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LaudableCornflower3917

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Collegium Medicum Uniwersytetu Mikołaja Kopernika

2023

ED

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pathology exam papers medical school medicine

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This document is a collection of pathology exam papers from ED 2023. It contains multiple choice questions and answers on various pathology topics.

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PATHOMORPHOLOGY PAPERS FROM ED 2023 1 of 23 TABLE OF CONTENT PATHOLOGY QUESTION BANK 2023 3 Only Stuff from ED 2023 3 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 1 - SEMESTER 1 3 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEME...

PATHOMORPHOLOGY PAPERS FROM ED 2023 1 of 23 TABLE OF CONTENT PATHOLOGY QUESTION BANK 2023 3 Only Stuff from ED 2023 3 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 1 - SEMESTER 1 3 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - THEORETICAL PART 6 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - PRACTICAL PART 9 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - RETAKE 11 ED 2023 - COLLOQUIUM 1 - SEMESTER 1 14 ED 2023 - COLLOQUIUM 2 - SEMESTER 2 15 Colloquium 2 - Group 2 - Version 1 15 Colloquium 2 - Group 2 - Version 2 17 Colloquium 2 - Group 1 19 ED 2023 - LECTURE TEST 1 - SEMESTER 1 21 ED 2023 - LECTURE TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 23 2 of 23 PATHOLOGY QUESTION BANK 2023 8. Hydronephrosis is an example of: ONLY STUFF FROM ED 2023 A. Hyperplasia B. Hypertrophy ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 1 - SEMESTER 1 C. Atrophy D. Metaplasia 1. Ectropion (glandular ectropion) of the cervical part of the E. Agenesis uterus is an example of: 9. One of the characteristics of coagulative necrosis is: A. Metaplasia B. Anaplasia A. Depression of the necrotic focus in cross-sections. C. Dysplasia B. Central congestion of the necrotic focus D. Endometriosis C. Layered structure E. Hypoplasia D. Sharp border with surrounding tissue E. Preservation of cell nuclei in the microscopy image 2. Swelling is a result of: 10. At the mitochondrial level, the process of apoptosis is A. Increased hydrostatic pressure inhibited by: B. Decreased oncotic pressure C. Obstruction of lymph drainage A. Bax D. Sodium retention B. Bcl-2 E. All of the above C. p53 D. p16 3. The clear difference between malignant and benign tumors E. Cytochrome c is: 11. One of the vasoactive amines is histamine. It is stored in A. Cellular atypia an inactive form in: B. Stroma infiltration C. Mitotic activity A. Basophils D. Lack of capsule B. Mast cells (fatty cells) E. Distant metastases C. Histamine cells (in the stomach) D. Histaminergic neurons 4. HPV virus infection transmitted sexually: E. All of the above A. Most commonly leads to the development of skin chan- 12. The minimum ratio of fixative volume to tissue volume ges in the form of genital warts (condylomata acuminata) is: in men B. Is associated with the development of ectropion (glandular A. 1:10 ectropion) of the cervix B. 1:20 C. In women most often runs without symptoms C. 10:1 D. About 30% of infected women develop dysplastic changes D. 20:1 in the flat epithelium of the cervix E. 50:1 E. Often leads to the development of flat epithelial cervical cancer after several years 13. A crossed thrombus occurs when: 5. Which of the following processes would you call steatosis: A. There is a connection between the right and left side of the heart A. Excessive amount of subcutaneous fat tissue in an obese B. The clot increases in mass during flow through the vessel person. C. There are abnormal venous connections B. Replacement of part of the pancreatic parenchyma with fat D. Blood flow is reversed tissue E. The clot undergoes fragmentation. C. Accumulation of simple fats in the cytoplasm of car- diomyocytes as a result of toxic action 14. The characteristic image of shock kidney is: D. Loading of phagocytic cells in liver sinusoids (Kupffer- Browicz cells) with fats A. Acute blood stasis in glomeruli E. Accumulation of LDL in the inner membrane of the aorta B. Necrosis of individual renal glomerular loops (MTA) C. Glassy clots in the lumen of segmental renal arteries 6. Assigning the pTis stage in the case of cancer means: D. Interstitial inflammatory infiltrates (AIN) E. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) A. Cancer limited exclusively to the mucous membrane B. Cancer infiltrating superficially 15. What does the ACPA abbreviation mean in the context of C. Cancer for which the stage of advancement cannot be Rheumatoid Arthritis? determined D. Cancer not exceeding the basement membrane A. Antibodies E. Low or moderate degree of dysplasia B. Antigen C. A set of symptoms 7. The outflow of cytoplasmic enzymes such as LDH from D. Milder course of the disease cells indicates the presence of: E. More aggressive course of the disease A. Reversible changes B. Irreversible changes C. Excessive metabolic activation of cells D. Dysplasia E. Cytoplasmic fatty degeneration of cells 3 of 23 16. Artretogen is: 23. Vinyl Chloride is casually related to: A. An antigen causing inflammation in RA. A. Squamous cell carcinoma. B. An antigen causing inflammation in SLE. B. Hemangioma and myxoma. C. An antigen causing inflammation in SS. C. Leukemia. D. An antibody causing inflammation in RA. D. Lymphoma. E. An antibody causing inflammation in SLE. E. Mesothelioma. 17. 32-microglobulin is: 24. Hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome occurs in the following tumors, except: A. A precursor derivative protein in hemodialysis-related amyloidosis. A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. B. The main fibrillar protein in hemodialysis-related amylo- B. Breast cancer. idosis. C. Kidney cancer. C. A precursor derivative protein in Mediterranean fever- D. T-cell lymphomas in adults. related amyloidosis. E. Ovarian cancer. D. The main fibrillar protein in Mediterranean fever. E. A precursor derivative protein in Alzheimer's disease- 25. Malignant tumors of childhood are all except: related amyloidosis. A. Willms Tumor. 18. The presence of preformed antibodies may initiate acute B. Hemangioma. transplant rejection. These antibodies may be: C. Neuroblastoma. D. ALL. A. All answers are correct. E. Retinoblastoma. B. Natural IgM class antibodies (without previous contact with foreign antigen). 26. Neonatal ARDS is: C. Antibodies induced by previous blood transfusion. D. Antibodies induced by previous exposure during pregnan- A. Characterized by the formation of pseudomembranes in cy. the small intestine in the course of necrotizing enteritis E. Antibodies induced by previous exposure to a foreign B. Predisposes to the formation of structures similar to hyali- antigen by a previous organ transplant. ne cartilage C. Mainly develops in full-term newborns 19. Choose the correct answer about AIDS: D. Clinically manifests as respiratory failure E. Is the most common cause of deaths in children under 1 A. It is a crisis phase in the course three phases: acute, of year old HIV infection. B. It consists of chronic, and test for HIV may increase in 27. Malignant tumors in childhood: crisis. C. In the chronic phase, the immunological test may be A. These are primarily cancers negative. B. Are the most common cause of death in children under 1 D. In the chronic phase, there is an number of T cells and a year old decrease in viremia. C. In most cases, they are a group of small round blue cell E. The level of T-cytotoxic lymphocytes slowly increases tumors during the chronic phase of the disease. D. Most often develop in the same organs as in adults E. Very rarely affect the hematopoietic system 20. Cells in anaplastic tumors exhibit the following characte- ristics, except: 28. To small round blue cell tumors, all are included except: A. They show polymorphism in size and shape. A. Malignant rhabdomyosarcoma B. They have hyperchromatic nuclei. B. Embryonic neuroblastoma C. They show great similarity to each other. C. Some forms of Wilms tumor D. They have numerous atypical mitoses. D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia E. They lack recognizable structures relative to each other. E. Lymphatic hemangioma 21. Tumors do not arise from: 29. Choristoma: A. Skeletal muscle cells A. Is the most common malignant tumor in childhood B. Heart muscle cells B. Is another name for hamartoma C. Uterine muscle cells C. Is a growth of normal tissue in an abnormal location D. Liver cells D. Is often located in the scalp skin area E. Glial cells E. Is a growth of typical tissue for an organ but with an ab- normal architecture 22. Indicate the true sentence: 30. Acute congestion (passive): A. Benign tumors often give metastases via the lymphatic vessels. A. Is always a pathological reaction B. Malignant tumors do not occur in children. B. Is a physiological reaction C. Myoma is a benign tumor. C. Typically proceeds with extensive fibrosis D. Myosarcoma is a benign tumor. D. Is characterized by congestion of lymphatic vessels E. Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often gives metastases. E. Is active congestion 4 of 23 31. Hydropericardium is: C. Without accompanying abnormalities in calcium metabo- lism A. Fluid in the chest cavity D. Vitamin D toxicity B. Hydrops of the uterus E. Kidney failure C. Fluid in the pericardial cavity D. Generalized edema of the fetus 39. Identify the true statement about metaplasia: E. Anasarca A. Does not reverse after elimination of the causative factor 32. Triad of Virchow: B. Is a reversible change C. One type of mature cells changes into the same type of A. Is a group of factors determining the risk of heart attack immature cells B. Are factors related to the risk of thrombosis D. Metaplastic epithelial cells cross the basement membrane C. Is a group of factors affecting the healing process of a of the epithelium wound by granulation E. One type of immature cells changes into cells of a diffe- D. Is typical for patients with flat epithelial cancers rent immature type E. Is also known as wandering granulomatous inflammation 40. Mark the predictive marker for breast cancer patients: 33. All statements regarding pulmonary embolism are true except: A. LDH B. CEA A. In most cases, it is clinically silent C. HER2 B. It can lead to acute pulmonary heart disease D. AFP C. It is most often caused by air clots E. KRAS D. It is most often caused by clots E. It can lead to lung infarction 34. Myocardial infarction: A. Is a focus of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of blood flow through a blood vessel B. Most often occurs as a complication of the Trousseau syndrome C. Is a change in which cells undergo reversible damage D. Is usually not a consequence of closure of a vessel by a clot E. Most often occurs in connection with closure of blood flow by a well-formed clot 35. The shrinkage and increased chromasia of cell nuclei is called: A. Karyorrhesis B. Pyknosis C. Karyolysis D. Foam bodies E. Koilocytosis 36. Indicate the false statement regarding fatty tissue necro- sis: A. It occurs due to the release of activated pancreatic enzy- mes B. It typically occurs in chronic pancreatitis C. Macroscopically, chalk-white areas are visible D. Microscopically, areas of necrosis containing outlines of destroyed adipocytes with basic calcium deposits are visible E. Inflammatory reaction is present 37. Atrophy, in which there is an effective reduction in the organ with preservation of its original volume, for example in osteoporosis, is: A. Simple atrophy B. Brown atrophy C. Fatty change D. Fibrous change E. Centrifugal atrophy 38. Metastatic calcification does not occur in the following situation: A. Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone B. Bone destruction in the course of some cancers, such as multiple myeloma 5 of 23 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - THEO- 8. Characteristic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma is: RETICAL PART A. Most common localization in a single axial group of 1. Celiac disease is characterized by all except: lymph nodes B. Most commonly involved organ is spleen A. The absence of ganglion cells in colonic submucosal C. Typical primary localization is gastrointestinal tract plexus D. Noncontiguous spread B. Intraepithelial lymphocytosis E. Mesenteric nodes involvement common C. Villous atrophy D. Crypt hyperplasia 9. Bloody diarrhea is typically not a symptom of: E. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy A. Crohn disease 2. A brown nodule of the abdominal skin, 6 mm in diameter, B. Ulcerative colitis was excised from a 50-year-old man. Clinical diagnosis - skin C. Ischemic bowel disease nevus. Microscopic examination revealed an intraepidermal D. Colon cancer hyperplasia of basaloid keratinocytes, without signs of atypia, E. Eosinophilic esophagitis without mitotic figures, with horn pseudocyst formation. The final morphological diagnosis of the lesion is: 10. Bronchial carcinoid is: A. Melanocytic skin nevus A. A benign tumor B. Nodular melanoma B. A highly malignant tumor with a 5-year survival rate of C. Psoriasis 3% D. Seborrheic keratosis C. Malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm E. Acral melanoma D. Carcinoid does not occur in the bronchus, but only in the appendix 3. Cryptorchidism increases the risk for developing: E. Type of sarcoma A. Bowen disease 11. Regarding breast cancer, the following are true except: B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Seminoma A. It is more common in childless women D. Dysgerminoma B. The predisposing factor for its occurrence is a long repro- E. Adrenal cortex carcinoma ductive period (period from puberty to menopause) C. It is most often located in the upper outer quadrant of the 4. Most common malignancy in prostate is: breast D. Comedocarcinoma has the worst prognosis among invasi- A. Urothelial carcinoma ve cancers B. Squamous cell carcinoma E. May occur in the third decade of life C. Clear cell carcinoma D. Rhabdoid tumor 12. The constitutional symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include: E. Adenocarcinoma A. Myxedema 5. The most common causes of hypercortisolism do not in- B. Heat intolerance and excessive sweating clude: C. Acromegaly D. Elevated calcitonin A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia E. Cretinism B. Primary hypothalamic-pituitary diseases associated with hypersecretion of ACTH 13. Nephrotic syndrome: C. Secretion of ectopic ACTH by nonpituitary neoplasms D. Primary adrenocortical neoplasms A. Is typical for diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis E. Exposure to iatrogenic glucocorticoids B. May be a symptom of minimal change disease C. Manifests with massive proteinuria 6. Choose the correct statement regarding ovarian mucinous D. The correct answers are a and b tumors: E. The correct answers are b and c A. Most of them are malignant 14. The gold diagnostic standard in patients with lymphade- B. They are also known as Krukenberg tumors nopathy that require morphologic examination is: C. Serosal penetration and solid areas of growth are sug- gestive of malignancy A. Fine needle aspiration D. About 50% are borderline mutation B. Biopsy with obtaining a biopsy core E. They are associated with TP53 C. Open biopsy D. Ultrasound examination 7. The renal neoplasm that has a tendency to invade renal E. Palpation vein is: 15. Testicular tumors typically occurring in young men A. Oncocytoma (20-30) are: B. Wilms tumor C. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma A. Yolk sac tumor, spermatocytic tumor D. Angiomyolipoma B. Spermatocytic tumor, seminoma E. Papillary adenoma C. Seminoma, embryonal carcinoma D. Embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcinoma E. Choriocarcinoma, endodermal sinus tumor 6 of 23 16. Tumor that typically arises in association with estrogen 24. Choose the correct statement: excess in the setting of endometrial hyperplasia in perimeno- pausal women is: A. Germ cells are rarely a source for testicular tumors B. Most of the testicular tumors have elevated AFP A. Dysgerminoma C. Spermatocytic tumor is the most common component of B. Serous endometrial carcinoma testicular mixed tumors C. Thyroid papillary carcinoma D. Seminomas spread very early to distant sites D. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia E. All patients with choriocarcinoma have elevated hCG E. Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma 25. Gliosis is a reaction of: 17. Esophageal varices: A. Astrocytes A. Usually involve blood vessels of the upper esophagus B. Ependymocytes B. Are tortuous dilated veins within esophageal submuco- C. Oligodendrocytes sa D. Neurons C. Develop only as a result of liver cirrhosis E. Microglia D. Usually manifest with dysphagia E. Usually are covered with ulcerated mucosa 26. A 43-year-old non-smoker has worsening shortness of breath over an 8-year period. Physical examination shows 18. Vasculitis: decreased breath sounds on auscultation and a drumming sound on percussion. Chest x-ray reveals increased clarity of A. Usually involve veins all lung fields. Laboratory studies show decreased serum B. May involve different types of blood vessels alpha-1-antitrypsin levels. The microscopic part of the pati- C. May lead to narrowing the lumen of involved blood vessel ent's lungs most likely affected is: D. The correct answers are a and c E. The correct answers are b and c A. Lymphatic channel B. Main bronchus 19. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules/disease are typical for: C. Bronchial artery D. Interstitium A. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma E. Terminal bronchiole B. Wilms tumor C. Diabetic nephropathy 27. Important risk factors for developing CIN and invasive D. Lupus nephropathy carcinoma include: E. Malignant hypertension A. Obesity 20. The neural tube defects are all except: B. Early age at first intercourse C. Cryptorchidism A. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Persistent infection by low-risk strains of papillomavi- B. Myelomeningocele rus C. Anencephaly E. Hypertension D. Spina bifida E. Meningoencephalocele 28. All the features are typical for cat scratch disease except: 21. A 65-year-old man had no major health problems until A. Elderly are usually affected last year when he started experiencing malaise and weight B. Common involvement of cervical lymph nodes loss. Physical examination revealed palpable, painless nodu- C. Bartonella henselae is an etiologic agent les scattered in both lungs. Laboratory tests showed high D. Clinically manifests with enlargement of lymph nodes hematocrit, low mean corpuscular volume, and normal white E. In lymph node/lymph nodes can form granulomas blood cell count. The most likely pathological phenomenon responsible for these results is: 29. An aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma that grows fast is: A. Emphysema A. Burkitt lymphoma B. Repeated aspiration of food B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. Cancer metastases to the lungs C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Staphylococcus aureus infection D. Hodgkin lymphoma E. ARDS E. Follicular lymphoma 22. The most common benign breast tumor in young women 30. A 12-year-old boy develops neck pain and severe halitosis is: after an acute pharyngitis. Computed tomography shows an abscess in the peritonsillar area. Laboratory tests include A. Fibroadenoma culture of the abscess, where anaerobic and aerobic flora B. Phyllodes tumor develop. The aerobic organism most likely to be grown from C. Subareolar papilloma his abscess is: D. Tubular adenoma E. Lipoma A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Fusobacterium 23. The feature distinguishing pituitary adenomas from non- C. Prevotella neoplastic anterior pituitary parenchyma is: D. Escherichia coli E. Group A Streptococcus A. Lack of fibrous capsule B. Distant metastases C. Presence of amyloid D. Absence of a significant reticulin network E. Presence of psammoma bodies 7 of 23 31. A 40-year-old woman has had an increasing non-produc- 39. The features that are typical for cat scratch disease inclu- tive cough for 4 days. A chest X-ray shows diffuse interstitial de all except: infiltrate. Microbiological tests show a mixed bacterial flora in the respiratory tract. Which infectious agent is the most A. Most commonly affects people before 18 years of age likely cause of her lung infection? B. Usually involves lymph nodes in the axilla or neck C. The etiologic factor is Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Is a self-limited lymphadenitis B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae E. Typical histologic feature is the formation of irregular C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis stellate necrosis D. Respiratory syncytial virus E. Streptococcus pneumoniae 40. Esophageal varices: 32. A 49-year-old woman has a screening mammogram that A. Usually involve blood vessels of the upper esophagus shows an irregular compaction with microcalcifications in the B. Are tortuous dilated veins within the esophageal sub- left breast. A needle biopsy reveals multiple layers of cancer mucosa cells with central calcification. No invasion is found. The C. Develop only as a result of liver cirrhosis most likely situation for this woman is: D. Usually manifest with dysphagia E. Usually are covered with ulcerated mucosa A. Excision is curative B. Good response to tamoxifen treatment C. Development of inflammatory breast cancer D. Her children will inherit the BRCA1 mutation E. Good response to aspirin treatment 33. The risk factor for the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin is: A. Exposure to estrogens B. Exposure to arsenic C. Exposure to aspirin D. Contact with cadmium E. Contact with benzene 34. All the neoplasms are primary glial neoplasms of the central nervous system except: A. Glioblastoma B. Pilocytic astrocytoma C. Wilms tumor D. Oligodendroglioma E. Ependymoma 35. Increased volume of cerebrospinal fluid within the ventri- cular system is called: A. Hydrocephalus B. Vasogenic edema C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Cytotoxic edema E. Anencephaly 36. Atherosclerotic plaques: A. Usually are composed of plasma cells B. May undergo erosion C. Usually are located in the adventitia D. Most commonly involve the inferior vena cava E. All the answers are correct 37. The focus of leukoplakia: A. Is a precancerous lesion B. Is a red lesion C. Is a white lesion D. The correct answers are a and b E. The correct answers are a and c 38. The lymphoid neoplasm is: A. Multiple myeloma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis D. Chronic myeloid leukemia E. Polycythemia vera 8 of 23 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - PRAC- 3. The picture presents: TICAL PART 1. The above picture most likely presents: A. A seminoma B. Hodgkin cells and Reed-Sternberg cells C. A dermal nevus D. An intestinal adenoma with low-grade dysplasia E. High-grade adenocarcinoma infiltrating the nerves A. A benign breast tumor 4. In the photograph, you see: B. A prostate adenocarcinoma Gleason 5 C. A pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma D. Ischemic necrosis of the colon E. A dermal nevus 2. In the photograph, you see: A. Hepatic centrilobular necrosis B. An ovarian cystadenoma C. A yolk sac adenocarcinoma D. A clear cell renal carcinoma E. A neuroendocrine tumor A. A breast fibroadenoma B. Pulmonary aspergillosis C. A high-grade tumor D. A papillary thyroid carcinoma E. A well-differentiated squamous carcinoma 9 of 23 5. The nuclei of the cells in the picture: A. Are reminiscent of coffee beans B. Are orphan Annie's eyes C. Are multilobulated D. Have undergone liquefactive necrosis E. Have salt and pepper chromatin 10 of 23 ED 2023 - ASSASSIN TEST 2 - SEMESTER 2 - RETAKE 8. A crossed jam arises when: 1. Ectropion (glandular erosion) of the vaginal part of the A. There is a connection between the right and left parts cervix is an example of: of the heart B. The thrombus increases mass during the flow through the A. Accumulation of genetic mutations vessel B. Adaptation to new environmental conditions C. There are abnormal venous connections C. Acute inflammation D. Blood flow is reversed D. Viral infection E. The thrombus fragments E. The effect of the interaction of E6 and E7 virus proteins with p53 proteins 9. The monoclonality of cell growth in cancer can be confir- med by: 2. A characteristic feature of cell death is: A. Analyzing the DNA sequence for a conservative protein, A. Irreversible mitochondrial dysfunction e.g., actin B. Disruption of cell membranes B. For T cells, by analyzing the rearrangement of the TCR C. Atrophy of the nuclear membrane receptor D. A+B C. Confirming the expression of the P53 protein in cancer E. All of the above cells D. Expressing cytokeratin or vimentin 3. The pathomechanism is: E. None of the above A. The causative agent of the disease 10. In the syringe with the drug for intravenous injection, B. The sequence of clinical signs leading to the diagnosis of there was about 2 ml of air and 3 ml of the drug dissolved in the disease water. The probable complication of injecting the mixture C. The sequence of events leading to the occurrence of the into the vein will be: disease D. Common etiological factors causing the disease A. Caisson disease E. Defining the disease entity by explaining the mechanisms B. Pulmonary artery thrombus embolism of its symptoms C. Right ventricular air embolism D. Rupture of a venous vessel 4. A 2nd-year medical student began intensive exercise at the E. Left ventricular air embolism gym while following a high-protein diet. After two weeks, he noticed clear progress and an absence of muscle pain. The 11. HSIL lesions are equivalent to the diagnosis of: achieved effects are mainly responsible for: A. CINI A. The process of muscle growth B. CIN 1, CIN II B. The process of muscle hypertrophy C. CIN II p16+, CIN III C. The process of neuromuscular adaptation D. CIN II p16-, CIN III D. Simultaneously the process of muscle hypertrophy and E. CIN III hyperplasia E. Increase in the number of mitochondria in the muscles 12. Endometrial cancer type I is characterized by the follo- wing immunoprofile: 5. Macrophages loaded with hemosiderin within the spleen may indicate: A. CK7+, CK20(-), ER+, PR+, p53(-) B. CK7+, CK20(-), Vimentin+, ER(-), PR(-) A. Thrombocythemia C. CK7+, p53+, Vimentin+, ER+ B. Anemia D. p53(-), CK7+, CK20(-), ER(-), PR(-) C. Multiple blood transfusions E. CK7(-), CK20+, ER+, PR(-) D. Heart defects E. Taking intramuscular iron preparations 13. In the zone of transformation of the cervix, there is an epithelium: 6. Exogenous testosterone supply can cause: A. Endometrial epithelium A. Leydig cell hyperplasia B. Endocervical glandular epithelium B. Atrophy of the nucleus stroma C. Immature, metaplastic squamous multilayer epitheli- C. Leydig cell atrophy um D. Proliferative nodes of Leydig cells D. Ciliated multilayer epithelium E. Leydig cell hypertrophy E. Multilayer flat keratinizing epithelium 7. Shock stomach ulcers are caused by: 14. Menorrhagia is: A. Shock-induced excessive secretion of gastric juice A. Prolonged and excessive heavy menstrual bleeding B. Mucosal perfusion disorder B. Intermenstrual bleeding C. Parasympathetic overstimulation C. Postmenopausal bleeding D. Secondary edema tissue D. Bleeding in endometrial cancer type 1 E. Mucosal cell necrosis E. Prepubertal bleeding 11 of 23 15. The most important prognostic factor in urothelial bladder 22. A 40-year-old, previously healthy woman, has had an carcinomas is: increasing unproductive cough for 4 days. On physical ex- amination, her temperature is 38°C. A chest X-ray shows A. Hematuria with pain diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Laboratory tests show a mixed B. Hematuria without pain flora in the respiratory tract. The HGB level is 12.9 g/dL, the C. Deletion of suppressor genes on chromosome 9 platelet count is 223,450/microliter, and the white blood cell D. Depth of neoplastic infiltration count is 5,815/microliter. The cold agglutinin titre is elevated. E. Occupational exposure to chemicals PCR for viruses is negative. After a series of erythromycin therapy, there is rapid improvement without complications. 16. The microscopic image describes: Which of the following infectious agents is the most likely cause of her lung disease? A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia B. Glandular prostate carcinoma A. Staphylococcus aureus C. High-grade prostate intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN HG) B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Prostate granulomatosis C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis E. Metastasis of adenocarcinoma of the large intestine to the D. Respiratory syncytial virus prostate gland E. Streptococcus pneumoniae 17. Prostate cancer is characterized by the following immun- 23. A 49-year-old woman goes to the doctor for a routine ohistochemical reactions: health check-up. A screening mammogram was performed, which showed a 2-centimeter irregular compaction with A. CK with high molecular weight - positive reaction microcalcifications in the left breast. A core-needle biopsy of B. P63 - positive reaction this area shows ducts containing numerous layers of cancer C. AMACR - negative reaction cells, with central necrosis and calcification. No invasion was D. AMACR - positive, CK of high molecular weight - found. Quadrantectomy with a wide excision is performed to negative; P63 - negative reaction obtain clean margins along with the collection of a sample of E. AMACR - positive reaction; CK of high molecular weight axillary lymph nodes, which do not show metastases. Mali- - positive reaction; P63 - negative gnant cells are positive for HER2 but negative for estrogen receptor. Which of the following situations is most likely for 18. The cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is not: this woman? A. Membranous glomerulonephritis A. Cure B. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Good response to tamoxifen treatment C. Starch C. Development of inflammatory breast cancer D. Renal papillary necrosis D. Her children will inherit the BRCA1 mutation E. Glomerular sclerosis E. Good response to aspirin treatment 19. With regard to viral hepatitis, the following statements 24. A risk factor for the development of squamous cell carci- are incorrect: noma of the skin is: A. Morphological changes in individual genera do not A. Estrogen exposure differ from each other B. Arsenic exposure B. Type B inflammation is more severe than type A C. Arsenic exposure C. Some hepatocytes take the form of acidophilic balls D. Contact with cadmium D. Most hepatocytes undergo steatosis E. Contact with benzene E. Inflammation can proceed without jaundice 25. A primary glial neoplasm of the central nervous system is 20. Wandering thrombotic changes of veins are associated not: with: A. Embryonic glioma (glioblastoma multiforme) A. Diabetes B. Capillary astrocytoma B. Cystic fibrosis C. Wilms' tumor C. OZT D. Oligodendroglioma D. Chronic recurrent pancreatitis E. Ependymoma E. Pancreatic cancer 26. The increased volume of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventri- 21. In a 12-year-old boy after acute pharyngitis lasting 4 cular system of the central nervous system is: days, a peritonsillar abscess is detected on computed tomo- graphy. Laboratory tests include an abscess culture in which A. Hydrocephalus the anaerobic flora develops. Which of the following aerobic B. Cytotoxic edema organisms is most likely to be involved in this infection? C. Dandy-Walker syndrome D. Angioedema A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae E. Edema depending on the increase in hydrostatic pressure B. Fusobacterium C. Prevotella 27. Atherosclerotic plaques: D. Escherichia coli E. Group A Streptococcus A. Are primarily composed of plasmacytes B. May become ulcerated and rupture C. Are located within the appendage D. Most often occupy the inferior vena cava E. All answers are correct 12 of 23 28. Leukoplakia: 35. Choose a true sentence: A. Is a precancerous lesion A. Lesion biopsy is the gold standard when a testicular tumor B. Is red in color is detected C. Is white in color B. The level of AFP is elevated in each case of chorioblasto- D. Answers A and B are correct ma E. Answers A and C are correct C. Schiller-Duval corpuscles are a feature of the micro- scopic picture of embryonic carcinoma 29. Lymphoid cancer is: D. A spermatocytic tumor is a tumor without a typical tumor marker A. Multiple myeloma E. Cryptorchidism does not increase the risk of testicular B. Acute myeloid leukemia tumor C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis D. Polycythemia vera 36. Penile squamous cell carcinoma: E. Chronic myeloid leukemia A. Is formed on the basis of preinvasive germ line neopla- 30. Symptoms of liver failure include: sia (GCNIS) B. Most often is a well-differentiated change A. Pain in the right iliac fossa C. Is the first cancer associated with environmental factors B. Pain (unreadable) D. May be a complication of hydrocele of the testis C. Hypoalbuminemia E. Never metastasizes to the lymph nodes D. Goldflam's symptom E. Obesity 37. Choose a true sentence: 31. Adenomyosis: A. ACTH hypersecretion syndrome is caused by excess vaso- pressin A. Ingrowth of the basal layer of the endometrium into B. Pituites are cells of the anterior pituitary gland the myometrium C. Oxytocin is produced in the posterior pituitary gland B. Chocolate bag D. Excess vasopressin causes diabetes insipidus C. Functional endometrial focus in the ovary E. Pituites are modified glial cells D. (Unreadable) atypical endometrium E. Benign neoplasm spreading towards the reptile myoma of the endometrium 32. The most important prognostic factor in urothelial cancer of the bladder is: A. Histological differentiation type B. Histological variant C. Age of the patient D. Female gender E. TNM Clinical Staging 33. (Unreadable) prostatic hyperplasia: A. Mainly in the peripheral zone of the prostate B. Incidence decreases with age C. Clinical manifestations in 100% with histologically esta- blished prostatic hyperplasia D. Proliferate glandular structures and fibromuscular stroma E. Basal cells are not found in the glands 34. Thyroid cancers: A. Papillary carcinoma has the highest mortality B. Follicular carcinoma is a neuroendocrine tumor C. Medullary carcinoma may arise from C-cell hyperpla- sia D. Anaplastic carcinoma typically has amyloid deposits in the stroma E. Are the most common thyroid gland tumors 13 of 23 ED 2023 - COLLOQUIUM 1 - SEMESTER 1 19. Hutchinson triad: 1. Second step of making a tissue sample: A. Interstitial keratis, deformed incisors, deafness A. Cleaning 20. A gumma is found in (…) 2. What should tissue samples be preserved in immediately? A. Syphilis A. 95% alcohol 21. Most common death in infants aged 1-4: 3. At what temperature do we freeze tissue samples? A. Accidents A. -20° to -30° 22. Nephroblastoma characteristic microscopic feature: 4. Antibodies in SLE Nephritis: A. Classic triphasic morphology A. DsDNA 23. What is characteristic of HE staining of Hyaline membra- 5. Antibodies in Sjogren Syndrome: ne? A. LaSSB A. Eosinophilic 6. Type 2 inflammatory changes: 24. Most popular cytologic stain: A. Less pronounced and confined to mesangium A. Papanicolau 7. In hyperacute inflammation we have (…) 25. Best specimen for cytologic testing: A. Presence of preformed antibodies A. Fresh or frozen tissues 8. Anaplasia is (…) 26. Which are Serum biomarkers of pancreatic cancer? A. Complete lack of differentiation (No answer provided) 9. Opisthorchis may be (…) 27. Which are biomarkers of breast cancer? A. Connected to chilangiocarcinoma (No answer provided) 10. Which is NOT an autosomal dominant cancer? 28. Question about cyclin D expression A. Xeroderma pigmentosa (No answer provided) 11. Philadelphia chromosome: 29. What percent of patients with AIDS develop pneumonia: A. Gene fusion A. 50% 12. What is an example of reversible cell injury? 30. Pneumatosis intestinalis: A. Fatty change edema A. Presence of submucosal gas bubbles in course of NEC 13. Features of Necrosis: 31. In proliferative phase of hyaline membrane disease: A. Cell swelling, enzymatic digestion A. Proliferation/hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes is obser- ved 14. Functional and morphological consequences of ischemia? 32. Consequences of hypoxia: A. Decreased Na+, increased Ca++ A. Increased Na, decreased K, cellular and ER swelling 15. Replication senescence: 33. Pulmonary edema: A. Reduced capacity of cells to divide, secondary to progres- sive shortening of chromosomal ends A. Can give rise to pneumonia and results from left ventricu- lar failure 16. Pulmonary embolism is (…) 34. Formalin ratio for preserving specimens: A. Usually clinically silent A. 1:10 17. Heart failure cells are? A. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages 18. Renal Infarct is (…) A. Usually white infarct 14 of 23 ED 2023 - COLLOQUIUM 1 - SEMESTER 1 10. The most important cytokine in synthesis of connective tissue proteins is: GROUP 1 A. TNF-alpha 1. Pulmonary edema: B. TNF-beta C. TGF-alpha A. Usually is a consequence of right-sided heart failure D. TGF-beta B. Is also called a hyaline membrane disease E. IFN-gamma C. Predisposes to pneumonia D. May develop because of left-sided heart failure 11. What percentage of patients with AIDS and primary tu- E. The correct answers are C and D. berculosis will develop secondary tuberculosis: 2. Congestion of an organ or tissue: A. Up to 5% B. Up to 15% A. May lead to its fibrosis C. Up to 25% B. May lead to disorganization and abnormalities in architec- D. Up to 35% ture E. Over 50% C. May lead to its insufficiency D. May lead to loss of function 12. Select the correct order in pathomorphology laboratory: E. All answers are correct. A. Staining, embedding, description, tissue processing, 3. Pulmonary embolism: collecting representative pieces from specimens, sectioning B. Transport and admission, description, collecting repre- A. Usually is a result and complication of forming blood clots sentative pieces from specimen, tissue processing, embed- B. Usually leads to death ding, sectioning, staining, microscopic evaluation C. Its episode is easy to predict C. Microscopic evaluation, staining, embedding, sectioning, D. Usually is clinically silent transport and admission, description, collecting representative pieces from specimen 4. Heart failure cells: D. Transport and admission, collecting representative pieces from specimen, embedding, processing, sectioning, micro- A. Directly cause the lung fibrosis scopic evaluation B. Are fibrin-laden macrophages C. Are lipofuscin-laden cells 13. What is the correct tissue to formalin ratio for specimens? D. Are hemosiderin-laden macrophages E. Cause brown pigmentation of myocardial muscle A. 1:5 B. 1:2:5 5. Renal infarct: C. 1:15 D. 1:10 A. Usually is a white infarct B. Usually is a consequence of shock 14. What is the first step in the chamber of tissue processing C. Morphologically is characterized by hydropic change of machines? tubular epithelial cells D. Usually is a red infarct A. Cleaning E. Usually leads to regeneration of the area of ischemic tissue B. Rinsing injury C. Wan infiltration D. Dehydration 6. Hutchinson triad: E. Rehydration A. Trabecular (notched) incisors, interstitial keratitis with 15. The most common cause of death in children 1-4 is: blindness, speech aphasia B. Trabecular (notched) incisors, interstitial keratitis with A. Accidents blindness and deafness B. Low birth weight C. Trabecular (notched) incisors, deafness, purulent discharge C. Murders from urethra D. Congenital anomalies D. Trabecular (notched) incisors deafness, muscular atrophy E. Influenza E. Deafness, muscular atrophy, purulent. 16. Pneumatosis intestinalis: 7. Gumma: A. Is the presence of submucosal gas bubbles in the course A. A primary lesion in tuberculosis of necrotizing enterocolitis B. Characteristic change for cat-scratch disease B. Is a characteristic morphological feature of infection with C. A type of abscess in congenital syphilis parvovirus B19 D. Change found in secondary syphilis C. Is another name for pulmonary emphysema E. Change found in tertiary syphilis D. Develops in the course of hyaline membrane disease E. Is a malignant form of a teratoma 8. Pott disease: 17. Choose the correct statement about nephroblastoma: A. A type of disease caused by histoplasma infection B. A type of pulmonary tuberculosis A. Usually is about 3cm in diameter at the time of diagnosis C. A change found in late congenital syphilis B. Is the most common carcinoma in children D. Synonym for spondyloarthritis C. Its characteristic microscopic feature is classic tripha- E. Isolated organ non-pulmonary secondary tuberculosis sic morphology involving vertebrae D. Its another name is Wilson tumor 1 of 4 18. Hyaline membranes: A. In HE staining resemble cartilage B. In HE staining are eosinophilic C. In HE staining are basophilic D. Lay mucosa of the small intestine in the course of necroti- zing enterocolitis E. Are a mixture of erythrocytes and air. 19. In the proliferative phase of hyaline membrane disease of the newborn, the hyaline membranes are formed. The process of exudation dominates. The lungs are fibrotic and firm. Proliferation/hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes is observed, and the process of fibrosis dominates. A. The hyaline membranes are formed. B. Dominates the process of exudation. C. Lungs are fibrotic and firm. D. Proliferation/hyperplasia of type II pneumocytes is observed. E. Dominates the process of fibrosis. 20. Which stain is most commonly used in cytology? A. Papanicolau stain B. Massons trichome C. IHC D. Mallory's trichrome E. None of the answers are true 21. Which is considered as the best type of material for mole- cular biology techniques? A. Fresh and frozen tissues B. FFPE tissues C. Urine D. Erythrocytes E. All of the above 22. Classical prognostic factor in the case of many tumors is A. Tumour grade B. Tumour stage C. LVSI and PNI D. Status of surgical margin E. All of above 23. Serum biomarker for pancreatic cancer is: A. Ca-125 B. HER2 C. CA19-9 D. HRAS E. None of the above 24. Choose the predictive biomarker for breast cancer A. HER2 B. PR C. BRCA1/2 D. ER E. All of the above 2 of 4 GROUP 2 9. The main condition to pronounce a lesion to be neoplastic 1. Which of the following is not an indicator for chronic lung (either benign or malignant): congestion? A. The presence of genetic mutation. A. Alveolar septal fibrosis. B. The pressure of tissue destruction. B. Increase in lung weight. C. The presence of poor differentiation. C. Inflammatory infiltrate of neutrophils. D. The presence of nuclear polymorphism. D. Hemosiderin laden macrophages. E. The presence of a desmoplastic reaction. E. Brownish colour of lung parenchyma. 10. A sentinel lymph node: 2. Choose the: A. Is the first one (or a group) to receive the lymph from A. The lines are called Libman-Sacks. the tumor area. B. Is typical for a blood clot as well. B. Is the biggest node with tumor metastasis (no matter the C. Is present in thrombi as long as they occurred post mor- distance from the tumor). tem. C. Is the closest node with tumor metastasis. D. The lines are called Trousseaus. D. Is the node that is statistically always compromised in a E. The lines are called Zahns. metastatic disease. E. All answers are correct. 3. In a person with edema: 11. What does ACPA stand for in terms of Rheumatoid arthri- A. A primary heart disease may be of importance. tis? B. A primary kidney disease may be significant. C. A primary liver disease may be the issue. A. Antibodies. D. A and B are correct. B. Antigen. E. All answers are correct. C. Symptoms. D. More indolent course of the disease. 4. Which of the following is not predisposed to by a prematu- E. More aggressive course of the disease. re birth? 12. Select a predictive biomaker for breast cancer patients. A. Necrotising enterocolitis. B. RDS. A. BRAF. C. SIDS. B. TP53. D. Hemangiomas. C. HER2. E. Death within the 1st year of life. D. MYC. E. KRAS. 5. Choose the correct sentence: 13. A 43-year-old woman has had a chronic cough with fever A. A necrosis of alveolar epithelium may be evoked by and weight loss for the past month. A chest radiograph re- RDS. veals multiple nodules from 1cm to 4cm in size, some of B. A liquefactive necrosis of colonic mucosa may be evoked which demonstrate cavitation in the upper lobes. A sputum in NEC. sample reveals the presence of acid-fast bacilli. Which of the C. An ischemic necrosis of cardiomyocytes is the main cul- following cells is the most important in the development of prit to elucidate hydrops universalis. her lung lesions? D. A necrosis of brain ganglia is the underlying cause of kernicterus. A. Macrophage. E. A and B are correct. B. Fibroblast. C. Neutrophil. 6. The pigment characteristic for a previous exposure to D. Mast cell. stress is: E. Platelet. A. Lipofuscin. 14. A 21-year-old sexually active man is notified by the B. Hemosiderin. health department that his last sexual contact 3 weeks prior C. Melanin. has had a positive serologic test for syphilis. He goes to see D. Anthracosis. the physician that day. Which of the following findings in this E. Coal. man is most likely to be indicative of this acquisition of in- fection? 7. Hemosiderin granules can be easily identifiable with a histochemical staining. Which is it? A. Positive VDRL in CSF. B. Testicular gumma on biopsy. A. Pearls reaction (Prussian blue). C. Mucocutaneous rash. B. Periodic Acid Schiff. D. Penile chancre. C. Congo red. E. Genital condylomata lata. D. Massons Trichome. E. Glassons reaction. 15. Select the correct answer regarding molecular biology techniques. 8. A cessation of hormonal stimulation leads to: A. They can be used to study nucleic acids. A. Increase in Bax and Bak. B. They may require DNA or RNA isolation. B. Increase in Bcl-2. C. They can be quantitative or qualitative. C. Decrease in cytochrome c. D. They include e.g. PCR and FISH. D. Decrease in endonuclease activation. E. All answers are correct. E. Decrease in caspases. 3 of 4 16. Select the correct order in the pathomorphology laborato- 23. A Barrett's metaplasia: ry. A. Glandular metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithe- A. Staining, embedding, description, tissue processing, lium. collecting representative pieces from specimens, sectioning. B. Squamous metaplasia of esophageal glandular epithelium. B. Transport and admission, description, collecting repre- C. Glandular metaplasia of trachea glandular epithelium. sentative pieces from specimen, tissue processing, embed- D. Squamous epithelium of trachea glandular epithelium. ding, sectioning, staining, microscopic evaluation. E. Glandular metaplasia of duodenal epithelium. C. Microscopic evaluation, staining, embedding, sectioning, transport and admission, description, collecting representative 24. The highest mortality among cancers is attributed to: pieces from specimen. D. Transport and admission, collecting representative pieces A. Female lung cancer. from specimen, embedding, processing, sectioning, micro- B. Female breast cancer. scopic evaluation. C. Male prostate cancer. D. Male colon and rectum cancer. 17. What is the first step in the chamber of tissue processing E. Uterine cervix cancer. machines? A. Cleaning. B. Rinsing. C. Wax infiltration. D. Dehydration. E. Rehydration. 18. What is the ideal cutting section thickness in histopatho- logy? A. 5-10 um. B. 20-22 um. C. 4-6 um. D. 1-3 um. E. 50-100 um. 19. Venous thrombosis: A. Is mainly manifesting in superficial and deep veins of upper limbs. B. Is a common sequel of atherosclerosis. C. Deep venous thrombosis of lower limbs is not connected to increased risk of thrombosis. D. Its presence generally has a minor clinical significance. E. Damages tissues through local blood flow obstruction. 20. The nutmeg liver: A. Is typical for hemorrhagic shock. B. Is a name for a liver with acute congestion. C. Grossly is a doubled colored liver - yellow, green. D. Is an example of a complete adaptation of hepatocytes to a chronic injury. E. Grossly is a doubled colored liver (yellow-red). 21. Pneumatosis intestinalis is a morphological feature of: A. RDS. B. SIDS. C. Hydrops universalis. D. NEC. E. ARDS. 22. The malignant pediatric neoplasm that may spontaneous- ly regress is: A. AML. B. Liver hemangioma. C. Neuroblastoma. D. Hepatocellular carcinoma. E. Kidney melanoma. 4 of 4 ED 2023 - COLLOQUIUM 2 - SEMESTER 2 8. A 43-year-old non-smoker has worsening shortness of breath over an 8-year period cough or increased sputum COLLOQUIUM 2 - GROUP 2 - VERSION 1 production. Physical examination showed decreased breath auscultation and a drumming sound on percussion. Chest x- 1. Bloody diarrhea is typically not a symptom of: ray reveals increased clar fields. Laboratory studies have shown that serum alpha-1-antitrypsin levels are decr the A. Crohn disease following microscopic parts of the patient's lungs is most B. Colon cancer likely to be affected? C. Eosinophilic esophagitis D. Ulcerative colitis A. Lymphatic channel E. Ischemic bowel disease B. Main bronchus C. Bronchial artery 2. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules/disease are typical for: D. Interstitium E. Terminal bronchiole A. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma B. Wilms tumor 9. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma: C. Diabetic nephropathy D. Lupus nephopathy A. Usually involves the tail of pancreas E. Malignant hypertenstion B. Can obstruct the distal common bile duct C. Usually is well differentiated 3. An agressive nonhodgkin lymphoma that grows fast is: D. Is characterised with better prognosis than esophageal E. Usually is soft A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Hodgkin lymphoma 10. Characteristic feature of Hodgkin lymphoma is: C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Burkitt lymphoma A. Most common localization in a single axial group E. Follicular lymphoma B. Most commonly involved organ is spleen C. Typical primary localization is gastrointestinal tract 4. A 65-year-old man had no major health problems until last D. Noncontiguous spread year, when he noticed incr weakness, malaise and weight loss E. Mesenteric nodes involvement common of 10 kg. He is a non-smoker. He currently has no fe short- ness of breath or any breathing problems. Physical examina- 11. The most common benign breast tumor in young woman tion revealed a palpab enlarged supraclavicular lymph node. is : On auscultation, there were no abnormal murm ray showed numerous solid nodules, 1 to 3 cm in size, scattered in all A. Fibroadenoma fields of both I- Laboratory tests show Hgb 11.6 g/dl, Het B. Phyllodes tumor 34.7%, MCV 83 fl and WBC count 6280/ Which of the fol- C. Subareolar papilloma lowing pathological processes in his lungs is most likely D. Tubular adenoma responsib results? E. Lipoma A. Staphylococcus aureus infection 12. The gold diagnostic standard in patients with lymphade- B. Repeated aspiration of food nopathy that require examination is: C. ARDS D. Emphysema A. Palpation E. Cancer metastases to the lungs B. Biopsy with obtaining a biopsy core C. Fine needle aspiration 5. Choose the correct statement: D. Ultrasound examination E. Open biopsy A. Germ cells are rarely a source for testicular tumors B. Seminoma spreads very early to distant sites 13. Gliosis is a reaction of: C. All patients with choriocarcinoma have elevated hCG D. Most of the testicular tumors have elevated AFP A. Astrocytes E. Spermatocytic tumor is the most common component B. Ependymocytes C. Oligodendrocytes 6. Celiac disease is characterised by all except: D. Neurons E. Microglia A. The absence of ganglion cells in colonic submucosal plexus 14. The feature distinguishing pituitary adenomas from non- B. Intraepithelial lymphocytosis neoplastic a (…) parenchyma is: C. Villous atrophy D. Crypt hyperplasia A. Lack of fibrous capsule E. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy B. Absence of a significant reticulin network C. Distant metastases 7. Regarding breast cancer, the following are true except D. Presence of amyloid E. Presence of psammoma bodies A. It is more common in childless women B. The predisposing factor for its occurrence is a long repro- 15. The constitutional symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include: ductive period (period puberty to menopause). C. It is most often located in the upper outer quadrant of the A. Myxedema breast B. Heat intolerance and excessive sweating D. Comedocarcinoma has the worst prognosis among C. Acromegaly invasive cancers D. Elevated calcitonin E. May occur in the third decade of life E. Cretinism 15 of 23 16. A brown nodule of the abdominal skin, 6 mm in diameter, 23. Testicular tumors typically occurring in young men was… Clinical diagnosis: skin nevus. Microscopic examina- (20-30) are: tion revealed (…) basaloid keratinocytes, without signs of atypia, without mitotic… formation. The final pathomorpho- A. Yolk sac tumor, spermatocytic tumor logical diagnosis of the lesion is B. Spermatocytic tumor, seminoma C. Seminoma, embryonal carcinoma A. Acral melanoma D. Embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcinoma B. Nodular melanoma E. Choriocarcinoma, endodermal sinus tumor C. Psoriasis D. Melanocytic skin nevus 24. The renal neoplasm that has a tendency to invade renal E. Seborrheic keratosis vein is: 17. The most common causes of hypercortisolism do not A. Angiomyolipoma include: B. Wilms tumor C. Papillary adenoma A. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia D. Oncocytoma B. Primary hypothalamic-pituitary diseases association E. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma C. Secretion of ectopic ACTH by nonpituitary neoplasm D. Primary adrenocortical neoplasms 25. A 52-year-old woman has had a lump in her breast for 2 E. Exposure to iatrogenic glucocorticoids months. On physical examination, a 2 to 3 cm hard lump is palpable in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. There 18. Bonchial carcinoid is: are no palpable axillary nodes. A quadrantectomy was per- formed with excision of the axillary node. The breast lesion A. A benign tumor was found to be immunohistochemically positive for HER2/ B. A highly malignant tumor with a 5-year survival rate of neu (c-erb B2). Immunohistochemistry showed no estrogen 3% and progesterone receptors. Which of the following treatment C. Malignant neuroendocrine neoplasm options is most effective for this woman? D. Carcinoid does not occur in the bronchus, but only in the appendix A. Aspirin E. Type of sarcoma B. Tamoxifen C. Trastuzumab 19. Choose the correct statement regarding ovarian mucinous D. Prednisone tumors: E. Penicillin A. They are associated with TP53 mutation B. Serosal penetration and solid areas of growth are sug- gestive of malignancy C. They are also known as Krukenberg tumors D. About 50% are borderline E. Most of them are malignant 20. Vasculitis: A. Usually involve veins B. May involve different types of blood vessels C. May lead to narrowing the lumen of involved blood vessel D. The correct answers are A and B E. The correct answers are B and C 21. Most common malignancy in prostate is: A. Rhabdoid tumor B. Adenocarcinoma C. Clear cell carcinoma D. Urothelial carcinoma E. Squamous cell carcinoma 22. Tumor that typically arises in association with estrogen excess in the setting of er hyperplasia in perimenopausal women, is: A. Dysgerminoma B. Serous endometrial carcinoma C. Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma D. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia E. Thyroid papillary carcinoma 16 of 23 COLLOQUIUM 2 - GROUP 2 - VERSION 2 8. Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by all the features except: 1. A 45-year-old woman feels a "lump" in her left breast. Palpation revealed an irregular area 2 cm in diameter in the A. Usually is localized in body of stomach upper outer quadrant. A biopsy is performed - microscopic B. May induce the development of gastric carcinoid examination does not show the presence of cancer. Which of C. May be associated with autoimmune thyroiditis the following microscopic findings in this biopsy suggest the D. Is associated with hyperplasia of parietal cells greatest risk of developing breast cancer later? E. May be a cause of anemia A. Atypical ductal hyperplasia 9. All are the neural tube defects except: B. Simple adenosis C. Apocrine metaplasia A. Arnold-Chiari syndrome D. Galactoceles B. Anencephaly E. Multiple cystic spaces C. Myelomeningocele D. Spina bifida 2. What is the precursor to squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) E. Encephalocele of the skin? 10. Gliosis: A. Keratoacanthoma B. Actinic keratosis A. Is a precancerous lesion C. Inverted follicular keratosis B. Is the reaction of oligodendrocytes D. Psoriasis C. Is the reaction of microglial cells E. Seborrheic keratosis D. Occurs in central nervous system in variable patholo- gical settings 3. A unifocal large tumor in cirrhotic liver of 60 years old E. Is the preinvasive form of glioblastoma man, composed of cells resembling hepatocytes and forming thick tabeculae is: 11. Myeloblasts are neoplastic cells typical for: A. A metastatic carcinoma A. Burkitt lymphoma B. A cholangiocarcinoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. A hepatocellular carcinoma C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D. An angiosarcoma D. Hodgkin lymphoma E. A focal nodular hyperplasia E. Follicular lymphoma 4. The morphological lesion of arterioles typical for mali- 12. Which of the statements is incorrect about follicular lym- gnant nephrosclerosis is: phoma: A. Hyaline artriolosclerosis A. Is an aggressive neoplasm B. Atherosclerosis B. The neoplastic cells have the immunophenotype of B cells C. Fibrinoid necrosis C. Is an indolent, slowly growing neoplasm D. "Wire loops" D. Has follicular pattern of growth E. Accumulation of amyloid E. Is one the most common lymphomas in adults 5. The renal neoplasm that has a tendency to invade the renal 13. Reed-Sternberg cells: vein, which cells have clear or pink cytoplasm and scanty but highly vascularised stroma is: A. Are small B. Are typical for Hodgkin lymphoma A. Oncocytoma C. Always have small nucleoli B. Wilms tumor D. The correct answers are A and C C. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma E. All the answers are correct D. Angiomyolipoma E. Papillary adenoma 14. Which one of the following is not associated with an increased risk for development of testicular tumors? 6. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma: A. Cryptoorchidism A. Typically arises in the background of Barrett esophagus B. Testicular tumor in a brother or father of the patient B. Most commonly occurs in the distal third of the esophagus C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome C. Forms glands D. Lack of circumcision D. Produces mucin E. Gonadal dysgenesis E. Begins as an in situ lesion in the form of squamous dysplasia 15. Biter: 7. All the microscopic features are morphological feature of A. Is always a result of insulin deficiency reflux esophagitis except: B. Sporadic is m C. Toxic multinc A. Atrophy of basal zone D. Its clinical silent B. Neutrophils E. Virtually all real C. Basal zone hyperplasia D. Eosinophils E. Hyperemia 17 of 23 16. Choose the tumors that may be associated with HPV infections A. Vulvar carcinoma, ovarian melanoma, carcinoma B. Vaginal carcinoma, ovarian serous carcinoma C. Cervical carcinoma, vaginal carcinoma D. Ovarian serous carcinoma, endometrioid endometrial carcinoma E. Endometrioid serous carcinoma, ovarian mucinous carci- noma 17. LSIL: A. Is equal to CIN III in a three-tiered system B. Features of atypia are present in all layers of the epitheli- um C. Is much less common than HSIL D. Does not progress directly to invasive carcinoma E. Is not associated with HIV infections 18. Choose the correct statement: A. Brenner tumors develop in association with endometriosis B. Leiomyoma is one of the surface epithelial tumors C. Ovaries are never a site for metastatic tumors D. All ovarian tumors are symptomatic even at small sizes E. Dysgerminoma is a counterpart of testicular seminoma 19. Please select the correct sentence on IHC: A. It is a quantitative method B. It employs polyclonal antibodies which recognizes a multitude of antigens C. It is an invaluable method for the visualization of pro- teins in the context of an intact tissue D. It can be divided on direct and indirect and the former one is the only method used diagnostically E. All the answers are correct 20. The CK7-/CK20+ IHC pattern is typical of: A. Colorectal adenocarcinomas B. Prostate cancer C. Lung adenocarcinoma D. Urothelial cancer E. All the answers are incorrect 18 of 23 COLLOQUIUM 2 - GROUP 1 7. The renal neoplasm that has the tendency to invade the renal vein, which cells have clear cytoplasm and scanty but 1. A 52-year-old woman has felt a lump in her breast for the highly vascularized stroma is: past 2 months. On physical examination, a firm 2 to 3 cm mass is palpable in the upper outer quadrant of her right A. Oncocytoma breast. There are no palpable axillary nodes. A lumpectomy B. Wilms tumor with axillary node dissection is performed. The breast lesion C. Clear cell renal cell carcinoma is found to have positive immunohistochemical staining for D. Angiomyolipoma HER2/neu (c-erb B2). Staining for estrogen and progesterone E. Papillary adenoma receptors is negative. Which of the following treatment opti- ons is most likely to be efficacious in this woman? 8. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma typically arises in the background of Barrett's esophagus A. Aspirin B. Tamoxifen A. Most commonly occurs in the distal 3rd of the esophagus C. Trastuzumab B. Forms glands D. Prednisone C. Produces mucin E. Penicillin D. Begins as an in situ lesion in the form of squamous dysplasia 2. A 45-year-old woman feels a 'lump' in her left breast. Her physician palpates a 2 cm irregular area in the upper outer 9. All microscopic features are morphological features of quadrant. A biopsy is performed and microscopic examinati- reflux esophagitis except: on shows no evidence for carcinoma. Which of the following microscopic findings in this biopsy is most likely to suggest A. Atrophy of the basal zone an increased risk for subsequent development of breast carci- B. Neutrophils noma? C. Basal zone hyperplasia D. Eosinophils A. Atypical hyperplasia E. Hyperemia B. Sclerosing adenosis C. Apocrine metaplasia 10. Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by all the features D. Galactocele except: E. Multiple cysts A. Usually is localized in the body of the stomach 3. What is the precursor to squamous cell carcinoma of the B. May induce the development of gastric carcinoid skin? C. May be associated with autoimmune thyroiditis D. Is associated with hyperplasia of parietal cells A. Keratoacanthoma E. May be a cause of anemia B. Actinic keratosis C. Inverted follicular keratosis 11. All are neural tube defects except: D. Psoriasis E. Seborrheic keratosis A. Arnold-Chiari syndrome B. Anencephaly 4. Choose the tumors that typically are or may be associated C. Myelomeningocele with HPV infection D. Spina bifida E. Encephalocele A. Vulvar carcinoma, ovarian mucinous carcinoma B. Vaginal carcinoma, ovarian serous carcinoma 12. Gliosis is: C. Cervical carcinoma, vaginal carcinoma D. Ovarian serous carcinoma, endometrioid endometrial A. Is a precancerous lesion - It is not precancerous carcinoma B. Is the reaction of oligodendrocytes - Reaction of astrocytes E. Endometrioid serous carcinoma, ovarian mucinous carci- C. Is the reaction of microglial cells - Reaction of astrocytes noma D. Occurs in the central nervous system in variable pa- thological settings 5. A large unifocal tumor in cirrhotic liver of a 60-year-old E. Is the preinvasive form of glioblastoma man composed of cells resembling hepatocytes and forming thick trabeculae is: 13. Myeloblasts are neoplastic cells typical for: A. A metastatic carcinoma A. Burkitt lymphoma B. A cholangiocarcinoma B. Acute myeloid leukemia C. A hepatocellular carcinoma C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D. An angiosarcoma D. Hodgkin lymphoma E.

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