. **Near the pylorus** d. In the duodenum 2. Where is bile released during digestion? e. **Duodenum** f. Esophagus g. Stom...

**[REVIEW QUESTIONS WEEK 1]** 1. Where is the antrum of the stomach located? a. Near the esophagus b. In the middle of the stomach c. **Near the pylorus** d. In the duodenum 2. Where is bile released during digestion? e. **Duodenum** f. Esophagus g. Stomach h. Large intestine 3. What is the name of the sphincter that separates the esophagus from the stomach? i. Pyloric sphincter j. **Lower esophageal sphincter** k. Ileocecal valve l. Urethral sphincter 4. The most common site for peptic ulcers is? m. **Duodenum** n. Antrum (of the stomach) o. Fundus (of the stomach) p. Esophagus 5. What is the most common complication of PUD? q. Esophageal stricture r. **Hemorrhage** s. Perforation t. Pyloric obstruction 6. GERD is a result of: u. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid v. **A zone of low pressure of the LES** w. Presence of H. pylori in the esophagus x. Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus 7. In managing the symptoms with GERD, the nurse should assign the highest priority to which of the following interventions? y. Decrease daily intake of vegetables and water, and ambulate frequently z. Drink coffee diluted with milk at each meal, and remain in an upright position for 30 mins a. **Eat small, frequent meals, and remain in an upright position for at least 30 mins after eating** b. Avoid over-the-counter drugs that have antacids in them 8. The most common cause of duodenal ulcers is: c. Hypersecretion of gastric acid d. Hyposecretion of pepsin e. **H. pylori** f. E. Coli 9. A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note: g. **Yellow sclerae** h. Light amber urine i. Circumoral pallor j. Black, tarry stools 10. Which of the following best describes Murphy's sign? k. Periumbilical ecchymosis exists l. On deep palpation and release, pain is elicited m. **On deep palpation, pain is elicited and breathing stops** n. Abdominal muscles are tightened in anticipation of palpation 11. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of acute pancreatitis? o. Right lower quadrant pain p. **Mid-epigastric pain radiating to the back** q. Pain relieved by eating r. Chronic cough 12. Which laboratory test is most specific for diagnosing acute pancreatitis? s. Serum amylase t. **Serum lipase** u. Liver function tests v. Complete blood count (CBC) 13. What is the preferred initial imaging modality for evaluating suspected acute pancreatitis? w. MRI x. **Abdominal ultrasound** y. Chest x-ray z. PET scan **REVIEW QUESTIONS WEEK 2** 1. Which of the following proteins is primarily synthesized by the liver? a. Insulin b. Hemoglobin c. **Albumin** d. Immunoglobulins 2. Which of the following statements correctly describes the blood supply to the liver? e. the hepatic artery provides most of the liver's blood supply f. **the hepatic portal vein provides most of the liver's blood supply** g. all of the blood supply to the liver comes from the hepatic artery h. the hepatic artery and the hepatic portal vein each provide 50% of the liver's blood supply 3. which of the following substances is primarily detoxified by the liver? i. Bilirubin j. Creatinine k. **Ammonia** *(forms urea)* l. Lactate 4. Which of the following clinical manifestations is most characteristic of chronic hepatitis? m. Dark urine n. Jaundice o. **Palmar erythema** p. Nausea and vomiting 5. Which of the following classes of medications is commonly used in treatment of chronic hepatitis B? q. Nucleotide analogs r. Protease inhibitors s. NS5A inhibitors t. **Nucleoside analogs** 6. Which of the following hepatitis viruses are preventable through vaccination in Canada? u. Hep A & B v. **Hep A, B and D** w. Hep A, B, C, and D x. Hep A & D 7. Hepatic fat accumulation is seen in which form of cirrhosis? y. Biliary cirrhosis z. Hepatitis-C related cirrhosis a. Postnecrotic cirrhosis b. **Alcoholic cirrhosis** 8. The most common clinical manifestation of portal HTN is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bleeding c. Rectal d. Duodenal e. **Esophageal** f. Intestinal 9. Which of the following is a key management strategy for managing cirrhosis? g. High-fat diet to improve energy levels h. Regular use of broad-spectrum antibiotics to prevent infections i. **Diuretics and sodium restriction to manage ascites** j. Routine administration of corticosteroids to reduce liver **REVIEW QUESTIONS WEEK 3** 1. Which cranial nerve is responsible for pupil constriction? a. Cranial nerve II b. **Cranial nerve III** c. Cranial nerve IV d. Cranial nerve VI 2. Which layer of the meninges is the innermost and closely adheres to the surface of the brain? e. Dura mater f. Arachnoid mater g. **Pia mater** h. Epidural space 3. What is the primary effect of increased levels of CO2 on cerebral blood vessels? i. Vasoconstriction j. **Vasodilation** k. No effect l. Inc blood viscosity 4. What is the earliest indicator of increased ICP? m. **Change in level of consciousness (LOC)** n. Headache o. Vomiting p. Seizures 5. Which ocular change is considered an emergency and indicates potential brain herniation in a patient with increased ICP? q. Blurred vision r. Diplopia (double vision) s. **Fixed, dilated pupil** t. Sluggish response to light 6. A nurse is assessing a pt using the GSC. The pt opens their eyes only in response to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from pain. What is the pt's GCS score? u. 6 v. 7 w. **8** x. 9 - Note: 2(eyes) + 2 (verbal) + 4 (pain) = 8 = intubate (threshold for intubation) 7. A nurse is caring for a pt with post concussion syndrome (PCS). Which of the following are common symptoms associated with this condition? (SATA) y. Long-term memory loss z. **Persistent headache** a. **Difficulty concentrating** b. **Sensitivity to light and noise** 8. A patient presents with a head injury and a period of lucidity followed by a rapid decline in consciousness. Which type of hematoma is most likely? c. Subdural hematoma d. **Epidural hematoma** e. Intracerebral hematoma f. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 9. Which type of brain injury is characterized by widespread damage to the brain's white matter, particularly the axons? g. Concussion h. Epidural hematoma i. **Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)** j. Subarachnoid hemorrhage 10. A nurse is caring for a patient w a suspected transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to find? k. Persistent headache l. **Unilateral weakness** m. Hemiplegia n. Fixed and dilated pupils 11. A nurse is assessing a pt with right-brain damage following a stroke. Which of the following findings is most likely? o. **Impaired speech and language** p. Right-sided neglect q. Impulsive behaviour r. Slow and cautious performance 12. A pt is prescribed Clopidogrel (Plavix) for stroke prevention. Which statement by the pt indicates need for further teaching? s. "I will take this medication to prevent my platelets from clumping together" t. "the effects of this medication will last for about a week after I stop taking it" u. "I can take this medication with aspirin if my doctor advises" v. **"I can stop taking this medication whenever I feel better"**

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