Physio Exams PDF

Question 1 Through the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, CO2 Which of the following is a TRUE statement reacts with water to form bicarbonate and regarding the central chemoreceptor? hydrogen ion. H+ ions cross the blood-brain barrier stim...

Question 1 Through the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, CO2 Which of the following is a TRUE statement reacts with water to form bicarbonate and regarding the central chemoreceptor? hydrogen ion. H+ ions cross the blood-brain barrier stimulating Inside the RBC, the gas reacts with hemoglobin sensor neurons. to form carbamino compound. Although CO2 has little direct effect in CO2 diffuses into the blood gas barrier to stimulating the neurons in the chemosensitive reach the plasma where it combines with area, it does have a potent indirect effect. HCO3 ion. Changes in H+ concentration in the blood has considerably greater effect in stimulating the Question 4 chemosensitive neurons than changes in blood Aside from gas exchange, the respiratory CO2 system has metabolic functions including: CO2 is converted to carbaminohemoglobin which Synthesis and utilization of surfactants has a potent direct stimulatory effect on Storage of histamine, prostaglandin and kallikrein respiration Partial metabolism of prostaglandins and bradykinin Question 2 Activation of angiotensin I to angiotensin II Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes All of the above the relationship between oxygen and hemoglobin? Question 5 After one oxygen molecule attaches, hemoglobin What is the predominant mechanism for the rearranges itself making succeeding molecules fall in pulmonary vascular resistance that easier to attach occurs as the pulmonary artery pressure is raised Hemoglobin molecule can carry 4 oxygen from low levels? molecules Distension There are about 270 million key molecules in Recruitment each RBC and each gram of hemoglobin can Perfusion carry 1.34 ML of oxygen Diffusion Initially the conformational state of hemoglobin Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases makes it difficult for oxygen to attach through the recruitment of unused capillaries, All of the above are correct increasing blood flow. Question 3 Question 6 Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood from Which of the following mechanisms causing the tissue to the lungs. Which of the following is hypoxemia is associated with a normal A-a not a known mode of transport? gradient? CO2 produced by tissues passes through the Right to left shunt capillary wall to be dissolved in blood. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch Diffusion limitation Low inspired PO2  Which of the following factors does NOT Question 7 influence the ease of air passage and the Which of the following biologically active amount of energy required for ventilation? substance is activated in the lungs? Airway resistance Angiotensin I Alveolar surface tension Prostaglandin Lung compliance Surfactant None of the above Bradykinin Question 12 Question 8 At the end of a normal inspiration, the extra Ventilation is increased when there is: volume of air that can be inspired with An increase in pH maximal effort is known as: Decrease in pO2 Inspiratory Reserve Volume Decrease in pCO2 Inspiratory Capacity All of the above Vital Capacity Tidal Volume Question 9 Which of the following describes surfactants Question 13 inside the alveolus? Which of the following factors affect diffusion: Surfactants lower the compliance of the lung. Surface area where diffusion occurs Surfactants make surface tension in the Blood gas barrier thickness alveoli vary with lung volume. Solubility and molecular weight of CO2 and Surfactants increase the surface tension inside oxygen the alveoli. Gradient of CO2 and oxygen between the alveoli Surfactants facilitate alveolar collapse at and capillary end-expiration. All of the above Question 10 Question 14 The oxygen dissociation curve plots the Which of the following statements best describes proportion of hemoglobin in its oxygen-laden form lung volume and vascular resistance? against the prevailing oxygen tension. Which of At low lung volumes, alveolar vessels are open the following factors affecting the curve causes and extra-alveolar vessels are narrow due to oxygen to take-up faster (leftward shift)? minimal traction. High pCO2 At low lung volumes vascular resistance rises. Higher temperatures At high lung volumes vascular resistance rises. Higher pH At high lung volumes, alveolar vessels are Higher concentrations of 2,3 Diphosphoglycerate squeezed while extra-alveolar vessels are open due to traction. Question 11 All of the above Question 15 External intercostal muscles The main function of the respiratory system is Rectus abdominis to: Diaphragm Take in oxygen during inspiration and blow Scalene muscles out carbon dioxide during expiration. Protect the body against dust and microbes Question 20 entering the body through mucus production, cilia Which type of respiratory failure is associated and coughing. with a decreased in PaO2 and increase in Facilitate sound production and voice PaCO2? enunciation. Type I Regulate blood pH while balancing production of Type II chemical mediators. Type III Type IV Question 16 Which of the following structure is part of the Question 21 upper respiratory system? Inspiratory neuronal action potentials controlling Larynx the basic rhythm of respiration is generated Pharynx mainly where? Trachea Dorsal respiratory group Bronchi Ventral respiratory group Pneumotaxic center Question 17 Central medulla Which of the following correctly describes the anatomic dead space? Question 22 Spans from the trachea to the alveolar ducts Which of the following correctly described the Area of the human airways where no gas pulmonary and systemic circulation? exchange occurs Systemic circulation is a high-pressure Corresponds to the residual volume system while the pulmonary circulation is a Approximately 500 mL after end expiration low-pressure system Systemic circulation is a low resistance system Question 18 while the pulmonary circulation has high Which of the following cannot be measured using resistance system spirometry? Arteries of the pulmonary circulation are thicker Inspiratory Reserve Volume and contain more muscles compared to the Vital Capacity systemic circulation Functional Residual Capacity Arteries of the systemic circulation do not need to Tidal Volume divert blood from one region to another compared to the pulmonary circulation. Question 19 What is the main muscle of inspiration? Question 23 What is the use of supervised exercise, Question 27 education, support, and behavioral Constriction of arterioles in an organ promotes intervention to improve functional capacity and reabsorption of interstitial fluid from that organ. enhance quality of life in patients with chronic This is because: respiratory disorders? Constriction of arterioles will reduce intravascular Pulmonary rehabilitation hydrostatic pressure in the distal capillary bed. Bilevel positive airway pressure course Constriction of arterioles will increase osmotic Non-invasive ventilation pressure in the interstitial tissue of that organ. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing Constriction of arterioles will increase intravascular hydrostatic pressure in the Question 24 distal capillary bed. What is considered as the basic structure of the Constriction of arterioles will reduce osmotic lung? pressure in the interstitial tissue of that organ. Terminal bronchiole Intrapulmonary airways Question 28 Acinus An increase in which of the following would be Alveoli expected to decrease blood flow in a vessel? Pressure gradient across the vessel Question 25 Radius of the vessel Which of the following statements regarding the Viscosity of the blood respiratory airway is incorrect? Plasma colloid osmotic pressure Cartilages and fibrous tissues are found at the level of the bronchus to keep the large airways Question 29 always patent. Shifting the venous return curve up and to the Cartilages, glands, smooth muscles, cilia and right will have which effect on cardiac output? mucus layer are most abundant at the alveoli. Cardiac output will decrease The proportion of smooth muscles is greater at Cardiac output will increase the level of the smaller airways compared to the Cardiac output remains the same larger airways. Cardiac output will increase first then decrease Type II cells produced surfactants to keep the alveolus open. Question 30 Which of the following statements is true? Question 26 The total peripheral resistance to blood flow is Incremental changes in which of the following greater than the resistance to flow through any of will have the greatest effect on blood flow? the systemic organs. Diameter of the blood vessel The total peripheral resistance to blood flow Pressure gradient across the vessel is less than the resistance to flow through any Length of the vessel of the systemic organs. Viscosity of the blood The total peripheral resistance to blood flow is Increased blood volume equal to the resistance to flow through any of the None of the above systemic organs. The total peripheral resistance to blood flow is Question 35 not related to the resistance to flow through any Which of the following parts of the circulation has of the systemic organs. the highest compliance? Capillaries Question 31 Large arteries Which of the following statements is true? Veins Cardiac output is always equal to venous Arterioles return. Cardiac output is always greater than venous Question 36 return. Autoregulation of blood flow implies that Cardiac output is always less than venous return. ________ is adjusted by local mechanisms to Cardiac output may be greater or less than ensure constant flow through an organ. venous return. Arterial pressure Vascular resistance Question 32 Venous return Which of the following vessels has the largest Cardiac output effect on total peripheral resistance? Arteries Question 37 Arterioles Freeing an artery from its neural influences Veins would result in _____? Venules Vasoconstriction Capillaries Vasodilation Neither (no effect) Question 33 Both If you decrease a blood vessel's radius in half, by what fraction does the blood flow change? Question 38 1/2 Which of the following will result in an elevated 1/4 mean arterial pressure? 1/8 Low oxygen in arterial blood 1/16 Increased intracranial pressure 1/32 Sense of danger All of the above Question 34 Which of the following will shift the venous return Question 39 curve up and to the right? Your patient has lower than normal mean Decreased blood volume arterial pressure and higher than normal pulse Decreased venous tone rate. Which of the following may be the cause?  Low blood volume Endothelial derived hyperpolarizing factor Anxiety (EDHF) Elevated intracranial pressure Prostacyclin (PGI2) Exercise Question 44 Question 40 In a steady state, venous return will be greater Which of the following will NOT increase blood than cardiac output when: flow through a skeletal muscle? Peripheral venous pressure is higher than normal An increase in tissue PCO2 Blood volume is higher than normal An increase in tissue adenosine Cardiac sympathetic nerve activity is lower than The presence of alpha-receptor blocking drugs normal Sympathetic activation None of the above Sympathetic activation reduces blood flow to Question 45 skeletal muscle by vasoconstriction. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning turbulent blood flow? Question 41 The resistance to turbulent flow is greater than Which of the following substances in plasma is laminar flow. the major factor that contributes to plasma Above a critical velocity, blood flow becomes colloid osmotic pressure? turbulent. Sodium chloride Turbulence can create vibrations that can be Glucose detected as murmurs. Albumin Turbulence is found normally in the aorta and in Cholesterol narrowed vessels. Turbulent flow rate is proportional to the cube Question 42 root of the driving pressure. Myocardial blood flow is controlled primarily by local metabolic mechanisms. Which of the Question 46 following conditions will normally increase Which of the following conditions favor edema coronary blood flow? formation? Increase in arterial pressure Lymphatic drainage Increase in heart rate Venous drainage Increase in sympathetic activity Decreased plasma protein concentration All of the above Greatly decreased capillary pore size Question 43 Question 47 Which of the following endothelial products result Which of the following will require the smallest in vasoconstriction? increase in oxygen consumption by the heart? Endothelin Generating an increase in left ventricular Nitric oxide pressure.  Severe hypertension. Question 51 Generating an increase in stroke volume. The baroreceptors that serve as sensors for Aortic stenosis. blood pressure are located at the Brachial arteries Question 48 Tibial arteries Which of the following blood vessels has the Carotid arteries greatest compliance? Renal arteries Arteries Veins Question 52 Arterioles Chronic responses to exercise are the long term Capillaries effects on the body after: Veins are highly compliant, accommodating large 2-4 weeks volumes of blood with minimal pressure changes. 1- 3 months 3-6 months Question 49 6- 12 months Which of the following capillaries has the lowest capillary permeability to plasma molecules? Question 53 Glomerular Which of the following is the best description of Liver exercise physiology? Muscle It is the study of how the body functions during Brain the stress of physical activity It is the study of how the body adapts to chronic Question 50 application of physical activity In our experiments simulating low-gravity None of the above are true situations, we immerse the subject in tepid water Only a and b are true up to the neck. We notice that it produces a diuresis (increased urination) in many Question 54 individuals. Which of the following Which of the following statements is true mechanisms may account for this regarding the redistribution of blood during phenomenon? heavy exercise? A. Reduction of the effects of gravity increases The actual amount of blood flow to the brain venous return, cardiac output and renal blood remains the same flow. Cardiac output can rise to as much as 5x resting B.Pressure of water on the lower body reduces value venous capacitance, thereby increases venous Most of the blood is redirected to the kidneys return, cardiac output and renal blood flow. The gastrointestinal tract receives a relatively C. Dive reflex is stimulated and bradycardia increased percentage of blood flow ensues. D. A and B only Question 55 The acute increase in cardiac output seen in Decreased heart rate exercise is due primarily to which of the following Decreased heart mass factors? Decreased stroke volume Increased venous pooling in the veins Decreased cardiac output Increased heart rate Increased arteriolar diameter at the Question 60 gastrointestinal organs Which of the following are effects of regular Increased size of the athlete’s heart training? Promotes bone strength and thickness Question 56 Keeps weight down Which of the following is an acute response of Improvement in sports performance the body to exercise? All of the above Increased endurance Increased cardiac muscle thickness Question 61 Increased rate of ventilation Lactate accumulates at the end of glycolysis, Conversion of muscle fibers from fast twitch to under which of the following conditions? slow twitch If oxygen is not available If too much pyruvate is present Question 57 If lactate dehydrogenase is present Which of the following psychological are If NADH + H is present positively affected by exercise? Self-acceptance Question 62 Mood The final acceptor of electrons in the electron Cognition transport chain is: All of the above Carbon dioxide Oxygen Question 58 Calcium Blood redistribution during exercise is mostly Hydrogen due to which of the following events? Parasympathetic neural upregulation Question 63 Decrease in pCO2 and increase in pH in serum The following statements about sweat glands Increase in thoracic cavitary pressures are true, EXCEPT: Vasodilation to muscular capillary beds When all of the sweat glands are working at Blood flow redistribution during exercise is maximum capacity, the rate of perspiration for a primarily achieved by vasodilation in active human being may exceed three liters per hour. muscles. The degree of secretory activity is regulated by neural and hormonal mechanisms Question 59 Men sweat more than women Which of the following are effects on the heart of The amount of sweat produced is affected by chronic exercise? the respiratory rate Question 64 Question 69 Which of the following is the most rapidly Which of the following statements are true available source of energy within a muscle cell? regarding the decrease in body fat that occurs Creatine kinase in chronic exercise? Adenylate kinase When we exercise, our body burns calories Glycogen through an increase in heart rate Phosphocreatine To burn calories, we need to be exercising between 60-85% of our maximum heart rate to Question 65 see a decrease in our body fat levels Which of the following is the main source of Maximum heart rate is estimated by the energy for sprint runners? equation: Max HR = 220-age ATP and phosphocreatine All of the above are true Glycogen Kreb’s cycle Question 70 Electron transport chain Which of the following are secretions enhanced during exercise? Question 66 Endorphins The anticipatory response curve can be Adrenalin observed in which of the following systems? insulin Cardiorespiratory system a and b only Cerebrovascular system Musculoskeletal system Question 71 Genitourinary system Which of the following is NOT and end product of glycolysis? Question 67 Pyruvate The following are chronic responses to CO2 exercise of the vascular system, EXCEPT: NADH + H Increased flow H2O Increased vasoreactivity Increased angiogenesis Question 72 None of the above During long duration endurance exercise, which of the following substrates will be the main Question 68 sources of energy? When lactate accumulates in the muscle cell, Phosphocreatine and triacylglycerol which of the following effects is observed? Glycogen and triacylglycerol Accumulation of lactate dehydrogenase Glycogen and amino acids Increased muscle contractility Pyruvate and glycogen Slowing of enzymatic reactions Increased pH of the muscle Incorrect Question 73 In terms of Rh blood groups, which situation is Which of the following catabolic processes occurs more worrisome for a subsequent pregnancy? only in the presence of oxygen? Rh- father and Rh+ mother Phopho-Creatinine hydrolysis Rh- father and Rh- mother Glycolysis Rh+ father and Rh- mother Fatty acid catabolism Rh+ father and Rh+ mother Hydrolysis of ATP Question 78 Question 74 In a woman with iron deficiency anemia, there is Which of the following statements is true an increase in which of the following? regarding the stimuli for increasing the MVC (mean corpuscle volume) ventilator response during exercise? MCH (mean corpuscle hemoglobin) The cerebral component plays the dominant role MCHC (mean corpuscle hemogobin in simulating hyperventilation concentration) pCO2 and pH in the blood has no role in Serum ferritin concentration stimulating hyperventilation Serum total iron binding capacity (TIBC) Proprioceptor fibers in the musculoskeletal system may initiate the increased ventilator Question 79 response Which of the following may result in clinically Ventilatory response is stimulated by the significant blood transfusion reaction due to cardiovascular response via spinal reflex incompatibility? pathways Type O+ blood transfused to Type AB+ person Question 75 Type AB+ blood transfused to Type O+ Which of the following is a chronic response to person exercise? Type A- blood transfused to Type A+ person Muscle group hypertrophy Type B+ blood transfused to a Type AB+ person Thoracic cage expansion Question 80 increased storage of glycogen in muscle and The white blood cells having receptors for IgE liver on their membrane are: increased secretion of estrogen and testosterone Basophils Eosinophils Question 76 Lymphocytes What is the normal range of blood acidity (pH)? Neutrophils 6.5-7.5 Monocytes 7.0-7.25 Basophils have IgE receptors and play a role in 7.35-7.45 allergic reactions by releasing histamine. 7.5-7.75 Question 81 Question 77 Which of the following substances is primarily responsible for osmotic pressure of blood?  Electrolytes Question 86 Albumin The plasma proteins are not involved in which Globulin of the following properties of human blood? Fibrinogen Blood clotting Blood viscosity Question 82 Plasma colloid osmotic pressure Considering the relative numbers of Transport of oxygen hematopoietic cells suspended in plasma, what Transport of hormones would be the major role of blood? Oxygen transport Question 87 Immunity Which blood cell is most actively involved in the Anticoagulation process of hemostasis? Phagocytosis Red blood cell Basophil Question 83 Pluripotent stem cell Which of the following white blood cells are Platelet actively involved in phagocytosis? Basophils and eosinophils Question 88 Basophils and neutrophils Megakaryocytes give rise to Lymphocytes and eosinophils Erythrocytes Neutrophils and monocytes Agranulocytes Monocytes and lymphocytes Granulocytes Thrombocytes Question 84 Lymphocytes During intrauterine life, formation of the red blood cells begins in which tissue? Question 89 Bone barrow Which of the following is/are the functions of the Liver plasma component of blood? Lymph nodes pH and temperature buffer Mesoderm of the yok sac Solution for dissolution of solutes and gases Spleen Vehicle for transportation of nutrients and wastes All of the above Question 85 One molecule of hemoglobin contains Question 90 One heme and one polypeptide chain A blood transfusion reaction is likely to occur if One heme and two polypeptide chains a patient with blood group A+ is transfused Four heme and two polypeptide chains with blood group: Four heme and four polypeptide chains A+ Two heme and four polypeptide chains A- O+  O- AB- Question 95 In a patient having vitamin K deficiency, which Question 91 of the following is most commonly observed? Why is it important to know about the different Anemia types of blood groups? Normal clotting time To prevent blood agglutination during Prolonged bleeding time transfusion Prolonged clotting time To avoid transmission of infection during Thrombocytopenia transfusion To protect against chronic organ aging and Question 96 deterioration after transfusion What is the normal value range for white blood To achieve or maintain appropriate blood cells in humans? viscosity after transfusion 1-3x10^9/L 4-10x10^9/L Question 92 11-14x10^9/L Which type of white blood cell is responsible for 15-19x10^9/L mediating allergic reactions? Neutrophils Question 97 Lymphocytes All blood cells differentiate from lymphocyte Eosinophils stem cells. Monocytes True False Question 93 Only during the prenatal stage. During the early prenatal stage, blood cells are Only during the postnatal stage. mainly produced in the: Yolk sac Question 98 Vertebrae Which of the following statements is true about Sternum hemoglobin in red blood cells? Iliac crest One red blood cell generally contains around 275million heme molecules. Question 94 One hemoglobin molecule contains four globin ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is chains. considered to be the measure of which of the One globin chain can carry one oxygen following blood physical-chemical properties? molecule. Stability of colloid solution All of the above are correct. Blood suspensial properties Volume of blood cellular partv Blood viscosity Question 99 Plasma volume Which of the following significantly accounts for the viscosity of blood? Plasma proteins Platelets Red blood cells White blood cells Question 100 Which of the following statements are true of the clotting cascade? The intrinsic pathway is initiated by collagen or other activators The extrinsic pathway is initiated by injury or damage Either pathway leads to a common pathway involving thrombin activation of fibrinogen to fibrin to form a stable clot All of the above are true.  the membrane is permeable to ions other than Question 1 potassium. In which of the following components of the The resting membrane potential is influenced by Action Potential does the continued opening of non-diffusible anions inside the cell, making it voltage-gated potassium channels make the more negative than the equilibrium potential neuronal membrane less excitable? of potassium Absolute Refractory Period Question 4 Relative Refractory Period With regards to the resting membrane potential, which of the following ions is in equilibrium? After-Depolarization Na+ ions After-Hyperpolarization K+ ions During the after-hyperpolarization phase, potassium channels remain open, causing the Cl- ions membrane potential to become more negative, which reduces excitability. None of the above At rest, the membrane potential is closer to the equilibrium potential of potassium (K+), due to Question 2 high permeability to K+ ions and the presence of large anions inside the cell. Action potential travels from the motor end plate on the surface of the muscle to the Triad in the interior of the muscle fiber through which of the following? Question 5 Sarcomere Which of the following is TRUE of electrical synapses? Transverse Tubule Conduction of impulses occurs in only one Terminal Cisternae direction. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum Gap junctions form between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons. The transverse tubule is a crucial structure that helps conduct action potentials from the surface Impulse in the presynaptic axon causes membrane to the deeper regions, ensuring secretion of a neurotransmitter. proper muscle contraction. An interval of at least 0.5 ms occurs before transmission across the synapse is completed. Question 3 Electrical synapses allow direct ion flow through gap junctions, leading to rapid transmission of The resting membrane potential differs from the signals. equilibrium potential of potassium because: A.the Na+-K+-ATPase pump counteracts passive fluxes of sodium and potassium ions. Question 6 the ratio of open potassium leak channels to Calcium ions that bind to Troponin are released sodium channels is very high. from which of the following? large non-diffusible anions are present in the Transverse Tubule interior of the cell. Ryanodine Receptor  Dihydropyridine Receptor What is the main excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain? Sarcoendoplasmic Reticulum Calcium Transport ATPase Serotonin Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic Glutamate reticulum into the cytosol, binding to troponin to initiate muscle contraction. Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Question 7 Which of the following conditions allows farther Question 10 distance of the local potential from the source of stimulation (higher space constant)? When the receptors on the skeletal muscle fibers open with binding of the neurotransmitter from the low internal axoplasmic resistance, low motor neuron, which of the ions pass through the transmembrane resistance ionotropic receptor? high internal axoplasmic resistance, high Sodium transmembrane resistance Calcium low internal axoplasmic resistance, high transmembrane resistance Chloride high internal axoplasmic resistance, low Potassium transmembrane resistance Explanation: Sodium ions flow into the cell, Explanation: A lower axoplasmic resistance and causing depolarization and initiating muscle higher membrane resistance help depolarization contraction. spread further along the axon. Question 11 Question 8 Synaptic vesicle fusion and release of Which of the following calculates accurately the neurotransmitter from the presynaptic membrane Resting Membrane Potential? is triggered by an increase in intracellular concentration of Nernst Equation sodium ion. Goldman Constant Field Equation calcium ion. Either of the two equations chloride ion. Neither of the two equations potassium ion. Increased intracellular calcium triggers vesicle Correct Answer: Nernst Equation fusion and neurotransmitter release. Explanation: The Nernst equation calculates the equilibrium potential for individual ions like K+ and Na+. Question 12 Which of the following is a thick filament? Question 9 Actin  Myosin Serotonin Troponin Glutamate Tropomyosin Acetylcholine Myosin is the thick filament responsible for Norepinephrine muscle contraction. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction. Question 13 Which of the following is the main effect of Question 16 Dopamine? Which of the following is NOT a SNARE? Regulation of mood and affect. Syntaxin Attention, Memory and REM sleep. SNAP-25 Motivated behavior in response to reward. Synaptobrevin Attention to novel and potentially challenging stimuli. Synaptotagmin Synaptotagmin is involved in calcium signaling, not a part of the SNARE complex. Dopamine plays a key role in reward processing and motivational behavior. Question 17 Question 14 Non-gated potassium ion leak channels are most essential in which of the following? Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Long-Term Potentiation (LTP)? Action Potential It is important in learning and memory. Resting Membrane Potential It occurs in the NMDA receptors of the Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential hippocampus. Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential It is due to an increase in the presynaptic Ca2+ levels. These channels allow K+ to leak out, helping to maintain the resting membrane potential. It is characterized by prolonged postsynaptic stimulation for hours to days. LTP is primarily due to postsynaptic changes, not Question 18 increased presynaptic calcium. This serves as a muscle fiber cytoskeleton that participates in the transfer of force from the contractile system to the outside of the muscle Question 15 fiber: The neurotransmitter released by the motor Laminin neuron that binds with the receptor on the skeletal muscle fiber: Dystrophin  Sarcoglycan In patients with lesions in the hippocampus, long term memories are first to be affected. Dystroglycan Working memory is a form of short term memory Dystrophin anchors the actin cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. Working memory is vulnerable to disruptions Working memory is distinct but overlaps with short-term memory. Question 19 Which of the following ions DOES NOT contribute to the generation of the Resting Membrane Question 22 Potential? In posttetanic potentiation, calcium accumulates Sodium in the post-synaptic terminal. Calcium True Chloride False Potassium Posttetanic potentiation involves increased presynaptic calcium, not post-synaptic. Calcium is primarily involved in signaling, not maintaining resting potential. Question 23 Question 20 A patient may present with position sense problem on the right foot if he has a lesion in the Opening of channels to which of these ions following except: produces an Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP)? right medial post central gyrus Sodium left thalamus Calcium ipsilateral dorsal column at the cervical spine Potassium right dorsal column at the thoracic spine None of these ions large sensory neurons subserving the area affected Potassium efflux or chloride influx causes hyperpolarization, leading to IPSPs. Lesions in the thalamus usually cause contralateral sensory deficits. Question 21 Question 24 The following are true about types of memory except: Déjà vu is inappropriate feeling of familiarity with new events of new surroundings and may occur Short term memories are vulnerable to as an aura of a seizure. disruptions True Long term memories are stored for years and sometimes for life False Déjà vu is often linked to temporal lobe epilepsy.  Hippocampus Question 25 Parietal cortex Which of the following will manifest with good Central executive fluency, poor understanding, poor repetition and poor naming? Verbal systems Wernicke’s aphasia The hippocampus is crucial for memory formation and early Alzheimer's pathology. Broca’s aphasia Conduction aphasia Question 29 Global aphasia Habitation is a classic example of non-associative Wernicke’s aphasia is associated with impaired learning. comprehension and repetition. True False Question 26 The following are parts of your peripheral somatosensory system, except: Question 30 Sensory receptor Anosognosia is a characteristic of patients with: Sensory neuron Left parietal cortex Spinothalamic tract Right parietal cortex Dorsal root ganglion Left frontal cortex Dorsal root Left occipital cortex The spinothalamic tract is part of the central Left temporal cortex somatosensory system. Right parietal lesions are associated with Question 27 anosognosia (denial of illness). In sensitization, the stimuli is usually noxious. Question 31 True These are the four types of implicit memory, except: False A. Procedural Sensitization occurs in response to harmful or noxious stimuli. B. Episodic C. Priming Question 28 D. Semantic This is the initial part of the brain affected in E. B and D patients with Alzheimer’s disease Semantic memory is explicit, while procedural, Occipital lobe priming, and classical conditioning are implicit.  Sensitization involves an enhanced response to repeated stimuli. Question 32 The following are true about hippocampus except, Question 36 Converts short term memory to long term memory Higher cortical dysfunction wherein a patient can’t recognize a stimuli despite having intact Part of the medial temporal lobe sensorimotor pathway and mental status: Closely attached to amygdala Aphasia Stores declarative memory Apraxia Receives information from central Agnosia executive/working memory Gait apraxia The hippocampus helps convert short-term memory to long-term but doesn't store declarative Agnosia refers to the inability to recognize memory. objects or stimuli despite intact sensory pathways. Question 33 Question 37 In long term potentiation, Calcium accumulates more in the pre-synaptic terminal. The following are manifestation of left parietal cortex affection, except; True Right left confusion False Finger agnosia Calcium accumulation occurs primarily in the postsynaptic terminal. Tongue apraxia Question 34 Dressing apraxia The brain can generate new neurons in the Ideomotor apraxia olfactory bulb and hippocampus. Tongue apraxia is typically associated with motor True control and speech, not parietal lobe dysfunction. False Neurogenesis occurs in the olfactory bulb and Question 38 hippocampus. The following are true about explicit or declarative memory, except: Question 35 Consciousness is not needed. In sensitization, repeated stimuli evokes less and Dependent on hippocampus. less electrical response. Its retention relies on medial temporal lobe. True Can become implicit memory. False It is a type of long term memory. Explicit memory requires conscious effort to The anti-Mullerian hormones allow the Mullerian recall. duct to become the fallopian tubes, uterus and upper part of the vagina. In the absence of Y chromosome (and thus the Question 39 SRY gene), ovaries develop due to the lack of anti-Mullerian hormone. The following are manifestation of Broca’s aphasia except: Lesion is located on the Broca’s area Question 42 Good fluency What happens when there is a decrease in arterial pressure below normal which relaxes Good understanding the stretch receptors in the baroreceptor system? Poor repetition the vasomotor center is inhibited Poor naming vasodilation occurs Broca’s aphasia is associated with non-fluent speech. increased heart pumping occurs positive feedback is initiated Question 40 A drop in arterial pressure leads to vasodilation and increased heart pumping. The following are part of Gertsmann syndrome except: Astereognosia Question 43 Right left confusion __________ helicine artery and _____________venule outflow will result in penile Finger agnosia erection. Dyscalculia Contracted and high Dysgraphia Contracted and low Gertsmann syndrome typically involves finger Dilated and high agnosia, right-left confusion, and dysgraphia. Dilated and low Erectile tissue requires increased blood flow, not Question 41 constricted arteries. True about gender determination: The embryo still exhibits gender bipotential at 17 Question 44 weeks. Pick the correct sequence: The absence of anti-Mullerian hormone on the X chromosome causes the gonads to develop into Menses- Proliferative phase - Secretory phase ovaries. Luteal phase - Ovulation - Follicular phase The presence of testosterone causes the Wolffian duct to degenerate. Luteal phase - Ovulation - Secretory phase  Proliferative phase - Menses - Secretory phase This represents the correct order of phases in the Question 48 menstrual cycle. This hormone does not control the uterine cycle: Inhibin Question 45 Progesterone Not a phase of the menstrual cycle: Oxytocin Secretory Phase Estrogen Follicular Phase Oxytocin is mainly involved in labor contractions Proliferative Phase and milk ejection, not the menstrual cycle. Menses Menses refers to the shedding phase, not a Question 49 continuous phase. This does not occur if fertilization is successful: The uterine endometrium begins to shed. Question 46 The placenta produces progesterone. What is the Total Body Water (TBW) of a 65Kg adult? The placenta produces human placental lactogen. 32.5 Liters The placenta produces estrogen. 39 Liters Fertilization prevents the shedding of the 45.5 Liters endometrium. 48.75 Liters The TBW is typically about 60% of body weight. Question 50 Which male accessory glands secrete a milky, slightly acidic fluid containing citric acid, Question 47 proteolytic enzymes, acid phosphatase, and seminal plasmin? The degree of effectiveness with which a control system maintains constant conditions is Seminal vesicles determined by the gain of negative feedback. The following is true about GAIN: Prostate gland It is positively correlated to ERROR Bulbourethral gland It is positively correlated to CORRECTION Cowper’s gland It is inversely correlated to CORRECTION The prostate gland secretes this fluid as part of semen. It is equal ERROR Higher gain means a system is better at maintaining homeostasis by correcting deviations. Question 51 True about meiosis: Question 54 Production of two haploid gametes from a What enzyme degrades cyclic GMP and diploid oogonium promotes cessation of erection by decreasing intracellular calcium and cavernosal smooth sometimes called "reduction division" muscle cell contraction? occurs in all types of cells Aromatase Primary oocytes are formed all throughout a Guanylate cyclase female's lifetime Phosphodiesterase Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half. Phosphorylase Phosphodiesterase breaks down cyclic GMP, Question 52 leading to smooth muscle contraction. _____________ is an extremely rare genetic condition characterized by an appearance of accelerated aging in children caused by Question 55 dysfunctional lamins found beneath the inner nuclear membrane. Both plants like animals have epithelia. You are given an epithelium cell on a slide and view this Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria syndrome under the microscope. You decide that this is not from an animal because: Huntington's disease There are no chloroplasts. Hagemoser–Weinstein–Bresnick syndrome There is no cell wall. Hashimoto's disease There is a large vacuole. Progeria is a premature aging disorder. There is a nucleus. Question 53 Function of carbohydrate moieties attached to the outer surface of the cell: Question 56 Many of them have a positive electrical charge, True about the negative feedback mechanism: which gives most cells an overall positive surface charge that repels other positively charged is a rare control mechanism of the body objects. sometimes known as a "vicious cycle" The glycocalyx of some cells attaches to the glycocalyx of other cells, thus attaching cells to Only when a factor becomes deficient does a one another. control system initiate negative feedback. act as receptors for non-binding hormones The degree of effectiveness of a control system is determined by its gain of negative feedback. some carbohydrate moieties inhibit immune reactions Gain indicates how effectively the system corrects deviations. Glycocalyx helps in cell-cell adhesion and signaling. Question 57 This is the most well-known golgi related disease The cell membrane receptors attach to the where the dystrophin (DMD) protein is surface ligands of the particle. _______________ leading to aberrant Golgi organization. membrane receptors repel particle ligands not expressed contractile fibrils in the cytoplasm surround the phagocytic vesicle and contract around its outer highly expressed edge, pushing the vesicle to the exterior intermittently expressed contractile proteins then pinch the stem of the vesicle so completely that the vesicle hangs from partially expressed the cell membrane Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD) involves Phagocytosis involves receptor-ligand binding. malfunction in the Golgi apparatus. Question 61 Question 58 What spermatogenic cells are produced after the A pregnant woman should not contact her doctor first meiotic division of spermatogenic cells? if she experiences this symptom as it does not herald labor: Primary spermatocytes strong, regular contractions Secondary spermatocytes appearance of the mucus plug Spermatids watery discharge Spermatozoa good fetal movement Secondary spermatocytes are the immediate result of meiosis I. Question 62 Question 59 Which part of the male reproductive system is the What is the Extracellular Fluid Volume (ECF) of a site of maturation and development of the 70 Kg adult? capability of motility of sperm? 11 Liters Vas deferens 12 Liters Epididymis 13 Liters Seminiferous tubules 14 Liters Rete testis ECF is about 20% of body weight. The epididymis is where sperm gain motility. Question 60 Question 63 A correct event in the process of phagocytosis: Which is true about the inhibin?  It is produced by Leydig cells Dysfunction of this cellular organelle is said to play a role in the development of Alzheimers's Its production is stimulated by luteinizing disease: hormone Nucleus It has negative feedback to the hypothalamus Endoplasmic reticulum It has negative feedback to the anterior pituitary gland Golgi apparatus Inhibin suppresses FSH secretion from the Cytoskeleton anterior pituitary. Question 67 Question 64 The flagellum of a sperm is different from motile This does not occur during parturition: cilia in this aspect: A few weeks prior to delivery corticotropin much longer releasing hormones start to increase. moves in a whiplike manner Oxytocin levels rise during delivery. contains 9 double tubules Progesterone levels plateau during delivery. has a different type of contractile mechanism Inhibin levels increase and relax the ligaments of the pelvis. Flagella are longer and used for propulsion. Progesterone decreases as labor progresses. Question 68 Complete the following sentence: "In the walls of the gastrointestinal tract, different dissolved nutrients, including carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids, are absorbed Question 65 ___________________________." The following is a function of cholesterol in cell into the extracellular fluid of the blood membranes: into the intracellular fluid of the blood serves as protection from harmful environmental factors out of the extracellular fluid of the blood allows signal transmission out of the intracellular fluid of the blood as adhesion sites for extracellular proteins Nutrients are absorbed into the blood via extracellular fluid. controls membrane fluidity Cholesterol modulates fluidity and permeability. Question 69 This particle is found higher in extracellular Question 66 fluid than in intracellular fluid: Phosphate  Potassium Hodgkin's disease Sodium Magnesium Question 73 Sodium is more concentrated outside the cell. This is a true statement: If no fertilization occurs, meiosis I will not occur. Question 70 Oocytogenesis results in the formation of secondary oocytes. What enzyme promotes benign prostatic hypertrophy in most males over 60 years old? Oogenesis results in the formation of the secondary oocyte which is released during Dihydrotestosterone ovulation. Estrogen Ootidogenesis results in the formation of primary oocytes. Testosterone Aldosterone Incorrect Question 74 Question 71 Not a part of the ovarian cycle: A type of cell membrane protein which attaches to the surface of the membrane and does not development of an ovarian follicle protrude all the way through: production of hormones Central release of ovum during ovulation Integral removal or endometrium from prior ovarian cycle Lateral The removal of the endometrium is part of the Peripheral menstrual cycle, not ovarian. Peripheral proteins are located on the membrane Incorrect surface. Question 75 Which is a characteristic of fast block to Question 72 polyspermy? Hyperphosphorylated Tau proteins disintegrate Calcium ions are released by the oocyte from microtubules and cause neuronal endoplasmic reticulum. dysfunction. They are prone to assemble together to form oligomers and develop into filamentous Granules in the plasma membrane rupture and neurofibrillary tangles (NFTs) causing a disease release hydrolytic enzymes into the extracellular known as: space. Hashimoto's disease Promotes sodium influx and membrane depolarization. Huntington's disease Zonal inhibiting proteins destroy sperm Parkinson's disease receptors. This occurs immediately after fertilization. Question 79 Question 76 TRUE about the conversion of ADP to ATP: What type of cell secretes hormones responsible The enzyme ATP synthetase uses the energy for the enlargement of male sex organs and from the hydrogen ions to convert ADP to ATP. expression of male secondary sex characteristics? The overall process for formation of ATP is called the semiosmotic mechanism of ATP Myoid cells formation. Sertoli cells In glycolysis, acetyl-CoA is split into its component parts, hydrogen atoms and carbon Leydig cells dioxide. Spermatogenic cells About 50% of the cell’s ATP formation occurs in the mitochondria. This process is known as oxidative Question 77 phosphorylation. What factor transforms Wolffian ducts into male internal genitalia? Question 80 Dihydrotestosterone Not considered part of the cytoplasm: Testosterone Nucleus SRY Golgi aparatus Testis determining factor Rough endoplamic reticulum Testosterone directs the development of male internal structures. Mitochondria Question 78 Question 81 The following is not a symptom or feature of Which adrenergic receptor, when activated, MELAS Syndrome which belongs to the family of increases the heart rate and strength of cardiac mitochondrial cytopathies: contraction? encephalopathy β1 stroke-like episodes β2 lactic acidosis α1 obesity α2 MELAS Syndrome typically includes β1 receptors increase heart rate and contractility. encephalopathy, stroke-like episodes, and lactic acidosis. Question 82 Acetylation What percentage of the resting cardiac output Decarboxylation goes to the brain? Hydroxylation 5% Methylation 10% The enzyme dopamine β-hydroxylase catalyzes 15% this conversion. 20% Question 86 Question 83 Which of the following skeletal muscle structures detects stretch and is responsible for the Which of the following tracts allows the afferent signals in the muscle stretch reflex? cerebellum to send corrective feedback to the cerebral cortex? Anterior motor neuron Cortico-ponto-cerebellar Gamma motor fiber Cortico-spinal Golgi tendon Dentato-rubro-thalamic Muscle spindle (Stretch receptors) Spinocerebellar This tract is responsible for communication between the cerebellum and cortex. Question 87 Which of the following represents the correct Question 84 sequence of the direct basal ganglia circuit? Which structure is responsible for cerebrospinal Cortex putamen globus pallidus externa fluid absorption? subthalamic nucleus cortex Astrocytes and neurons Cortex putamen globus pallidus interna subthalamic nucleus cortex Arachnoid villi Cortex putamen globus pallidus interna Cerebral aqueduct thalamus cortex Choroid plexus Cortex thalamus globus pallidus interna putamen cortex This is the direct pathway of the basal ganglia. Question 85 In the synthesis of norepinephrine, what enzymatic reaction is involved in the conversion Question 88 of dopamine to norepinephrine? Which corticospinal pathway decussates at the Incorrect level of the medulla? Question 92 Anterior Which indirect / extrapyramidal pathway allows an Dorsal individual to look briskly and reflexively towards visual and auditory stimuli? Lateral Reticulospinal Medial Rubrospinal Tectospinal Question 89 Vestibulospinal Which of the following ganglia houses the receptor neurons of the baroreceptor reflex? The tectospinal tract controls reflexive head and eye movements. Celiac ganglion Nodose ganglion Question 93 Paravertebral sympathetic ganglion The following Brodmann areas (BA) of the brain Stellate ganglion are responsible for the initiation and planning of movements EXCEPT: Prefrontal Question 90 Primary motor (BA 4) The receptors of the baroreceptor reflex is located at the __________. Somatosensory association (BA 5) Arterioles Visual association (BA 18) Carotid sinus Jugular vein Question 94 Sinoatrial node All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic in both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system. Question 91 True Which extrapyramidal tract is predominant in a False patient who presents with abnormal flexion response / decorticate posturing? Medial Reticulospinal Question 95 Rubrospinal Tract Which of the following receptors, when activated, relaxes the tracheal and bronchial smooth Tectospinal Tract muscles? Vestibulospinal Tract β1 β2  α1 Decreased H+; Increased CBF α2 Decreased pCO2; Decreased CBF Decreased pO2; Increased CBF Question 96 Increased glutamate from neurons; Increased CBF Which of the following correctly describes the sympathetic division of the nervous system? Increased pCO2 leads to increased CBF. A single ganglion innervates several target organs. Question 99 All postganglionic neurons of this division are cholinergic. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the micturition reflex? The ganglia are found in close apposition with their target organs. Stimulation via the hypogastric nerve results in relaxation of the internal urinary sphincter. The preganglionic neurons originate from the nuclei of cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X, and Stimulation via the pudendal nerve results in from S2 through S4. relaxation of the detrusor muscles of the urinary bladder. The sympathetic system has widespread effects. When the urinary bladder is empty, the pelvic nerve stimulates the periaqueductal gray matter. When the urinary bladder is full, the pelvic nerve stimulates the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic bladder ganglion. The pudendal nerve contracts the external urinary sphincter. Incorrect Question 100 Question 97 The brain, being a metabolically active organ, has Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei established mechanisms favoring anaerobic influences the thermoregulatory behavior? metabolism. Dorsal pre-mammillary nucleus True Paraventricular nucleus False Preoptic nucleus The brain primarily relies on aerobic metabolism for ATP production. Suprachiasmatic nucleus Question 98 Which of the following relationships between metabolic factor and cerebral blood flow (CBF) is incorrectly matched?  Question 4 Question 1 Which process regulates GFR by adjusting How is the micturition reflex initiated? blood flow to the kidneys? Increase in blood pressure Myogenic autoregulation Stretch receptors in the bladder wall Sympathetic nervous system Contraction of the internal sphincter ADH release Relaxation of the external sphincter Renin-angiotensin system Myogenic autoregulation adjusts renal blood flow and GFR by responding to changes in arterial Question 2 pressure. Which force contributes most to the movement of fluid into the nephron during filtration? Question 5 Glomerular capillary pressure What is the primary function of the Loop of Bowman’s capsule osmotic pressure Henle? Oncotic pressure Reabsorbing glucose Renal arterial pressure Concentrating urine Glomerular filtration is primarily driven by the Reabsorbing bicarbonate hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries. Controlling GFR Question 3 Question 6 How does furosemide affect sodium reabsorption What drives the process of glomerular in the nephron? filtration? Increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal Hydrostatic pressure of glomerular tubule capillaries Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the thick Colloid osmotic pressure of Bowman’s capsule ascending limb Osmotic pressure of Bowman’s capsule Stimulates sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule Hydrostatic pressure of Bowman’s capsule Increases sodium reabsorption in the collecting Filtration occurs due to the hydrostatic pressure duct exerted by blood in the glomerular capillaries. Furosemide inhibits the Na+-K+-2Cl- symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, reducing sodium reabsorption. Question 7 A patient with low GFR due to unilateral renal artery stenosis shows compensatory mechanisms. What is the response of the affected kidney?  Increase afferent arteriole resistance Increase renin release Question 11 Decrease sodium excretion A diabetic patient has uncontrolled blood glucose and polyuria. How does glucose contribute to Inhibit aldosterone release water loss? Renin is released as a compensatory Through osmosis in the proximal tubule mechanism to restore renal perfusion pressure during renal artery stenosis. By active secretion in the loop of Henle By secondary transport in the distal tubule Question 8 By passive diffusion in the collecting duct Which part of the nephron reabsorbs water only in the presence of ADH? Question 12 Proximal tubule A hypertensive patient starts on a loop diuretic. Loop of Henle How will this impact sodium reabsorption? Distal tubule Increases in the proximal tubule Collecting duct Inhibits in the thick ascending limb Stimulates in the collecting duct Question 9 Decreases in the distal tubule Which hormone is responsible for increasing sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct? Question 13 Aldosterone What happens when ADH is absent in the collecting ducts? ADH Water reabsorption increases Angiotensin II Water reabsorption decreases Atrial natriuretic peptide Sodium reabsorption increases Potassium secretion increases Question 10 In the absence of ADH, water reabsorption in the What is the effect of urinary tract obstruction collecting duct is significantly reduced. on GFR? Increases GFR Question 14 Decreases GFR How is sodium reabsorbed in the thick No effect on GFR ascending limb of the Loop of Henle? Initially increases, then decreases GFR Through passive diffusion By active transport with potassium and chloride  Via aquaporins Decrease sodium reabsorption Through sodium-glucose cotransporters Increase renin release Increase afferent arteriolar resistance Question 15 Increase filtration pressure A patient with diabetes insipidus lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which of the following will be impaired? Question 19 Sodium reabsorption in proximal tubule How does glucose reabsorption occur in the nephron? Sodium reabsorption in distal tubule By passive diffusion Water reabsorption in collecting duct By facilitated diffusion Potassium secretion in distal tubule By secondary active transport linked to sodium Question 16 By primary active transport A 22-year-old student presents with excessive thirst and dilute urine. What tubular function is most affected? Question 20 Water reabsorption in proximal tubule In a patient with proteinuria, hematuria, and decreased urine output, what happens to Water reabsorption in collecting duct filtration coefficient (Kf)? Sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule It increases Glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule It decreases It remains unchanged Question 17 It increases then decreases A child with glomerulonephritis which is a condition that involves the inflammation of the filtration barrier has reduced GFR. What is the Question 21 most likely reason? How does a high-protein meal impact GFR? Reduced glomerular capillary filtration coefficient (Kf) Decreases GFR Increased Bowman’s capsule pressure Increases GFR Reduced glomerular colloid osmotic pressure Has no effect Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s Initially decreases, then increases capsule Question 18 Question 22 What compensatory mechanism occurs in response to low renal perfusion? A child is found to have urinary stones in the ureter. What effect will this have on GFR?  Increases GFR Contracts the detrusor muscle Decreases GFR Relaxes the internal sphincter No effect Inhibits the external sphincter Initially increases, then decreases GFR Question 27 Question 23 What is the primary site of sodium reabsorption in the nephron? Which muscle contracts during micturition? Loop of Henle Internal urethral sphincter Proximal tubule External urethral sphincter Distal tubule Detrusor muscle Collecting duct Pelvic floor muscles Question 28 Question 24 Which substance is used to accurately measure A child with severe dehydration presents with GFR? highly concentrated urine. Which hormone is responsible? Glucose ADH Hemoglobin Aldosterone Inulin Angiotensin II Urea Renin Question 25 Question 29 How is glucose reabsorbed in the proximal What happens to potassium excretion when tubule? aldosterone levels increase? By active transport Increases By passive diffusion Decreases By secondary active transport with sodium Stays the same By facilitated diffusion Initially decreases, then increases Aldosterone promotes potassium excretion in exchange for sodium reabsorption. Question 26 How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the bladder during micturition? Question 30 Relaxes the detrusor muscle A patient with renal tubular acidosis presents A 25-year-old student complains of persistent with bicarbonate loss. Which part of the nephron fatigue and muscle cramps. Her serum is most likely affected? creatinine level is 2 mg/dL. Which of the following best describes her GFR? Proximal tubule Increased Loop of Henle Normal Distal tubule Decreased Collecting duct Cannot be determined Question 31 Question 35 A speech therapy student undergoes a GFR test. Which substance is most appropriate to A 30-year-old woman has just consumed a large measure his GFR accurately? meal rich in calcium, such as dairy products. What is the expected physiological response of Glucose the parathyroid glands in this situation? Hemoglobin Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) to increase calcium absorption Inulin Decreased secretion of parathyroid hormone Urea (PTH) to lower blood calcium levels Increased secretion of PTH to stimulate calcium release from bones Question 32 Increased secretion of calcitonin to promote How does a high-protein diet impact GFR? calcium reabsorption in the kidneys Decreases GFR High calcium intake suppresses PTH secretion, reducing calcium release from bones and Increases GFR absorption in the kidneys and intestines. Has no effect Initially decreases then increases Question 36 A 25-year-old male participates in a workout, during which his body loses significant water Question 33 through sweating. As a result, his blood osmolarity increases. This triggers the release What is the role of the external urethral of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior sphincter? pituitary. What is the primary physiological effect of ADH on the kidneys? Controls voluntary urination Stimulating the production of urine to excrete Contracts automatically when the bladder is full excess water Relaxes automatically during urination Inhibiting water reabsorption in the kidney tubules Prevents backflow of urine into the ureters Increasing water reabsorption from the kidney tubules to conserve water Question 34  Increasing the secretion of sodium to regulate Secretion of somatostatin to inhibit both water balance insulin and glucagon release ADH acts on the collecting ducts to increase Secretion of pancreatic polypeptide to aid water reabsorption, helping to reduce blood digestion osmolarity during dehydration. Question 40 Question 37 During a workout session, a 23-year-old male Which of the following hormones is produced by experiences an increase in blood glucose the posterior pituitary gland? levels as his body needs energy to fuel the muscles. Which of the following describes how Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) insulin and glucagon interact during this period to maintain blood glucose homeostasis? Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Insulin is secreted to promote the uptake of Luteinizing hormone (LH) glucose into tissues, while glucagon secretion is suppressed Prolactin Insulin and glucagon both increase in response to rising blood glucose levels to stimulate glucose uptake Question 38 Insulin secretion decreases while glucagon Which of the following describes a G-protein is secreted to increase glucose production by coupled receptor (GPCR) and its mechanism of the liver action? Insulin secretion increases to promote glucose A receptor that directly opens ion channels in production in the liver, while glucagon is inhibited the cell membrane in response to ligand binding During exercise, glucagon promotes glycogen A receptor that activates intracellular breakdown in the liver to maintain blood glucose signaling cascades through the activation of a levels, while insulin secretion decreases. G-protein upon ligand binding A receptor