Psychology 1F90 Progress Examination PDF

PSYCHOLOGY 1F90December 11, xxxxPage 1 of 24 BROCK UNIVERSITY PSYCHOLOGY 1F90 PROGRESS EXAMINATION MULTIPLE CHOICE BOOKLET THIS EXAMINATION COMPRISES ONE HUNDRED (100) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PLUS TEN (10) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Progress Exam, December, xxxx Number of pages: 24 Course: Psychology 1F90 Number of students: 1420 Date of Examination: December 11, xxxx Number of hours: 3 Time of Examination: 1900-2200 Instructors: A. Dane, T. Martini NO AIDS OTHER THAN THOSE SPECIFIED ARE PERMITTED. USE OR POSSESSION OF UNAUTHORIZED MATERIALS WILL AUTOMATICALLY RESULT IN THE AWARD OF A ZERO GRADE FOR THIS EXAMINATION. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: USE A PENCIL TO ANSWER THE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON THE SEPARATE SCANTRON SHEET. CLEARLY LABEL THE SCANTRON SHEET WITH: (1) YOUR NAME (2) YOUR BROCK STUDENT NUMBER INCLUDING FILLING IN THE BUBBLES MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS WRITTEN ON THE EXAM SCRIPT AND NOT ENTERED ON TO A SCANTRON FORM WILL NOT BE GRADED AT THE END OF THE EXAMINATION BE PREPARED TO HAND IN YOUR MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BOOKLET, COMPLETED AND APPROPRIATELY LABELED SCANTRON SHEET, AND THE TWO COMPLETED AND APPROPRIATELY LABELED SHORT ANSWER BOOKLETS. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS: Answer these questions on theseparate scantron sheet 1. Research where neither the observer nor the participants know which treatment was received is called a _______. a. biased study b. double-blind sample c. survey method d. single-blind study 2. Which school of psychology considers behaviors in terms of active adaptations? a. Gestalt psychology b. Behaviorism c. Functionalism d. Structuralism 3. In which circumstance would a researcher be only able to run a quasi-experiment? a. Researching the effects of a multi-vitamin on energy levels b. Researching how sunlight affects sleep patterns c. Researching how calcium absorption changes with aging d. Researching the effects of daily exercise on glucose levels 4. Megan is a researcher interested in how many parents with children walk by the toy store in the mall without stopping in. She creates a quick table with check boxes to include whether the parent is a man or a woman, the child is a boy or a girl, how many children are together, what day of the week and time of day it is. Which of the following is this an example of? a. Quasi-experimental research b. Case study (clinical method) c. Naturalistic observation d. Correlational research 5. A researcher found that the noise level on floors of college dormitories (measured in decibels) correlated -.45 with the grades of students who lived on those floors. What is the best interpretation of this correlation? a. noise and grades are unrelated b. noise causes grades to go up c. noise causes grades to go down d. none of the above 6. Which of the following would be an operational definition of "anxiety"? a. a participant's score on an anxiety scale b. a researcher's rating of how anxious a participant appears c. the frequency of "nervous" behaviors, such as fidgeting d. all of the above are operational definitions of anxiety 7. Which of the following is the only difference between experimental and control groups and the only possible cause of a change in the dependent variable? a. Random assignment b. Comparative differences c. Independent variable d. Extraneous variable 8. Which of the following is a special mistake to avoid when observing animals? a. Observer bias error b. Forensic psychologist error c. Naturalistic error d. Anthropomorphic error 9. Which is a non-experimental study that quantifies the degree to which events, measures, or variables are associated? a. Case study b. Naturalistic observation c. Correlation research d. Survey 10. April’s son has been acting violently toward other children in school. She decides to take her son to a child psychologist, who takes a sample of April’s son’s blood to test his testosterone levels. With this, the psychologist can confirm that they are in balance with his age and maturity level. Which psychological perspective applies to April’s situation? a. Biological b. Evolutionary c. Behavioral d. Biopsychosocial 11. The study of any directly observable action or response—eating, hanging out, sleeping, talking, or sneezing—is referred to as _______. a. Determinism b. Behaviourism c. Evolution d. Humanism 12. Which of the following is a definition of a psychiatrist? a. A mental health professional who specializes in helping people with problems that do not involve serious mental disorders b. A mental health professional (usually a medical doctor) trained to practice psychoanalysis c. A medical doctor with additional training in the diagnosis and treatment of mental and emotional disorders d. A psychologist who specializes in the treatment of milder emotional and behavioral disturbances 13. In scientific research, the process of naming and classifying is defined as ______. a. description b. evaluation c. analysis d. critical thinking 14. A hearing aid is best suited for which of the following people? a. Someone who was born without an auditory nerve fiber b. Someone who frequently uses a firearm c. Someone who has lost hair cells as a result of ageing d. Someone who has suffered a disease attacking ear bones that transmit vibrations 15. Defects in the cornea, lens, or eye resulting in some areas of vision being out of focus causes the problem of _______. a. myopia b. color blindness c. presbyopia d. astigmatism 16. Which term refers to the senses of body movement and positioning? a. Somesthetic senses b. Kinesthetic senses c. Vestibular senses d. Skin senses 17. Which of the following is found within the cochlea and works to transduce vibrations into nerve impulses? a. Hair cells b. Basilar membrane c. Stapes d. Eardrum 18. According to Aamodt, who among the following is the most effective listener? a. John interjects by saying, "I know exactly what you are about to say." b. Li confirms what is being said by fact-checking using her cellphone. c. Pauline says, "You have made your point; no clarification needed." d. Hua tries to understand the speaker's perspective. 19. What is olfaction in the human sensory system? a. Sense of taste b. Sense of smell c. Sense of hearing d. Sense of touch 20. What is bottom-up processing in the context of sensory perception? a. Perception guided by prior knowledge or expectations b. Organizing perceptions by beginning with low-level features c. Organizing perceptions to have a consistent overall form d. Guessing how to organize or perceive a stimulus pattern 21. What are cones in the human visual system? a. Photoreceptors that are sensitive to light b. Photoreceptors that are sensitive to color c. Structures at the front of the eye that reflect light rays d. Muscles that alter the shape of the lens 22. Which of the following systems uses large nerve fibers to alert that body damage may be occurring? a. Vestibular system b. Warning system c. Central biasing system d. Reminding system 23. What is the fovea of the eye? a. A tiny spot in the center of the retina, containing only cones, where visual acuity is greatest b. A curved area in the retina that bends light inward c. The clear structure behind the pupil that bends light toward the retina d. A structure in the retina that changes when muscles attached to the lens alter its shape 24. After an amputation, the brain creates a body image called the _______. a. neuromatrix b. sensory gate c. phantom limb matrix d. central biasing system 25. Which of the following is the minimum amount of physical energy that can be detected 50 percent of the time? a. Absolute threshold b. Threshold c. Difference threshold d. Sensory threshold 26. Shu-Lin eventually comes to ignore the sound of a barking dog next door. This is most clearly an example of which of the following? a. Perceptual construction b. Presbyopia c. Postevent information d. Habituation 27. Decreasing the amplitude and increasing the wavelength of a sound wave would result in hearing: a. a softer sound with a lower pitch. b. a duller sound that sounds like a radio out of tune. c. a softer sound with a higher pitch. d. a duller sound that sounds like rain drops. 28. Hearing an old song that triggers a memory, which in turn triggers further associated memories, is an example of ________. a. priming b. positive transfer c. redintegration d. chunking 29. In which type of memory does information have the briefest life span? a. Sensory memory b. Short-term memory c. Working memory d. Semantic memory 30. Which of the following is best supported by Ebbinghaus' research on forgetting? a. It shows that more than 30 percent of what is learned is remembered after two days. b. It explains why forgetting from long-term memory occurs. c. It suggests that you should cram before a test because a short delay minimizes forgetting. d. It shows that forgetting is rapid at first and is followed by a slow decline. 31. Where does maintenance rehearsal occur? a. Sensory memory b. Short-term/working memory c. Procedural memory d. Long-term memory 32. Which of the following plays a key role in transferring information from short-term memory to long-term memory? a. The frontal lobe b. The hippocampus c. The cerebellum d. The pons 33. Which of the following best reflects state-dependent learning? a. The emotional condition that exists when obtaining information can be a strong cue for later retrieval. b. In the laboratory, information learned under the influence of a drug is best remembered with a clear head. c. People who learned a list of words while under stress showed better retrieval while in a relaxed state. d. Retrieval is compromised when existing memories limit accurate encoding of new information. 34. Which term best describes the inability to retrieve memories of events that occurred before an injury or trauma? a. Anterograde amnesia b. Suppression c. Retrograde amnesia d. Repression 35. The idea that people process words and mental images together better than they do words alone is known as ___________. a. the multimedia principle. b. the encoding principle. c. the eidetic principle. d. the rote learning principle. 36. The process of priming triggers which type of memories? a. Explicit b. Sensory c. Iconic d. Implicit 37. Priya has been playing high-level tennis for years. At her company picnic, the first time she ever played softball, Priya tried to swing the bat one-handed like a tennis racquet. Which of the following best describes the cause of Priya's behavior at the softball game? a. Positive transfer b. Negative transfer c. Retroactive interference d. Proactive interference 38. After days of trying and falling, Luisa has finally learned how to ride a two-wheel bike! What is being stored as Luisa takes her first smiling victory lap around the block? a. Semantic memory and flashbulb memory b. Declarative memory and episodic memory c. Episodic memory and procedural memory d. Procedural memory and semantic memory 39. Students who use the sentence "Every good boy deserves fudge" to help them remember the notes that sit on the lines of a musical staff are using ________. a. maintenance rehearsal b. mnemonic devices c. serial positions d. eidetic imagery 40. Haruki was treated for depression with electroconvulsive shock therapy. After the treatment, he was unable to remember events from the two days preceding the treatment. The reason Haruki is unable to remember this information is because the ECS treatment disrupted ____________. a. memory consolidation b. existing memory traces c. retrieval of old memories d. semantic memory 41. Phillip remembers every detail of the tsunami that hit the island where has was vacationing for the December holidays. Luckily his hotel was on high ground, so he watched the destruction from above, but he knows he will never forget this __________________. a. eidetic memory b. iconic memory c. flashbulb memory d. implicit memory 42. A basic unit of thought is defined as a ________. a. morpheme b. concept c. heuristic d. prototype 43. Which of the following best defines speech sounds that are collected into meaningful units? a. Symbols b. Phonemes c. Morphemes d. Words 44. Alden and his professor are having a dispute about whether Alden turned his research paper on time or not. In the syllabus, the due date was printed as "due at the end of the day." Alden argues that "the end of the day means midnight" and his professor argues that it means the end of the school day at 5 p.m. The debate between Alden and his professor is an example of arguing ________. a. semantics b. prototypes c. grammatical d. heuristics 45. Which of the following is most characteristic of a concept prototype? a. A golf cart is a vehicle. b. A tomato is a fruit. c. A couch is a piece of furniture. d. An ostrich is a bird. 46. What is the representativeness heuristic? a. The tendency, when making a decision, to give a choice greater weight if it seems similar to other members of a known class b. The terms in which a problem is stated or the way that it is structured c. The difficulty in making a decision in the face of innumerable alternatives d. The tendency to view a problem such that it blinds us to possible solutions 47. Rowan has been working on her physics take-home final for hours and is frustrated that she is not arriving at a solution no matter what approach to the problem she takes. Rowan decides to take a break and walks around her college campus for two hours. Along her walking path she sees a friend and stops to talk about their plans for the break between semesters. After her walk, Rowan returns to her work on the physics final and suddenly realizes what she was doing wrong in her previous attempts. Very quickly Rowan successfully finds the correct solution. Which of the following stages of creative thought is best characterized by Rowan's walk around campus? a. Orientation b. Preparation c. Incubation d. Verification 48. When selecting a meal at a fast-food restaurant, Julie reads on the menu that the burgers are 15 percent fat and leaves the restaurant. At the next restaurant, Julie reads on the menu that the burgers are 85 percent beef and she orders a burger. Julie's choice for a meal appears to be influenced by ________. a. choice overload b. framing c. the representativeness heuristic d. emotion 49. Which of the following is the best example of a conjunctive concept? a. Flies have six legs and wings. b. A cow is larger than a mouse. c. A ball is a spherical object or a formal dance. d. Cold is either a sickness or a lower temperature. 50. Which of the following is the best example of an algorithmic solution? a. Colleen looks around the house for her keys. b. Colleen looks for her winter coat by searching through every item of clothing hanging in her closet starting from the left and progressing to the right. c. Colleen determines the number of quarts of oil needed to change the oil in her car by reading the owner's manual. d. Colleen estimates that a "serving size" of grape juice is about one measured cup. 51. Which of the following describes a heuristic? a. A shortcut for finding a solution to a problem b. A trial-and-error approach to problem solving c. An ideal model of a particular concept d. A rule for combining sounds to create meaning 52. Which of the following describes inductive thought? a. Drawing conclusions by proceeding from specific information to general principles b. Achieving a problem solution by following a series of step-by-step rules c. Reducing the number of alternatives that thinkers of a problem must consider d. Applying potential solutions in a generally random, trial-and-error approach 53. When you look at a selfie of a person on your phone and determine if he or she is surprised or fearful, you engage in _______. a. reflective processing b. experiential processing c. concept formation d. convergent thinking 54. Which component of memory focuses on the manipulation of mental images? a. Phonological loop b. Implicit memory c. Visuospatial sketch pad d. Central executive 55. The connotative meaning of a word is ________. a. what a word means to an individual based on his or her experience b. the definition of the work in a dictionary c. the universal meaning of a word d. the unspoken meaning of a word 56. Which of the following terms best describes a functional solution? a. Intuitive b. Practical c. Deductive d. Fixated 57. In the context of problem solving, what is functional fixedness? a. Viewing an item only in terms of its most common use b. Failing to identify important elements of a problem c. Gaining a practical understanding of the nature of the problem d. Mentally reorganizing a problem to make the solution obvious 58. Edward is handed a pair of scissors by a classmate and is asked to describe how the scissors feels in his hand. Edward describes the scissors as "bluish" and "cinnamony." It is most likely that Edward ________. a. has a rare form of imagery called synesthesia b. lacks a prototype concept for "scissors" c. is expressing the denotative meaning of the word scissors d. is using a heuristic to convey his thoughts 59. Any relatively permanent change in knowledge and behavior that can be attributed to experience is known as __________. a. learning b. reinforcement c. conditioning d. association 60. Which of the following best defines the term stimulus generalization? a. The learned ability to respond differently to similar stimuli b. The tendency to respond to stimuli similar to a conditioned stimulus c. A method of reducing fear by gradually exposing people to the object of their fear d. The reappearance of a learned response after its apparent extinction 61. Which of the following best describes cognitive learning? a. Demonstrating a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience b. Higher-level learning involving thinking, knowing, understanding, and anticipation c. Responding to a particular stimulus without any prior experience d. Formation of simple associations between various stimuli and responses 62. Through which process will a dog learn to differentiate between antecedent stimuli that signal reward and nonreward? a. Response contingency b. Stimulus control c. Operant stimulus discrimination d. Secondary discrimination 63. A model serves as the critical factor in all types of ________. a. discovery learning b. latent learning c. observational learning d. guided learning 64. Young Jesse was bitten by a dog several months ago. Now whenever he hears a dog bark, he gets scared. Which of the following is this an example of? a. Conditioned emotional response b. Extinction response c. Systematic desensitization d. Stimulus discrimination 65. Manuela's parents told her that each time she broke curfew, they would take away her phone for three days. What approach are Manuela's parents using in an effort to modify her behavior? a. Positive reinforcement b. Positive punishment c. Negative reinforcement d. Negative punishment 66. In conditioning, the reinforcement of increasingly close approximations of the desired response is called the principle of ________. a. contingency b. discrimination c. shaping d. association 67. In a classical conditioning experiment, which of the following would likely serve as a neutral stimulus? a. Hearing a sharp noise b. Being shown a bright light c. Getting tickled by a feather d. Looking at a color card 68. Which of the following definitions applies to the term extinction in conditioning? a. Strengthening a behavior by removing something unpleasant from the environment b. Decreasing the likelihood of a response with an aversive consequence c. Weakening of a learned response by repeatedly presenting the CS without the US d. Removing a positive reinforcer after the desired response is achieved 69. A pattern in which a reinforcer follows every correct response would be described as ________. a. continuous b. fixed ratio c. fixed interval d. generalized 70. Why are variable ratio (VR) schedules of reinforcement able to produce greater resistance to extinction than fixed ratio (FR) schedules of reinforcement? a. VR schedules are less predictable than FR schedules. b. VR schedules use positive reinforcement, whereas FR schedules use negative reinforcement. c. VR schedules provide reinforcement for any type of response, where FR scedules only reinforce correct responses. d. VR schedules provide larger rewards than FR schedules. 71. Darcy's cat keeps jumping on the kitchen table. For the next couple of weeks she squirts the cat with a water mister every time it jumps on the table. Now when the cat sees the mister, it runs away from the table. Which of the following is considered the conditioned response? a. Jumping on the table b. Getting squirted with water c. Running from the mister d. Being a wet cat 72. After playing a violent video game at home all afternoon, Peter and some friends snuck into a movie that was rated R for graphic violence. The first scene was a loud, bloody shootout in which many people died, yet Peter and his friends snickered and giggled during it. What explains their reaction to the movie? a. They had become desensitized to violence from the video games. b. They observed other audience members laughing during the scene. c. The video games had made them feel disinhibited in showing emotion. d. The video games had classically conditioned them to laugh at violence. 73. What is the primary difference between the genome and the phenome? a. The genome is the physical expression of a trait, while the phenome is the encoded genetics of that trait. b. The genome is the expression of a trait after birth, while the phenome is the dormant state of the trait during the prenatal phase. c. The genome is the encoded genetics of a trait, while the phenome is the physical expression of that trait d. The genome is the dormant state of a trait during the prenatal phase, while the phenome is the expression of the trait after birth. 74. Which of the following types of intelligence best describes your knowledge of the months of the year, numbers, letters, and math concepts? a. Experiential b. Practical c. Fluid d. Crystallized 75. Shawn sees a butterfly and calls it a bird. His mother says, "No, that's a butterfly. See how thin and small the wings are?" Which of the following best illustrates which concept was presented? a. Assimilation b. Accommodation c. Transformation d. Conditioning 76. Which of the following children is exhibiting behavior characteristic of the preoperational stage? a. Rachel is six years old and cannot think symbolically or intuitively. b. Kevin is eight years old and lacks object permanence. c. Quisha is four years old and cannot easily transform mental images. d. Quetzel is five years old and cannot create internal representations. 77. Lewis is struggling trying to assemble his jigsaw puzzle. His mother gives him a hint to put together the frame first and work inward. Which of the following best describes what type of help this was? a. Scaffolding b. Vicarious learning c. Forced teaching d. Transformation 78. Perry likes to be able to dress and feed himself unassisted although he is sometimes messy. His parents laugh it off and simply clean up his messes. Which of the following stages is Perry likely operating in? a. Perry is in the trust versus mistrust stage. b. Perry is in the industry versus inferiority stage. c. Perry is in the autonomy versus shame and doubt stage. d. Perry is in the initiative versus guilt stage. 79. Jesse is a 25-year-old college graduate living at home with his parents. He is not married, has no children, and has no stable career. Which of the following is most likely for Jesse? a. Jesse is exhibiting generativity by giving back to younger generations and society. b. Jesse is in the social status known as emerging adulthood where he is exploring possibilities. c. Jesse is experiencing premature identity formation and is struggling changing his identity. d. Jesse is taking time to form a positive subjective well-being. 80. Jaffa is approached by his friend, Corey, who says that he has just taken a pop-quiz in history and can give Jaffa the answers. Jaffa is worried that he will get caught and be considered a cheater by everyone in his class, so he tells Corey he will take his chances on the pop-quiz. Which type of reasoning is being displayed in this situation? a. Postcoventional b. Conventional c. Preconventional d. Preoperational 81. Kyrisha first lifts her head, then crawls and walks as her development progresses from her head to her feet. Which of the following best describes this progression? a. Proximodistal b. Cephalocaudal c. Sagittal d. Coronal 82. Sally stroked the bottom of her new baby sister's foot and watched her sister's toes splay out. What is the name of this type of reflex? a. Moro reflex b. Rooting reflex c. Babinski reflex d. Grasping reflex 83. Most human characteristics are controlled by many genes working in combination. These characteristics can be defined as __________. a. epigenetic characteristics b. phenome characteristics c. recessive characteristics d. polygenic characteristics 84. Gentile suggested that in order to best face ethical challenges, a person should: a. actively imagine possible ethical scenarios in detail. b. consider the negative outcomes to decipher the best positive result. c. recall the morals of their parents to resolve issues in accordance with their ethical upbringing. d. think about ethical situations in advance but not need to rehearse how they would react. 85. According to Piaget, which of the following concepts refers to a child's belief that everyone thinks as he or she does? a. Piagetian transformation b. Assimilation c. Accommodation d. Egocentrism 86. Which facet of language acquisition do many psychologists feel is overstated by Chomsky's biological predisposition theory? a. The fact that children around the world use a limited number of patterns in their first sentences b. The inborn aspects of infant humans to develop language patterns c. The importance of learning and the social contexts that shape language development d. The influence of a particular culture on an infant's language development 87. One of the two main divisions of the human nervous system is the peripheral nervous system. What is the other nervous system? a. the central nervous system b. the autonomic nervous system c. the sympathetic nervous system d. the somatic nervous system 88. During a lecture, when students receive information through their eyes from the notes on the screen and information through their ears as the instructor lectures, the information will first travel through neurons within which nervous system? a. sympathetic b. autonomic c. somatic d. parasympathetic 89. When the threshold for firing within a neuron occurs, we say that which of the following is taking place? a. volume gradient b. myelination c. action potential d. resting discharge 90. During an action potential, the “gates” covering the axon’s ion channels pop open to allow which ions to rush into the axon? a. Sodium b. potassium c. Chlorine d. Iodine 91. What are the tiny gaps separating neurons from one another and across which information must be transmitted known as? a. synapses b. synaptic vesicles c. receptor sites d. ion channels 92. Cocaine triggers an increase in which neurotransmitter resulting in a drug “high” in the reward circuit of the brain? a. serotonin b. acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Histamine 93. Bodily sensations such as touch, temperature, and pressure register in which lobes? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal 94. In situations in which true danger exists, such as in military combat, the rapid response of which part of the limbic system may aid survival? a. the hippocampus b. the hypothalamus c. the thalamus d. the amygdala 95. Hormones are poured into the bloodstream and lymph system by the glands of which system? a. Limbic b. reticular activating c. Endocrine d. Somatic 96. Immediate emotional responses to a traumatic event are most directly under the control of which of the following? a. the somatic nervous system b. the central nervous system c. the autonomic nervous system d. the cerebral cortex 97. Different versions or variants of a gene are called………? a.enzymes b.transporters c.chromosomes d.alleles 98. Which of the following refers to the study of environmental influences (e.g., life experiences) that determine whether or not genes are expressed or activated? a.Epigenetics b.behaviour-genetic research c.molecular-genetic research d.gene-environment interactions 99. Traits such as intelligence and personality are influenced by multiple genes, each of which has only a small effect. Which of the following terms refers to this concept? a.Gene-environment correlations b.Epigenetics c.Polygenic effects d.Alleles 100. Research shows that when children are genetically predisposed to having less effortful control or self-control than other children, parents are less warm and responsive, and more punitive towards them. Which of the following terms describes this effect? a.Gene-environment interaction b.Gene-environment correlation c.Epigenetics d.Genetic recombination SHORT ANSWER 1. Wacoal is a company that makes women’s underwear. A few years ago, they began promoting caffeine-infused underwear that were supposed to aid in weight loss. (Yes, I’m totally serious about this – you can look it up when the exam is over.) a. Imagine that the marketing department at Wacoal wants to market this product. To do so, they need to make predictions about who is most likely to buy it. One manager suggests that people who have concerns about their body image might show an interest in this product. To look at whether there’s a relationship between body image and interest in buying the new product, the marketing department needs to come up with an operational definition of body image. Explain what is meant by an operational definition and why psychologists often need to use them (1 mark). - An operational definition specifies how a concept will be measured or manipulated in a specific study. Psychologists use them to translate abstract concepts (e.g., body image) into measurable variables to ensure clarity, consistency, and replicability. Example: If studying anxiety, an operational definition could be "the score on the Beck Anxiety Inventory." b. Suggest an operational definition for measuring body image (it’s ok to make up your own as long as it makes sense; 1 mark) - Body image could be operationally defined as “the score on a standardized questionnaire assessing self-perception of physical appearance, such as the Body Image Scale.” c. Imagine that the marketing department finds that the correlation between body image and interest in buying the new underwear is -0.91. What can we conclude about the relationship between these two variables? Your answer should make reference to both the sign and the number in this correlation coefficient (2 marks). - The negative sign indicates an inverse relationship: as body image scores (self-perception) improve, interest in buying the product decreases. The number (-0.91) shows a very strong relationship. Example: A person with poor body image may feel more compelled to purchase the product compared to someone satisfied with their body image. d. Let’s say that Wacoal’s researchers wanted to do a study to determine whether the new underwear really work as a weight-loss strategy. They begin by recruiting 1000 people to participate in their study, and randomly assign half of them to be in the weight-loss condition (wearing the underwear) and the other half to be in the control condition (wearing conventional non-caffeinated underwear). Participants’ weight is measured at the beginning and the end of the study to assess weight loss. What is the hypothesis that the researchers would likely be testing in this study? (1 mark) - The hypothesis: Wearing caffeine-infused underwear leads to greater weight loss compared to wearing conventional underwear. e. What type of research method is being employed in this study (1 mark)? How do you know (1 mark)? - The study uses an experimental method because participants are randomly assigned to conditions (caffeine vs. conventional underwear), and weight loss is measured to determine causality. f. What is the major advantage that comes from using this type of research methodology (1 mark)? - Experiments allow researchers to infer causation by controlling for confounding variables. g. What is the independent variable in this study (1 mark)? - The type of underwear (caffeine-infused vs. conventional). h. What is the dependent variable in this study (1 mark)? - The amount of weight loss measured. Endnote: In 2013 Wacoal paid out $1.3 million-dollar settlement for false advertising. In the event that you were feeling even the slightest bit uncertain about this, the moral of the story is that caffeine in your underwear doesn’t help with weight loss. 2. Here’s a figure representing the Modal Model of Memory, taken from your text and discussed (at length!) in lecture. a. Label the 4 arrows and 6 boxes on following diagram showing (a) the types of memory (6 boxes; 3 marks) and (b) memory processes (4 arrows; 2 marks), based on the Modal Model of Memory (5 marks total). b. Using the Modal Model of Memory, name the specific type of memory most likely to be involved in each of the following everyday tasks (0.5 marks each; 2 marks total) - i. Procedural Memory (brushing teeth) - ii. Semantic Memory (seasons) - iii. Episodic Memory (Sally Ann Task demo) - iv. Working Memory (solving a math problem) 3. In the class on human memory, we did a demonstration in which we replicated a famous study initially carried out by Hyde and Jenkins in 1973. In this study, all participants were shown a list of words. One half of them were randomly assigned to a condition in which they were asked to rate the pleasantness of the words; the other half were asked to determine whether each word on the list had an “e”, a “g” or both of those letters. a. What did the results of this study show about the two groups’ ability to remember the list of words later (1 mark)? - The group rating pleasantness recalled significantly more words than the group searching for letters. b. Using what you know about human memory, how would you explain these findings (1 mark)? - Deep processing (e.g., judging pleasantness) leads to better memory retention because it creates more meaningful connections in long-term memory. c. Explain how the findings of Hyde and Jenkins’ study can be applied to studying for an exam in an undergraduate course. When you answer this question, be specific and make reference to the way that long-term memory is organized (2 marks). - Use deep processing by linking study material to personal experiences or meaningful contexts. For example, instead of rote memorization, think about how concepts apply to real-world scenarios. 4. Here’s a short paragraph taken directly from a recently published article: To find out how companion dogs react to more routine punishments, scientists led by Ana Catarina Vieira de Castro at the University of Porto in Portugal recruited 42 dogs from reward-based training schools, which use food or play to encourage good behaviors. The team also enlisted 50 dogs from aversive-based programs, which use negative reinforcement like yelling and leash jerking to train dogs, or even pressuring their rumps to get them to sit. a. What type of learning is being investigated in this study (be specific) (1 mark)? How do you know (1 mark)? - Operant Conditioning. This involves reinforcement (positive or negative) to increase or decrease behavior. b. If you read that paragraph closely, you’ll see that there was a significant mistake in the article. Based on what you know about the type of learning you identified in part (a) above, you should be able to spot the error in the paragraph written by the reporter. In a sentence or two, clearly explain the error (including why it is an error; 2 marks) and how it should be corrected (be very specific) (1 mark). - The article confuses negative reinforcement (removing an aversive stimulus to increase behavior) with punishment (applying an aversive stimulus to decrease behavior). It should state that aversive-based programs rely on punishment techniques, not negative reinforcement. 5. Piaget outlined a number of limitations or misconceptions that characterize children’s thinking, one of which is egocentrism. a. Explain what is meant by egocentrism, according to Piaget (1 mark). - Egocentrism is a child’s inability to understand perspectives different from their own. b. What is theory of mind (1 mark), and how is cognitive egocentrism related to children’s development of a theory of mind (1 mark)? - Theory of Mind is the ability to understand that others have beliefs, desires, and perspectives different from one’s own. Overcoming egocentrism is critical for developing a Theory of Mind. c. Name two ways in which adults use their theory of mind in everyday life (1 mark). - Predicting a coworker’s reaction during a meeting. - Adjusting communication style based on someone’s emotional state. 6. In the seminar based on the podcast Red Brain/Blue Brain (or Nature, Nurture, and Your Politics) the researcher John Hibbing discussed an interesting compound called andosterone. He noted that people can have very different perceptual experiences when they smell it. Some people find andosterone has a very pleasant smell, like cookies or vanilla. For other people, though, it smells more like sweat or urine. a. These individual differences in olfactory perception are rooted in a single gene that influences sensory transduction. What is transduction (1 mark)? - Transduction is the process of converting sensory stimuli into neural signals. b. Briefly explain the process involved in olfactory transduction (2 marks). - Odorant molecules bind to receptors in the olfactory epithelium, triggering electrical signals sent to the brain for interpretation. c. Aside from genetic differences, name two other factors that can result in individual differences in perception (2 marks). - Cultural differences (e.g., preferred scents). - Past experiences with specific odors. 7. Recent work in the area of cognitive development has focused on executive functions. a. Name (0.5 mark each) and describe (0.5 mark each) the three main abilities that make up executive functions (3 marks total). - Inhibitory Control: Ability to suppress impulses (e.g., resisting distractions while studying). - Working Memory: Holding and manipulating information in mind (e.g., solving math problems). - Cognitive Flexibility: Switching between tasks or adapting to new rules (e.g., adjusting plans during unexpected changes). 8. What are the four major parts of a neuron, and what are their functions? (4 marks) - Dendrites: Receive signals from other neurons. - Cell Body (Soma): Processes incoming signals. - Axon: Transmits signals to other neurons or muscles. - Axon Terminals: Release neurotransmitters to communicate with other cells. 9. What do inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitters do? Give one example of each. (4 marks) - Inhibitory: Decrease the likelihood of action potentials (e.g., GABA). - Excitatory: Increase the likelihood of action potentials (e.g., Glutamate). 10. Research has shown that identical (monozygotic) twins are more similar to each other than are fraternal (dizygotic) twins on traits such as self-regulation, personality, and intelligence. How do these findings show that genetic factors probably affect the development of these traits? (2 marks) - Identical twins share 100% of their DNA, so higher trait similarity compared to fraternal twins (who share 50%) suggests a genetic influence on traits like personality and intelligence. Example: If identical twins score similarly on IQ tests while fraternal twins do not, genetics likely play a role.

Psychology 1F90 Progress Examination PDF

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