Psychological Assessment Test 1 PDF

Psychological Assessment Test 1 4. It is logically simpler to regard all tests as fundamentally dependent on the measurement of _____. 1. It is the proce...

Psychological Assessment Test 1 4. It is logically simpler to regard all tests as fundamentally dependent on the measurement of _____. 1. It is the process of assigning number (e.g., tests scores) to persons in such way that some attributes of the person being numbers (Murphy & Davidshofer, a. aptitudes 1998). In short terms, this is the process of transforming psychological concept b. behavior samples or phenomenon into numbers. c. basic mental processes d. traits a. Psychological Assessment b. Psychological Testing 5. Miko, 13 years old, Filipino, male, who is currently on his 7th grade level of c. Assessment Procedures schooling, completed 12 out of 50 problems correctly on a particular d. Psychological Measurement achievement test. We can conclude that: 2. In administering this type of test, it is important to remember that the utmost a. that the test was too difficult for him. Further evaluation may goal is to observe or assess the optimal or maximum performance of the warrant. adolescent for an instance. b. that he is definitely below average in IQ c. that he should be retested a. Personality Test such as 16PF d. nothing, suitable interpretive data is needed. b. Intelligence Test such as WAIS c. Typical Performance Test such as Jackson Test Battery 6. A student was administered the OLSAT. He obtained a score equivalent to d. Interests Test such as Self-Directed Search 60%ile. It means that his mental ability as measured by OLSAT with High School Students as the local norm is 3. An important step in standardization of a test is the establishment of a norm which defined as the normal or average performance of the representative a. Below Average sample. Based on this consideration evaluate the following statements: b. Average c. Above Average I. Psychological tests have possible predetermined standards of passing d. High or failing; II. Performance on each test is evaluated on the basis of empirical data. 7. A 13 year old grade schooler scored a T score of 68 in Brown ADD scale. This III. For most purposes, an individual’s test score is interpreted by comparing means that, he/she is it with the scores obtained by others on the same test. IV. In personality testing, responses are usually evaluated in terms of a. below average norms that represent the most desirable pattern of performance. b. average c. above average a. All statements are correct. d. High b. Only I and III are correct. c. Only I and IV are correct. 8. It has been said that persons who score well on a graduate aptitude examination d. Only II and III are correct. also do very well in graduate school. This would mean that the graduate aptitude e. Only I , II and IV are wrong. test is _____. a. reliable b. valid c. qualified d. standardized 9. In arousing the interest and cooperation of older school children, the most 14. A correlation coefficient of +0.30 indicates a stronger relationship between the effective way is _____. correlated variables than a correlation coefficient of -0.67. a. being friendly, cheerful, and relaxed a. True. The nearer the score to perfect positive correlation, then the b. appeal to the competitive spirit and desire to do well on test stronger relationship it has. c. game approach b. False. The correspondence of variables with coefficient of - d. examiner cannot assume that they will be motivated to excel on.67 is stronger, this negative correlation usually a result academic tasks to the same extent as children in the standardization from the way in which the scores are expressed. sample c. True. The observed correlation coefficient of -.67 can be accounted due to chance. Other scores are found below the average, some 10. If it was found out that Ada Vox had a mental level of seven, her performance are above average. according to the Binet test______ d. False. Potting the scores in a scatter diagram, or bivariate distribution, a correlation coefficient of -.67 is stronger since the a. was definitely retarded. scores are distributed along diagonal running from lower left- to the b. matched that of the average seven-year-old upper-hand corner of the diagram. c. indicated a readiness for school d. showed that she was incapable of making judgments based on 15. A correlation of – 1.34 means ________. reason a. an error has been made 11. The items on this test are more difficult and time limit is ample for most b. a direct negative correlation applicants. c. a moderate negative correlation d. an inverse relationship between two variables a. Power Test b. Speed Test 16. A correlation 0f +0.48 is found to be significant at the.01 level. This means that c. Performance Test _________. d. Affective Test a. the correlation is significant at the ninety nine percent level (.01) 12. The college admissions office of a certain school developed norms based on the b. chances are no greater than one out of 100 that true r is performance of its own student population. This allowed for prediction of zero subsequent job performance or college achievement, and for many purposes. c. the minimum real value for r is greater than zero The norm used by the office is known as d. the correlation is definitely real a. national anchor norm 17. The length of interval between retesting sessions for the test-retest reliability b. subgroup norm should be ____________. c. local norm d. fixed reference group a. determined by the validity coefficient b. between one hour and two days 13. The Item Response Theory is fundamentally derived from _____. c. ten to fifteen years d. reported along with the obtained coefficient a. statistical observations b. physiological responses c. cognitive-behaviorist perspective d. psychoanalytic paradigm 18. Alternate-Form reliability measures __________; Its administration in 22. The _____ validity of a test is essentially the correlation of the test with immediate succession will show reliability ___________. whatever is common to a group of tests or other indices of behavior that have been subjected to _____ analysis. a. both temporal stability and consistency of response to different test items (or test forms); both across forms and across occasions a. factorial (validity)/ factor (analysis) b. consistency of response to different item samples (or test forms) b. content (validity)/ factor (analysis) only; across forms only, not across occasions c. criterion (validity)/ meta (analysis) c. both temporal stability and consistency of response to d. meta analysis/ factor (analysis) different item samples (or test forms); across forms only, not across occasions 23. Content validation is most appropriate for _____. d. temporal stability only; both across forms and across occasions a. aptitude tests 19. Consistency or variability of scores for the following types of reliability may be b. achievement tests influenced by content sampling as a source of error variance, EXCEPT for _____ c. personality tests d. all of the above a. Test-retest b. Alternate-form 24. Test A has been in use for many years. It is highly respected as a test of c. Split-half reliability intelligence. Test B is a new intelligence test which is much shorter and easier d. Coefficient Alpha method to administer than Test A. The use of Test A to validate Test B would constitute _____validation. 20. A test has reliability coefficient of.82. This means that approximately _________. a. content b. concurrent a. 18% of the variance is real c. predictive b. 64% of the variance is real d. discriminant c. 82% of the variance is true d. 82% of the questions were answered correctly 25. The ultimate criterion for most tests would be _____. 21. Concurrent and predictive validation are two aspects of ______ validation that a. academic achievement differ in terms of the time relation between criterion and the test. In addition, a b. personality as assessed by other tests distinction between these two aspects of validation – based on their objectives c. actual performance in real life or on the job – is that _____ validation is relevant to tests used to diagnose existing status d. convergent validation with moderator tests whereas in _____ validation interest is centered on a future outcome. 26. A new reading test is found to correlate very highly with an intelligence test, but a. construct/ convergent/ divergent near zero with a personality test. This information is important for _____. b. criterion/ concurrent/ predictive c. construct/ divergent/ convergent a. convergent and discriminant validation d. criterion/ predictive/ concurrent b. predictive validity c. establishing normative standards d. internal consistency and analysis 27. If two or more traits are measured by two or more different techniques, all of 32. A television producer hires a director for a new show after viewing samples of which claim to measure the traits, validity is established through _____. the director’s work on other television shows. Using the language of psychometrics, we could say that the director was hired on the basis of a. the predictive approach b. the factorial approach a. a portfolio assessment. c. the multitrait-multimethod approach b. a behavioral assignment. d. none of the above c. a case study evaluation. d. an interview. 28. If a thermometer measured the temperature in an oven as 400 F five days in a row when the temperature was actually 397 F, this measuring instrument would 33. Differential item functioning is an aspect of item analysis that seeks to identify be considered: _____. a. Reliable but not valid a. items that discriminate between groups b. Valid, but not reliable b. items on which different cultural groups have different probabilities c. Reliable and valid of success d. Unreliable and invalid c. items on which equally able persons from different groups have different probabilities of success 29. _____ validity has come to be recognized as the fundamental encompassing d. the ability level needed to answer an item correctly validity concept. Not observable and directly measurable 34. The basal level of the SB is _________. a. Construct b. Criterion a. reached when four items on two consecutive levels are c. Content passed d. Face b. the minimal performance level for passing c. reached at the first level when all items are failed 30. Assume the military drafts 1000 people. They are all tested to determine their d. a minimum score required for one’s mental level best roles in the service. Which of the following types of decisions are being made? 35. Nicole obtained a Full Scale IQ of 118 on the SB-5. Considering the standard error of measurement of the scale, which is approximately 2.5, there is a 95% a. Selection chance that Nicole true score differs by approximately ________ points from his b. Placement obtained score. c. Classification d. Positioning a. ± 2.5 b. ± 5.0 31. A test is given to a fifth grade class primarily to identify the bottom third of the c. ± 7.5 class for special instruction. The average difficulty (p) for the test items should d. ± 10.0 be approximately _____. a..30 b..50 c..70 d. the same as for any other test. 36. In Piagetian terminology, the concept of ______ refers to the child’s realization 41. At present, the most widely accepted model of intelligence, for both practical that properties of objects – such as weight, volume, or number – remain and theoretical purposes is _____. Originally proposed by P.E. Vernon, among unchanged when objects undergo transformations in shape, position, or form. others, which starts with “g” factor at the top and progresses downward to increasingly narrower factors. a. Conservation b. Preservation a. two-factor c. Schemata b. multiple-factor d. Decalage c. structure-of-intellect d. hierarchical 37. The Gesell Developmental Schedules, a pioneering technique for the assessment of young children, consist mostly of __________. 42. Research has shown that IQs are most reliable when they are obtained at ages _____. a. behavioral data gathered through observation b. a series of performance tests for children a. 0 to 18 months c. nonverbal interpretation of pictures b. 18 months to 2 years d. testing infants’ aptitudes c. 3 to 10 years d. 10 to 25 years 38. This a test presented to the test taker wherein he or she needs to identify a relationship within a pair of pictures and complete a second pair exhibiting the 43. Which of the following is NOT a use of clinical assessment? same relationships; includes scene, people, animals, objects, or graphic symbols. a. To assist in court decisions b. To identify psychopathology a. Sequences c. To aid in diagnostic decisions for health related problems (e.g., b. Analogies Alzheimer's) c. Verbal Reasoning d. To identify individuals at risk (e.g., students at risk for suicide) d. Memory e. All of these are uses. 39. Which of the following does not belong to the group? 44. Which of the following is NOT a way an assessment report should be used? a. Spatial Subtest a. As a mechanism to assist in providing insight to clients for therapy b. Comprehension Subtest b. As a means of suggesting treatment options in counseling c. Arithmetic Subtest c. To suggest educational services for students with special needs d. Similarities Subtest d. To protect clinicians from liability concerns by keeping a second set of reports which is hidden from clients 40. Spearman’s two-factor theory, Thurstone’s multiple-factor theory, and Guilford’s e. To provide feedback for the courts in making difficult decisions SI model are examples of three different theories of _____. a. behavioral-cognitive b. trait organization c. psychodynamic d. ipsativity 45. Which of the following is suggested when writing reports? 47. A student currently enrolled in your school manifested bizarre behavior. She was referred to your office and you thought it wise to refer her immediately for a. Describe your feelings (not behaviors) about the client and his or psychiatric treatment. To facilitate the treatment, you included whatever test her issues. results you have which happened to be on academic performance together with b. State your opinion throughout the report. the referral letter. Did you do right thing in making a referral? Why Or why not? c. Use labels regarding your client as a valuable tool for your reader. d. Take a stand if you feel strongly that the information a. YES. The situation warrants immediate referral and existing files are warrants it. the most available source of information that may help. e. Points out only the weaknesses of your client; his or her strengths b. NO. Assessment of the condition of client should first be are unimportant for the report. done by the Counselor. If counselor's assessment points to a definite need for a referral, then she should do so. 46. The HR Officer talked to his assistant to readminister the SRA Verbal to an c. YES. Release of test results can be made even without the request applicant. He says: "This applicant has enough working experience for this job of the referee and the client's consent. Furthermore, test results and I like him. Too bad, he failed our SRA Verbal Test. Can you give the test to that do have a bearing on the case need be volunteered. him again so he can pass the test. Give him more time. We really need to hire d. NO. Assessment of the condition of client should first be done by this person. We cannot afford to spend too much money on recruitment." What the Medical physician in this case. Consultation with family, is the most appropriate consideration that should be given? teachers, and administrators is necessary in as much as there are costs involved. a. An interval of time must be allowed to elapse before the second administration 48. You reach, an impasse in a case you are handling. You wanted to consult a b. Administering the test for the second time will guarantee passing colleague but you are hesitant because you will release information about the the test. client without his consent. It might be construed as tsismis (gossip) in the midst c. Give more time during the re-administration. of this quandary, you decide to make an abstract of the case, change the identity d. If the HR officer really wants to hire the applicant, SRA is the best and other circumstances of the case, and present these to your colleague to get determinant of the applicant’s performance. some leads as to how to proceed with the case. Were you right in hesitating to consult a colleague about your client? Did you do right in changing the circumstances of the case and presenting it in your colleague? a. YES. There are limits to confidentiality and one among these limitations is consulting another professional. In this case, the welfare of the client is at stake and therefore, there is no need to obtain consent from the client to release information to another professional. b. NO. Confidentiality must be observed in the release of information, thus, it is best to obtain informed consent from the client for your protection. You cannot anticipate all occasions that will require release of information. c. YES. Conversing with colleagues about clients is just normal during lunch or vacant time even when the identity were not change nor altered. d. NO. It would be better to wait for a little more time and making sure of my decisions before doing bold actions. 49. Guided by the Principle of Confidentiality, Counselor C denies the request of a Psychological Assessment Test 2 student to know his test results in an admission to the University. Is she right in upholding the principle? Did the Counselor do right in denying the request of 1. It is the gathering and integration of psychology-related data for the purpose of the student to know? Which among the following statements is LEAST ethical? making a psychological evaluation that is accomplished through the use of tools such as tests, interviews, case studies, behavioral observation, and specially a. If there anyone who has a right to the information it is the owner designed apparatuses and measurement procedures. of the data. b. In the case of data obtained from application for admission, a. Psychological Testing application for employment the school, the company, have b. Psychological Measurement ownership of the data and the release of information is their c. Psychological Assessment prerogative. d. Psychological Procedures c. A school may release how the applicant fared in all the subtests because of the time required to do so. 2. Which of the following statements are true about Psychological Testing? d. At any rate, the decision as to whether one is accepted or denied I. A psychological test can be administered in groups only. admission is relayed to the applicant. To the applicant, this is the II. It is designed to measure characteristics of human beings that pertain to most important information relative to his/her application. behavior. III. It is used to evaluate individual differences or variations among individuals. 50. A client was referred to your office. Your director wants you to administer the Draw a Person Test and the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blanks to the client: a. I and III only You inform your director that you have not taken the tests, nor have you had b. I and II only Projective Tests in your curriculum. The Director assures you that she has c. II and III only materials (photocopied handouts and copy of the RISB) which you can d. All statements are correct. administer and refer to for the interpretation. What is your position regarding this situation? What ethical provision will you invoke? The following statements 3. What does the term “standardization” refer to in psychological testing? are issues that psychometrician should be confronted with, which is NOT or the LEAST? a. Administering a test to a large, representative sample to establish norms. a. Use of photocopied materials. b. Adhering to a standardized format for test administration and b. Use of assessment tools for which psychometrician has not been scoring. trained. c. Using standardized procedures for obtaining informed consent from c. Appropriateness of the tools for the kind of problem presented by participants. the client. d. Standardizing test scores to a common metric for comparison. d. Client consent for the administration of assessment tools for her/his case. 4. It is a fundamental concept in psychological testing which refers to the dependability or consistency of a psychological test over time or under different conditions. a. Validity b. Precision c. Reliability d. Accuracy 5. Who is the proponent of the Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence? 10. In a study examining the relationship between participants’ age and number of friends, a Pearson-R = -.67 was created. Which of the following describes this a. Lewis Terman finding? b. David Weschler c. Charles Spearman a. As age increases, the number of friends decreases. d. Howard Gardner b. As age increases, the number of friends increases. c. As age increases, the number of friends stay the same. 6. Who believed that there are 7 intelligences and proposed the Multiple d. The findings suggest that there is an error in the computation. Intelligence Theory? 11. Which is NOT an example of a criterion-referenced test? a. Lewis Terman b. David Weschler a. A driving test is given to see whether the test taker is skilled enough c. Charles Spearman to be granted a driver’s license. d. Howard Gardner b. Ken’s results from the aptitude test showed that he performed better than 90% of his fellow test takers. 7. There are several types of reliability testing, which one is NOT? c. Callie wasn’t able to pass the comprehensive examination because her score was one point lower than the cut off. a. Test-Retest Reliability d. To be able to pass the BLEPP, one must score an average of 75 and b. Past-Present Reliability must not have a score lower than 60 in all subject areas of the c. Split-half Reliability examination. d. Alternate Forms Reliability 12. Which of the following is not a true comparison between norm-referenced and 8. It refers to the extent to which a test or assessment appears, on the surface, to criterion referenced tests? measure what it is intended to measure. a. A norm-referenced test determines whether an individual a. Content Validity has learned a specific body of knowledge or can b. Face Validity demonstrate specific skills as identified in a predetermined c. Criterion Validity standard of performance while a criterion-referenced test d. Construct Validity determines how well an individual’s achievement compares with the achievement of others. 9. It refers to the extent to which a test or assessment adequately covers the full b. Criterion-referenced test items are constructed to match the most range of subject matter that it is intended to measure. critical learning objectives or outcomes while norm-referenced test a. Content Validity items are constructed to distinguish between high and low b. Face Validity performers. c. Criterion Validity c. In a norm-referenced test individual’s raw scores are compared with d. Construct Validity the scores of others while in a criterion-referenced test, raw scores are compared with the total percentile score on the test. d. In norm-referenced tests, knowledge and skills are typically tested by one to four items that vary in level of difficulty while in a criterion-referenced tests, knowledge and skills are typically tested by multiple items of similar level of difficulty. 13. What does MMPI stand for? 18. Which of the following is an example of a non-verbal intelligence test? a. Minnesota Multiphatic Personality Inventory a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale b. Minnesota Multi-Phased Inventory b. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale c. Minnesota Multiple Personality Inventory c. Raven’s Progressive Matrices d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory d. Woodcock-Johnson Tests of Cognitive Abilities 14. It is a type of intelligence test typically administered individually. 19. Which of the following tests primarily assesses verbal intelligence? a. WISC-V a. Raven’s Progressive Matrices b. CFIT b. Purdue Non-Language Test c. PNLT c. Slosson’s Intelligence Test – Revised d. RPM d. Culture Fair Intelligence Test 15. A type of projective technique administered to adolescents and adults in which 20. What type of ability test measures the general mental ability of a person? participants verbally respond to a series of ambiguous pictures presented to a. Achievement Test them. b. Aptitude Test c. Interest Test a. Thematic Apperception Test d. Intelligence Test b. Children’s Apperception Test c. Rorschach Inkblot Test 21. What type of ability test assesses an individual’s potential for a specific task, d. Draw-A-Person Test ability or type of skill? 16. Which of the following is an example of a projective psychological assessment a. Achievement Test tool? b. Aptitude Test c. Interest Test a. Beck Depression Inventory d. Intelligence Test b. MMPI c. WAIS 22. What type of ability test measures the amount of learning the individual has as d. Rorschach Inkblot Test a result of a study or course? 17. Which of the following is a Level C test? a. Achievement Test b. Aptitude Test a. Differential Aptitude Test c. Interest Test b. Flanagan Industrial Tests d. Intelligence Test c. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator d. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale 23. It is a test that measures overt and covert dispositions of individuals and also 28. Which of the following sentences is TRUE? measures the tendency of a person to show a particular behavior in any given situation. a. A power test requires the examinee to demonstrate the extent of his knowledge or depth of his understanding within a limited time a. Personality Test frame. b. Intelligence Test b. A level C test can only be administered by a psychologist and a c. Interest Test psychometrician. d. Aptitude Test c. The MMPI, BPI and WAIS are examples of personality tests. d. A psychological test can be used in educational, industrial 24. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is an example of which type of psychological and clinical settings. test? 29. The following are major errors in the use of a psychological tests except one: a. Personality Test b. Intelligence Test a. Choosing measurements that don’t serve the specific purpose in c. Interest Test mind. d. Aptitude Test b. Preparation for tests made as an instructional goal. c. Recognizing that tests are imperfect and are not refined 25. The MMPI-2 is primarily used for: tools. d. Using tests for purposes not intended. a. Measuring emotional intelligence b. Identifying learning abilities 30. Which one does not belong to the group? c. Assessing intelligence d. Diagnosing psychiatric disorders a. WISC b. WAIS 26. Which of the following is a self-report inventory? c. WESC d. WPPSI a. Word Association Test b. Rorschach Inkblot Test 31. It is a scale of measurement where cases are ranked or has a specific order. c. 16PF d. Sachs Sentence Completion Test a. Nominal b. Ordinal 27. These are the two structured group tests of human abilities developed during c. Interval World War I. d. Ratio a. Army I and Army II 32. It is a scale of measurement which has a true zero point. b. Army Alpha and Army Omega c. Army Alpha and Army Beta a. Nominal d. Army 1 and Army 2 b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio 33. Which does not belong? 39. Which projective test involves asking individuals to copy a series of nine geometric designs onto a blank piece of paper. a. Mean b. Measure a. Hand Test c. Mode b. Human Figure Drawing Test d. Median c. Bender Gestalt Test d. Thematic Apperception Test 34. The Big Five Personality Traits include all of the following except: 40. Which of the following is a limitation of projective tests? a. Extraversion b. Openness a. They require specialized training to interpret c. Consciousness b. They cannot be used to assess personality d. Neuroticism c. They are time-consuming to administer d. They lack validity and reliability 35. _____________ constitutes the most widely used frame of reference for test score interpretation. 41. Which of the following is a limitation of self-report questionnaires? a. Content domain a. They cannot be used to assess cognitive functioning b. Work samples b. They require specialized training to administer c. Criteria c. They lack reliability and validity d. Norms d. They are subject to response bias. 36. Which of the following is not a sub-test in the ADHDT? 42. What is the purpose of test norms in psychological assessment? a. Inattention a. To establish the reliability of a test b. Hyperactivity b. To determine the validity of a test c. Language Impairment c. To provide a basis for interpreting test scores. d. Impulsivity d. To ensure ethical test administration 37. Which of the following is included in the diagnostic criteria of Bipolar I Disorder? 43. What does the term “standard deviation” measure in psychological testing? a. Manic Episode, Major Depressive Episode a. The variability of test scores around the mean b. Manic Episode only b. The average score on a test c. Manic Episode, Hypomanic Episode and Major Depressive c. The difference between two test scores Episode d. The reliability of a test d. Hypomanic and Manic Episode 38. Who is considered the father of Filipino Psychology? a. Virgilio G. Enriquez b. Fr. Jaime C. Bulatao c. Alfredo T.H. Montiel d. Cecilio D. Duka 44. This is an Ethical Principle which states that psychologists must strive to benefit 48. Which of the following statements are true about Mental Status Examinations? their clients and to do no harm. I. The mental status examination reviews the major systems of psychiatric a. Fidelity and Responsibility functioning. b. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity II. It can be used as part of a formal psychological assessment. c. Beneficence and Non-maleficence III. An MSE includes observing the client/patient’s appearance, speech, mood & d. Integrity affect, etc. a. I and III only 45. This is an Ethical Principle which states that psychologists must seek to promote b. I and II only accuracy, honesty and truthfulness in the science, teaching and practice of c. II and III only psychology. d. All statements are correct. a. Fidelity and Responsibility 49. The following are tools designed to measure the severity of depressive b. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity symptoms experienced by individuals, except: c. Beneficence and Non-maleficence d. Integrity a. Beck Depression Inventory b. Brief Symptom Inventory 46. This is an Ethical Principle which states that psychologists must respect the c. Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression dignity and worth of all people and the rights of individuals to privacy, d. Patient Health Questionnaire – 9 confidentiality and self-determination. 50. It is the most widely used measure of correlation? a. Fidelity and Responsibility b. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity a. Point-biserial correlation coefficient c. Beneficence and Non-maleficence b. Spearman-Rho d. Integrity c. Pearson-R d. Spearman-Brown 47. A client was referred to your office and your manager wants you to administer the House-Tree-Person Test and Sachs Sentence Completion Test. You informed your manager that you have never taken the test nor have you had projective tests in your curriculum, and you haven’t taken the board exam yet. Your manager assured you that she has photocopied handouts and a copy of the SSCT which you can refer to for interpretations. Will you administer the exam? a. Yes, because I have a degree in psychology. b. Yes, because she has photocopied handouts and I can study the manual before I administer the test. c. No, because I cannot administer the test even under the supervision of a psychologist. d. No, because I have to ask permission from the psychologist first.  Industrial/ Organizational Psychology Test 1 5. It discusses how to divide up professional tasks in the most efficient and effective way. 1. A type of Organization Theory that focuses on the emotional and psychological components of people's behavior in an organization. This theory argues that a a. Contingency Theory sense of belonging and social acceptance is an important aspect of positive b. Classical Theory performance in the workplace. This means that effective leaders understand c. Open-system Theory how the group dynamics may contribute to the success of the organization d. Modern Theory overall. 6. A concept that argues that an organization's environment influences it, and a. Modern Theory understanding the impact of this influence may help managers develop more b. Classical Theory effective leadership strategies. Theorist categorize the environmental factors c. Neo-classical Theory that impact an organization as specific or general. d. Motivation Theory a. Contingency Theory 2. This type theory includes the study of what drives and inspires members of an b. Classical Theory organization to work toward their professional goals. The goal of this is to c. Open-system Theory increase company productivity on the basis that appropriately encourages d. Modern Theory employees to perform more efficiently, thus increasing production and profit. 7. This type of theory that focuses on the rigid hierarchy of the organizations, the a. Modern Theory specialization of tasks, and financial incentives for employees. b. Classical Theory c. Neo-classical Theory a. Contingency Theory d. Motivation Theory b. Classical Theory c. Open-system Theory 3. Theorist based this approach on system analysis and used both quantitative and d. Modern Theory behavioural sciences to develop it. 8. This theory talks about ways and ideas that focus on the emotional beings of the organization. a. Modern Theory b. Classical Theory a. Open-system Theory c. Neo-classical Theory b. Neo- Classical Theory d. Motivation Theory c. Motivation Theory d. Modern Theory 4. Theorist based this approach on system analysis and used both quantitative and behavioural sciences to develop it. 9. This theory considers interactions between people within an organization and surrounding environment, as well as the interpersonal interactions between a. Contingency Theory members of the organization. b. Classical Theory c. Open-system Theory a. Neo-classical Theory d. Modern Theory b. Motivation Theory c. Modern Theory d. Classical Theory 10. This theory require business leaders to thoroughly understand their employees’ 14. This theory require business leaders to thoroughly understand their employees’ behavioral patterns and preferences to recognize the most beneficial way to behavioral patterns and preferences to recognize the most beneficial way to support them. Managers may consider intrinsic and extrinsic factors that can support them. Managers may consider intrinsic and extrinsic factors that can impact their employees’ feelings and experiences in order to develop effective impact their employees’ feelings and experiences in order to develop effective systems and managerial strategies. systems and managerial strategies. a. Contingency Theory a. Contingency Theory b. Motivation Theory b. Motivation Theory c. Open-system Theory c. Open-system Theory d. Classical Theory d. Classical Theory 11. The manufacturing industry is an example of this type of organizational theory. 15. Disadvantages of this theory are more employee pressure and less focus on Jobs are broken down into smaller tasks. Each employee performs one or two human relations and employee satisfaction. tasks that they are skilled and trained in. The processes are designed for maximum efficiency and productivity. a. Contingency Theory b. Motivation Theory a. Neo-classical Theory c. Open-system Theory b. Motivation Theory d. Classical Theory c. Modern Theory d. Classical Theory 16. Downfall of this theory is over-reliance on data relying solely on data and quantitative analysis may lead to decision-making that lacks creativity and 12. This theory is also called decision theory, which views organizations as a innovations. Managers may become too focused on numbers and metrics, structure composed of choice makers, and argues that there is no right way to overlooking qualitative factors that could be crucial for the organization’s make decision. Theorist believe that management is responsible for analyzing success. business situations and then acting accordingly to address any issues or challenges. a. Neo-classical Theory b. Motivation Theory a. Contingency Theory c. Modern Theory b. Motivation Theory d. Classical Theory c. Open-system Theory d. Classical Theory 17. This theory argues that the ideal decision or choice may differ from one organization to another, so choices are dependent on various internal and 13. ______ is the sociological study of the structure and operations of social external factors. There is no one-size-fits-all approach to a problem. organizations, including companies and bureaucratic institutions. a. Contingency Theory a. Organization Theory b. Motivation Theory b. Behaviorist Theory c. Open-system Theory c. Sociocultural Theory d. Classical Theory d. None of the above 18. This element of neo-classical theory emphasizes that every _____ has emotions, 22. The ______ involves sophisticated mathematical and statistical techniques, feelings, hopes, aspirations, and expectations. which can be complex and time-consuming for managers to apply. It may require specialized knowledge and training, making it challenging for some a. Work groups managers to implement effectively. b. Participative Management c. Individual a. Modern Theory d. Organization b. Neo-Classical Theory c. Classical Theory 19. One advantage of this management theory it can help reduce confusion and d. Open-System Theory time loss regarding who is responsible for what duties. The division of labor here is abundantly clear, and the responsibilities and expectations of employees are 23. The ________ refers to the fact that people will modify their behavior simply clearly communicated. because they are being observed. a. Contingency Theory a. Pygmalion Effect b. Motivation Theory b. Placebo Effect c. Open-system Theory c. Hawthorne Effect d. Classical Theory d. None of the Above 20. This type of management theory uses mathematical and statistical methods to 24. The ______ theory states that all organizations are affected considerably by assess performance within organization. Managers can use this data to their environment. The environment of an organization may consist of social understand and employee behaviors and develop solutions that maximize the forces, political forces, economic forces, and other organizations. potential of their workforce. a. Contingency Theory a. Modern Theory b. Classical Theory b. Neo-Classical Theory c. Open-system Theory c. Classical Theory d. Modern Theory d. None of the above 25. Which of the following theories does not belong to Motivation Theories in 21. Managers equipped with this approach can respond to rapid changes, Management? technological advancements, and evolving market conditions, ensuring the organization remains competitive and relevant. a. Herzberg’s Motivation Theory b. McClelland’s Three Need Theory a. Modern Theory c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs b. Neo-Classical Theory d. Mayo’s Theory in Management c. Classical Theory d. Open-System Theory 26. It is a Motivation Theory which is also known as Two-Factor or Hygiene Theory. It suggests that individuals have two categories of needs when it comes to work – Hygiene and Motivators. a. Herzberg’s Motivation Theory b. McClelland’s Three Need Theory c. Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs d. Mayo’s Theory in Management 27. David McClelland’s Theory of Management suggests that each person has three 32. The need to feel safe. In the workplace, this could translate to simply needing basic needs; which of the following does not belong to the group. to be in a safe work environment. a. Need for Nurture a. Social b. Need for Power b. Security c. Need for Achievement c. Physical d. Need for Affiliation d. Self-Actualization e. Ego 28. There are five needs in Maslow’s theory of work motivation. According to Maslow once an individual has ticked all the other needs off, they will move into a stage 33. According to David McClelland a person’s particular need will have a significant where they become more creative or growth-oriented. What need is this? impact on their behavior. Which of the following choices is a type of need in which the person is motivated by having a position of control. They are typically a. Social strong leaders and self-disciplined. b. Security c. Physical a. Need for Nurture d. Self-Actualization b. Need for Power e. Ego c. Need for Achievement 29. It’s a lowest need for the fundamental basics. These need closely correlate to a d. Need for Affiliation person’s salary. 34. A type of need according to McClelland in which the person is at home in a a. Social group or collaborative environment. They work well with others and seek out b. Security social interactions. c. Physical d. Self-Actualization a. Need for Nurture e. Ego b. Need for Power c. Need for Achievement 30. It’s a need to belong in a group. Humans will seek to form groups and want to d. Need for Affiliation feel like a valued member of that group. 35. In McClelland’s theory, it is a type of need in which this person is motivated by a. Social success. They thrive on challenging situations and typically set themselves hard b. Security to reach goals and work to excel at them. c. Physical d. Self-Actualization a. Need for Nurture e. Ego b. Need for Power c. Need for Achievement 31. It’s a need to achieve recognition or status. d. Need for Affiliation a. Social b. Security c. Physical d. Self-Actualization e. Ego 36. A manager facing a situation with an employee who regularly shows up late to 40. This is the most common type of motivation, and it’s what you are probably work. A manager could have a written protocol for this situation in which there familiar with. It involves rewards, punishment, and fear of failure. The idea is is only one option: give the employee notice. What type or organization theory that if you do something or achieve something then someone will reward or is being implemented? punish you based on how well they think it went. a. Contingency Theory a. Intrinsic b. Classical Theory b. Introjected c. Open-system Theory c. Extrinsic d. Modern Theory d. Identified 37. A type of motivation that is a form of internal drive that comes from within. It’s 41. Who is the father of Neo Classical Theory? the motivation to do something because you want to, not because someone else says so. a. Frederick W. Taylor b. Elton Mayo a. Intrinsic c. Max Weber b. Introjected d. Henri Fayol c. Extrinsic d. Identified 38. It is a form of internal motivation, whereby you’re motivated by your own beliefs and values. If you believe that being successful means doing something in particular, then this type of motivation will help drive your actions. a. Intrinsic b. Introjected c. Extrinsic d. Identified 39. A type of motivation in which you are motivated by the desire to be like someone else. You want to be like them because you think they are cool, successful, or just plain awesome. a. Intrinsic b. Introjected c. Extrinsic d. Identified  Industrial/ Organizational Psychology Test 2 5. During WWI, I/O Psychology made its first big impact during World War I. Soldiers had to be assigned to various units and within the Armed forces. I/O 1. A branch of psychology that applies the principles of psychology to the Psychologists were employed to test recruits and place them in appropriate workplace. positions. The testing was accomplished through tests of mental ability. Which one was for recruits who could read? a. Personnel Psychology b. Organizational Psychology a. Alpha c. Ergonomics b. Beta d. Industrial-Organizational Psychology c. Charlie d. Delta 2. The study and practice in areas such as analyzing jobs, recruiting applicants, selecting employees, training, and then evaluating them. Identify which area of Psychology (Industrial or Organizational) do the following items belong a. Personnel Psychology b. Organizational Psychology 6. Policies and Processes c. Ergonomics 7. Interpersonal Relationships d. Industrial-Organizational Psychology 8. Job Analysis and Design 9. Training 3. This concentrates on workplace design, human-machine interaction, physical 10. Group and Team Dynamics fatigue and stress. 11. Organizational Development and Change 12. Job Satisfaction a. Personnel Psychology 13. Psychological Testing and Assessment b. Organizational Psychology 14. Personnel Selection c. Ergonomics 15. Leadership d. Industrial-Organizational Psychology 16. Motivation 17. This is known as the cornerstone of personnel selection. 4. Hawthorne effect is well known as the employees’ change of behavior due solely to the fact that they are receiving attention or are being observed. It a. Job evaluation demonstrated that employee behavior was complex and that the interpersonal b. Job analysis interactions between managers and employees played a tremendous role in c. Training employee behavior. However, what was this study initially designed for? d. Salary a. How levels of lighting, and temperatures affect employee 18. This type of recruitment means promoting someone from within the performance. organization b. How work schedules, and breaks affect employee performance. How wages affect employee performance a. Interpersonal recruitment c. All of the above. b. External recruitment d. None of the choices are correct. c. Internal recruitment d. Campus recruitment 19. This type of recruitment method is designed to provide information in a personal 24. This refers to a disadvantage of unstructured interviews where the interview fashion to as many applicants as possible, as many types of organizations have performance of one applicant may affect the interview score given to the next booths at the same location. applicant. a. Internet recruitment a. Primacy Effects b. Electronic media recruitment b. Contrast Effects c. Job Fairs c. Negative Information Bias d. Point-of-purchase d. Interviewer-Interviewee Similarity 20. This type of recruitment method where a job vacancy is placed where customers 25. Effective selection techniques involve 4 characteristics. Which among the items are likely to see them. do not belong? a. Internet recruitment a. Validity b. Electronic media recruitment b. Reliability c. Job Fairs c. Cost-efficient d. Point-of-purchase d. All of these characteristics belong e. None of these characteristics belong 21. To enhance employee morale and motivation, it is often good to give current employees an advantage in obtaining new internal positions. 26. Which among the following statements is true? 0 points a. This statement is true a. There can be validity without reliability b. This statement is false b. There can be reliability without validity c. This statement is neither true or false c. Unsure d. Unsure 27. What is the Taylor-Russell table designed to estimate? 22. Which among the recruitment methods is identified to be the most effective? a. The percentage of future employees who will be successful a. Internet recruitment on the job if the b. Internal Recruitment b. organization uses a particular test. c. Employee Referral c. The percentage of employees who are likely to resign from the d. Newspaper ads organization once hired. d. The percentage of employees who might demand a higher 23. Which among the statements are true regarding structures of interviews? compensation in the future I. Structured interviews are more reliable and valid 28. In Making Hiring Decisions, which refers to applicants being rank-ordered on The source of questions for a structured interview is the job analysis the basis of their test scores? II. Unstructured interviews are more reliable and valid a. Unadjusted Top-Down Selection III. The source of questions for a structured interview is the salary range. b. Rule of Three c. Random Selection a. Only I is true and the rest is false. b. Only I and II are true and the rest are false c. Only III is true and the rest are false. d. Only III and IV are true and the rest are false. 29. Which is true about the Rule of Three selection? 33. When work peers are involved in appraisals, which among the given statements is false? a. The highest, mid, and lowest scorers are called for a special interview in order to determine the main differences. a. Peers often see the actual behavior of the subject employee b. The three lowest scorers are given another set of test in order to b. Employees tend to react worse to negative feedback from peers give them a fair chance than experts c. The names of top three scorers are given to the person c. Employees tend to react more open to negative feedback making the hiring decision from peers and experts d. Reliable only when the peers are similar and well acquainted to the 30. All are reasons on evaluating employee performance, except? employees being rated a. Determining Salary Increases 34. In determining training needs, this determines the types of training that is b. Making Promotion Decisions needed in an organization, as well as the extent to which training is a practical c. Providing employee training and feedback means of achieving an organization’s goal. d. Making Termination Decision e. Conducting Personnel Research a. Conducting needs analysis f. None of them are reasons b. Task Analysis g. All of them are reasons c. Team Building budget analysis d. Person analysis 31. In evaluating employee performance, which is the most important use of performance evaluation? 35. In motivating employees to participating actively in training, skill-based pay refers to a training program that is designed to increase a particular skill an a. Determining Salary Increases employee needs either to be promoted or receive a pay raise. Which refers to b. Making Promotion Decisions pay for skills used across multiple jobs? c. Providing employee training and feedback d. Making Termination Decision a. Vertical Skill plans b. Horizontal Skill plans 32. This refers to when subordinates are the ones who provide feedback. 1 point c. Depth Skill plans d. Basic Skills plans a. Downward feedback b. Upward feedback 36. What is the most common training method? c. Peer feedback d. Customer feedback a. Classroom instruction b. Team Building c. Web conference d. Company Retreat 37. This is the extent to which a person views himself as valuable and worthy 42. This refers to the extent to which an employee identifies with and is involved with an organization a. Self-esteem b. Personality a. Job satisfaction c. Motivation b. Organizational commitment d. Self-worth c. Loyalty d. Performance level 38. What theory applies to the instance where employees who feel good about themselves are motivated to perform better at work than employees who do not 43. What are legal grounds for terminating an employee? feel that they are valuable and worthy people? a. Failure to qualify in the probationary period a. Best-self theory b. Violation of Company rules b. Consistency theory c. Reduction in force c. Confidence theory d. Inability to perform d. Mirror theory e. All of above 39. This states type of motivation refers to when an employee will seek to perform 44. Policy Manual is usually specific and lengthy, and contains all the rules and well because they either enjoy performing the actual tasks or enjoy the policies under which the organization operates. The Employee Handbook is challenge of successfully completing the task. much shorter and contains only the most essential policies and rules, as well as general summaries of less important rules. a. Intrinsic Motivation b. Extrinsic Motivation a. Only the first statement is true. c. Self-Motivation b. Only the second statement is true. d. Work Performance Inventory c. Both statements are true d. Neither statements are true. 40. This is based on the premise that our levels of motivation and job satisfaction are related to how fairly we believe we are treated in comparison with others. 45. In factors affecting group performance, this refers to the extent to which group members like and trust one another, are committed to accomplishing a team a. Equality theory goal, and share a feeling of group pride. b. Equity theory c. Motivation increase a. Group Homogeneity d. All of above b. Group Cohesiveness c. Group Size 41. This refers to the attitude an employee has toward their job. d. Conflict a. Job satisfaction 46. This refers to when members become cohesive and like-minded that they make b. Organizational commitment poor decisions despite contrary information that might reasonably lead them to c. Loyalty other options d. Performance level a. Group Homogeneity b. Group Cohesiveness c. Groupthink d. Conflict 47. This refers to psychological and behavioral reaction to a perception that another person is keeping you from reaching a goal a. Group Homogeneity b. Group Cohesiveness c. Groupthink d. Conflict 48. Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences between 1 point traditional vs. strategic HR management? a. Traditional HR should focus on being a champion of employees. b. Traditional HR focuses more on transactional, recordkeeping activities. c. Strategic HR focuses more on compensation and staffing as opposed to other HR activities. d. Strategic HR is also called personnel management 49. Two views of human beings, that a manager holds one view of their employees; these assumptions molded their behavior toward their employees a. McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y b. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs c. Mayo’s Theory X and Theory Y 50. In Theory X and Theory Y, which refers to the assumption that that employees like work, are creative, seek responsibility, and can exercise self-direction. a. Theory X b. Theory Y 51. What school of thought or theory focuses on worker satisfaction and 1 point informal workplace organizations to address employee productivity? a. McGregor's Human Relations b. Maslow's Human Relations c. Mayo’s Human Relations