Summary

This document contains multiple-choice questions and answers related to patient care management. The topics covered include temperature measurement, disease transmission modes, medical equipment, and patient positioning.

Full Transcript

Patient Care Management 1. Rectal temperature is = 99.6 2. Tympanic temperature = 97.6 3. Oral temperature = 98.6 F 4. Axillary temperature = 97.6 F 5. Radiographs are property of = health care institution 6. Chemical substances that inhibit the gr...

Patient Care Management 1. Rectal temperature is = 99.6 2. Tympanic temperature = 97.6 3. Oral temperature = 98.6 F 4. Axillary temperature = 97.6 F 5. Radiographs are property of = health care institution 6. Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessary killing them = antiseptics 7. Which of the following body fluids are potential carriers of HIV = semen = vaginal secretions = blood 8. Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure = sphygmomanometer = stethoscope 9. Symptoms of shock = increase in pulse rate = relentlessness and apprehension 10. Diseases which is mode of transmission is thru air = tuberculosis = mums = rubella 11. Ambulatory patient is one who = is able to walk 12. All of the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except = none of the above. All of them are true ✓ = oxygen is classified as drug and must be prescribed by a physician ✓ = mode of delivery must be part of the physicians order for oxygen ✓ = oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed by the patient 13. Material safety data sheets (MSDS) provide directions for = all of the above ✓ = cleaning up and disposal of hazardous chemical ✓ = handling of hazardous materials ✓ = safe use of hazardous materials 14. What agency regulates processing chemistry = EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) 15. Pelvicalyceal can be seen approximately how many minutes after the injection = 2 to 8 16. The number 1 frequent site of nosocomial infection = urinary tract 17. Acquired by injection of anti-bodies of a particular infection into an individual = passive immunity 18. What is the first stage of infection = incubation period = latent period 19. What microorganisms that need of a host cell to produce and virtually unresponsive to anti-microbial drugs = viruses 20. What is the best position of patient with tracheostomy = semi-fowlers position 21. Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms = medical asepsis 22. Which of the following procedures does not required the use of surgical aseptic technique = gastro intestinal series 23. What drug used in gastric disease as an anti-spasmodic = aertropic 24. Abnormal sensation of numbness = paresthesia 25. Deep vein thrombosis is suspected when one of patients sign or symptoms is = Homan’s sign 26. Protective or reverse isolation is required in which of the following conditions = burns = leukemia 27. Which of the following are examples of tissue drains = hemovac = penrose 28.. 29. A drugs chemical name is called = generic name 30. Guidelines of cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces includes = clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area = clean from the top down 31. If the radiographer perform a lumbar spinal examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow exam. Which of the following charges can file against the radiographer = battery 32. Instead physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include = loss of bone calcium 33. Which statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients = tracheostomy patients have difficulties in speaking = audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction 34. A esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders or symptoms = varices = achalasia 35. When a GI series has been requested on a patient with suspected of perforated ulcer the type of contrast media medium to be used is = water soluble iodinated media 36. Which of the following statements are true regarding proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy = employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason = before you suction a tracheostomy the patient should be well aerated = never suction for longer than 15seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between 37. A Patient experience an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following position = dorsal recumbent with feet elevated 38. The angle of needles tip is termed = bevel 39. It attaches the needle to the syringe = hub 40. The diameter of a needle is termed = gauge 41. Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator = epinephrine 42. Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be use for an anaphylactic reaction and cardiac arrest = epinephrine 43. Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called = germicides = disinfectance 44. Which of the following radiographic examination is a consent form is usually required = angiogram 45. All of the following rules regarding surgical hand scrubbing are correct EXCEPT = keep hands and forearms lower than elbow = use antimicrobial agent = arms should be bear for at least 4inches above the elbow 46. Local anesthetics are likely to be use in all of the following radiographic examinations EXCEPT = post-operative or t-tube cholangiography ✓ = lower extremity ✓ = arteriography ✓ = arthrography ✓ = myelography 47. During a grand mal seizure the patient should be = protected from injury 48. Patient suffering from orthopnea but experience the least discomfort in which body position = fowlers 49. Which of the following conditions is a double contrast barium enema essential for demonstration of the condition = polyps = colitis 50. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is = the patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position 51. Which of the followings are symptoms of shock = pallor = weakness = increase pulse rate 52. The current chairman of board of radiologic technology = Reynaldo Apollonio Tisado 53. The salary grade for rad tech 2 in public health center = grade 15 54. The salary grade for rad tech 3 in public health center = grade 18 55. The salary grade for rad tech 4 in public health center = grade 20 56. The salary grade for rad tech 5 in public health center = grade 22 57. The salary grade for rad tech 1 in public health center = grade 12 58. In line with patient preparation, what order should the following examinations may perform = IVP = GB = BE = UGI 59. Which of the following examination can be perform together = GI and IVU 60. Which of the following examination can be perform together = GI and GB 61. An assessment of patients neurologic function = Glasgow coma scale 62. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =4 = eyes open continuously = motor response to localize pain = verbal response is oriented 63. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =7 = eyes open to voice = motor has no response = verbal response is inappropriate words 64. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =8 = eyes open to painful stimulus = motor response to abnormal flexion = verbal response is inappropriate word 65. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =3 = eyes have no response = motor has no response = has no verbal response 66. a common group of drugs that are used to control generalized seizures = Dilantin = phenytoin 67. the drug name given by the manufacturer = trade name 68. factors that may influence the effect of drugs are = medication history and patients temperament = age and weight = gender and time of the day 69. a law mandating and strengthening the obtained professional development program for all regulated professions creating a continuing professional development (CPD) council = R.A. 10912 70. Refers to the inculcation or advance knowledge, skill, and ethical values in post licensure specialization or in a inter – or multidisciplinary field of study = Continuing professional development CPD 71. Refers to the body created to promote and ensure the continuous improvement of professionals in accordance with national, regional and international standard of practice = CPD council 72. Refers to learning that occurs in daily life assessed thru the recognition, validation and accreditation process and which can contribute to a qualification = informal learning 73. Refers to a person’s skills, knowledge, and competencies that have been acquired to work experience, training, independent studies, volunteering activities and hobbies that may be applies for academic credit as a requirement of training program or for occupational certificate = prior learning 74. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The chairperson of the CPD council shall be the = member of the PRB 75.. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The first member of the CPD council shall be the = president or officer of APO 76. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The second member of the CPD council shall be the = president or officer of the national organization of deans 77. The current chairperson of the CPD council = ORESTES P. MONZON 78. The incumbent first member of the CPD council is from = APO 79. The second member of CPD council is coming from = Academe or association of deans

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser