Organic Medicinal Chemistry PDF
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Summary
This document provides an introduction to organic medicinal chemistry. It introduces basic concepts and characteristics of important drug types, including antibiotics, and some common questions. This document is aimed at pharmaceutical or medical students who are learning this subject.
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om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m INTRODUCTION...
om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m INTRODUCTION om.l c Medicinal Chemistry ________________________ and _________________________ of new agents for treating diseases. Principal domain: application of science (chemistry) towards drug design. ai Drug g m a @ An agent intended for use in the __________, __________, __________, __________, or ______________ of disease in humans or in in other animals. a n b Antibiotic b A substance produced by microorganisms, which has the capacity of inhibiting the growth and even of destroying other microorganisms. - Selman Waksman io a Root word: Antibiosis (literally “against life”) Antibiotic Characteristics o d s o m 1. Product of _______________ although it may be duplicated or even have been anticipated by chemical synthesis. 2. Synthetic product produced as a _________________________ of a naturally occurring antibiotic. 3. Antagonizes the growth or survival of one or more species of microorganisms. 4. Effective in low concentrations. INTRODUCTION om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d m Cell Wall contains: s o Peptidoglycan layer Sugar (NAM and NAG) linked by peptides NAM: NAG: Antibiotics MOA om i.l c Cell Wall Inhibitors Protein Synthesis Inhibitors m a @ g Mnemonic: __________________ 1. Cephalosporins 2. Carbapenem 30s in a n 1. Tetracycline a 3. Penicillin b 2. Aminoglycoside b 4. Polypeptide/ Glycopeptide 5. Monobactam io a 50s o d 1. Lincosamide 2. Chloramphenicol s o m 3. Macrolide QUICK QUIZ! om 1. All of the following are cell wall inhibitors, except: i.l c A. Carbapenem m a g B. Cephalosporins @ C. Aminoglycosides D. Penicillins in a a n 2. Which of the following inhibits 30s? b b a A. Chloramphenicol io B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolides o d m D. Lincosamides s o PENICILLINS om.l c beta lactam ring (4 membered cyclic amide) thiazolidine ring (contains S) ai Nucleus: 6-aminopenicillanic acid (6-APA) PQ g m a @ in Microbial sources a n Penicillium _________________ (discovered by Fleming) b Penicillium _________________ (most common source) b io a Background o d m Accidentally discovered by Sir ____________________________ in 1929 s o Howard Florey and Ernst Chain introduced penicillin into therapy in 1928. They isolated penicillin using the process called “_________________________”. BEQ PENICILLINS om Issues with Penicillin i.l c 1. Water Insoluble -> added _________ m a g 2. Easily Excreted @ 1st solution: 2nd solution: in a n 3. Acid-labile -> substitution of ________________________ a 4. Easily degraded by penicillinase enzyme (B-lactamase) b 1st solution: a b io 2nd solution: o d Beta Lactamase/Penicillinase inhibitors s o m 1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam QUICK QUIZ! om 1. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins: i.l c a. Benzene ring m a g b. Beta-lactam ring @ c. Thiazole ring d. Phenothiazine in a a n b b 2. Increases serum levels and prolongs the activity of penicillin derivatives by io a blocking the latter’s tubular excretion: d A. Probenecid B. Indomethacin C. Propranolol m o D. Methyldopa s o QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c 3. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation? m a g A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin @ B. Benzathine penicillin C. Benzyl penicillin D. Cloxacillin in a a n b b io a 4. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin: d A. Freeze drying B. Extraction m C. Chromatography o s D. X-ray o I. NATURAL PENICILLINS om A. Pen G aka: ___________________________ i.l c a Not effective when administered orally (inactivated by gastric juice) m _______________________ administered @ g DOC for: __________________ in a a n b b i o a B. Pen V aka: ___________________________ Acid stable o d m _______________ Administered s o II. AMINO PENICILLINS aka: ____________________________ om.l c Contains a-amino group (ionized/polar group) that can penetrate the outer cell membrane of Gram negative bacteria. ai A. Amoxicillin g m a Chemical name: D-a-Amino-p- hydroxybenzylpenicillin PQ @ in Better oral bioavailability than Ampicillin Orally administered a n b b B. Ampicillin io a d Poor GI absorption --> parenterally administered o Prodrugs of Ampicillin: PQ m o 1. Bacampicillin s 2. Cyclacillin 3. Hetacillin (reacting penicillin with acetone) III. Penicillinase Resistant Penicillin aka: ________________________ Contains bulky group ---> Steric hindrance om i.l c A. Methicillin m a g Drug of choice for: Penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus @ Interstitial nephritis (renally excreted) in a Side effect: _______________________ (hypersensitivity reaction) n DOC for: _______________________ MRSA - _______________________ b a VRSA - _______________________ a b B. Nafcillin d io o Alternative for Methicillin (biliary excreted) m o Side effect: ___________________________ s Isoxazolyl Penicillins (Oxacillin, Cloxacillin, Dicloxacillin) IV. Antipseudomonal Penicillins om.l c A. Carboxypenicillins (acid-labile -> parenterally administered) 1. Carbenicillin ai m broader than any other known penicillin (attributed by carboxyl group) g @ 2. Ticarcillin Timentin: Ticarcillin + Clavulanate in a a n b B. Ureidopenicillins 1. Piperacillin a b io most potent of all ureidopenicillin d m o Acid-labile -> IV and IM Zosyn: Piperacillin+Tazobactam (8:1 ratio) s 2. Mezlocillin 3. Azlocillin o QUICK QUIZ! om 1. Benzyl penicillin is also known as: i.l c A. Penicillin G m a g B. Penicillin @ C. Oxacillin D. Ampicillin in a a n b b a 2. The chemical name is 2,6-dimethoxyphenylpenicillin: io A. Pen G B. Pen V o d m C. Methicillin o D. Nafcillin s QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c 3. Augmentin is a combination of: m a 4. Unasyn is a combination of: I. K salts of Clavulanic acid II. Amoxicillin I. Amoxicillin @ g II. Sulbactam Sodium III. Ampicillin in a III. Ampicillin Sodium n IV. Sulbactams IV. Clavulanic acid ba A. I and II a b A. I and II io B. II and III B. I and III d C. II and IV C. II and III D. III and IV m o D. II and IV s o CEPHALOSPORINS om beta lactam ring (4 membered cyclic amide) i.l c dihydrothiazine ring m a g Nucleus: 7-aminocephalosporanic acid Microbial sources a@ n in a Cephalosporium acremonium b b Background io a o d Interest in Cephalosporium fungi began in 1945 with Giuseppe Brotzu’s m discovery that cultures of C. acremonium inhibited the growth of a wide s o variety of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. CEPHALOSPORINS om Characteristics i.l c m a 1. Much more resistant to inactivation by beta-lactamases (Penicillinase) @ g 2. Cross sensitivity with penicillin. Alternative: _____________________ a 3. More effective in treating gram (-) infections than penicillin in n 4. Broad spectrum 5. Acid stable b a Cephamycin a b d io o Mnemonic: ______________________________________ s o m Cefoxitin, Cefotetan, Cefmetazole CEPHALOSPORINS om i.l c Additional Info: m a @ g 2. Third generations (Cefoperazone,in a 1. Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea. a n Ceftazidime, Ceftriaxone) cross the b b blood brain barrier. It reaches cerebrospinal fluid. io a o d s o m QUICK QUIZ! om 1. A parenteral Cephamycin i.l c 3. Which is not true for cephalosporins? A. Cefoxitin a A. Broad spectrum m B. Cephalexin g B. Bactericidal @ a C. Ceftazidime C. Affected by penicillinases in D. Cefadroxil D. Acid-stable a n b b a 2. A fourth generation cephalosphorins 4. Cephalosporin C contains A. Cefoxitin d io A. Penicillanic acid B. Cefepime C. Cefamandole m o B. Thiazolidine ring C. Lactone ring D. Cefuroxime s o D. Dihydrothiazine ring CARBAPENEMS om.l c beta lactam ring (4 membered cyclic amide) pyrroline ring ai Characteristics g m a @ in 1. Resistant to beta-lactamase 2. Broad spectrum a n 3. Class II beta-lactamase inhibitor b b io a 1. Thienamycin o d s o m First carbapenem to be discovered First isolated from the fermentation of _____________________________________ CARBAPENEMS om 2. Imipenem i.l c m a g most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin. @ a MOA: inhibition of cell wall synthesis associated with bonding to PBPs ___ and ___. in Problem: Easily degraded by _____________________________ n a ____________________: inhibits dihydropeptidase-1 enzyme b b ____________________: Imipenem + Cilastatin PQ io a Side effects: ___________________ (patients with renal failure) o d s o m CARBAPENEMS om 3. Meropenem i.l c m a g Second generation Carbapenem Does not cause seizure a @ in Exhibits greater potency against Gram-negative and anaerobic bacteria than imipenem. Less active against Gram-positive a n Not hydrolyzed by DHP-I. b b a Resistant to most beta-lactamases io o d s o m MONOBACTAMS om.l c Beta-lactam ring is not fused to another ring ai began with the isolation of sulfazecin from saprophytic soil bacteria in Japan and United States. m Since sulfazecin was found to be weak antibacterial agent, extensive studies led to the g @ development of Aztreonam. in a 1. Aztreonam a n b b io a AKA: ___________________________ for P. aeuroginosa o d Monobactam prepared by total synthesis MOA: It binds with high affinity to ________ in Gram negative bacteria only o m It is inactive against ________ bacteria and anaerobes. s Penicillin-binding proteins have the following properties: om.l c PBPs 1a and 1b: peptidoglycan synthesis associated with ___________________. i Inhibited: m a g Eg: PBP 2: maintaining the ___________________ of bacilli. a @ in Inhibited: Eg: a n b PBP 3: septum formation during cell division. b Inhibited: io a d Eg: o PBP 4: hydrolysis of _________________________ terminal peptide bonds of the cross-linking peptides. m o Inhibited: s POLYPEPTIDES om One of the most powerful bactericidal antibiotics i.l c S/E: _____________________________ m a 1. Vancomycin @ g in a a n Glycopeptide antibiotic containing 2 glycosidically linked sugar (_______________ and b b __________________) and a complex cyclic peptide Microbial source: io a d Effective only against Gram (+) bacteria o DOC for: ____________________________________ and ______________________ m o S/E: ______________________________ (due to rapid infusion), ototoxic and nephrotoxic s POLYPEPTIDES om 2. Bacitracin i.l c m a Microbial source: @ g a Isolated from debrided tissue from a compound fracture of 7-year-old Margaret Tracy. in MOA: Inhibition of mucopeptide cell wall synthesis (enhanced by _________) n a Effective only against Gram (+) bacteria b a b 3. Polymyxin B d io m o Microbial source: s o Effective against Gram (-) bacteria POLYPEPTIDES om 4. Gramicidin i.l c Obtained from tyrothricin, m a Microbial source: @ g a MOA: interferes with cell membrane functions by acting as an ionophore in bacterial cell in n membranes to cause the loss of potassium ion from the cell. b Effective against Gram positive bacteria a a b 5. Teicoplanin d io m o o Microbial source: s Effective only against Gram positive. Safe compared to Vancomycin. QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c 1. Imipenem is the most successful of a series of chemically stable derivatives of thienamycin in which the a primary amino group is converted to a non- nucleophilic basic function. Imipenem is also: m g A. 5-acetoimidothienamycin @ B. 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl penicillin C. N-formimidoylthienamycin in a n D. a-(1-methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin b a 2. Primaxin is a combination of: a b io I. Tazocillin A. I and II II. Imipenem o d B. I and III m III. Piperacillin C. II and III IV. Cilastatin s o D. II and IV AMINOGLYCOSIDES om Composed of amino sugar linked glycosidically. i.l c Poorly absorbed following oral administration. m a g PQ SAR: Ring I - broad spectrum antibacterial; primary target for bacterial inactivating enzymes Orally administered: a @ n in 1. ___________________________ b a b 2. ___________________________ io 3. ___________________________ a o d Most are administered parenterally. s o m Do not cross the blood brain barrier Excreted by ___________________________ Not metabolized in vivo. AMINOGLYCOSIDES om Microbial Sources i.l c m a g A. Micromonospira: _____________ Eg: a@ in Microbial source: a n B. Streptomyces: _____________ b b Eg: io a d Microbial source: o Streptomycin A - m o Streptomycin B - s AMINOGLYCOSIDES om 1. Streptomycin i.l c m a g __________ aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy. Discovered by __________________________ a @ in Acid hydrolysis yields ____________________ and _______________________ a n Only aminoglycoside used for tuberculosis. b b DOC: ____________________ aka _________________________ a Most effective of the group for the chemotherapy of TB, brucellosis, tularemia, and Yersinia io d infections m o s o AMINOGLYCOSIDES om 2. Neomycin i.l c m a Microbial source: Used for the treatment of GI infections @ g Most _________________ in a a n 3. Paromomycin b b Microbial source: io a 4. Spectinomycin o d o m Tx for: _____________________________ s AMINOGLYCOSIDES om 5. Kanamycin (Kantrex) PQ i.l c m a Microbial source: @ g a Kanamycin is almost pure Kanamycin A (least toxic of all forms) n in 6. Amikacin (Amikin) b a b Semisynthetic aminoglycoside first prepared in Japan. a io Structurally related to _____________________ o d Broadest spectrum of all aminoglycoside s o m AMINOGLYCOSIDES om i.l c 7. Gentamicin m a Microbial source: @ g in a 8. Netilmicin a n Semi-synthetic b b io a Microbial source: ______________________________ (prepared by reductive ethylation of Sisomicin) o d s o m AMINOGLYCOSIDES ADR om i.l c A: ________________________ m a @ g M: ________________________ (CI to patients with myasthenia gravis) I: ________________________ in a a n N: ________________________ (Most: _______________) b b O: ________________________ (Most: _______________) io a o d Vestibular damage: Gentamicin & Streptomycin s o m Auditory damage: Amikacin, Kanamycin, Neomycin Both: Tobramycin QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c a 1. The 1st aminoglycoside antibiotic to be used in chemotherapy: m A. Amikacin B. Gentamicin @ g a C. Streptomycin in D. Kanamycin a n 2. Acid hydrolysis of Streptomycin yields: b b a I. Streptidine io II. Streptobiosamine III. Deoxystreptamine o d A. I and II B. I and III s o m C. I and III D. I and II TETRACYCLINES om i.l c m a @ g in a n Compound of 4 fused ring b a Functional group: ______________________ b Advantage: _________________ of activity of any known bacterial agents. a io Effective against: Atypical bacteria (Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, Chlamydia) o d Disadvantage: _________________________ agent only s o m Note: Do not give bacteriostatic agent to __________________ patients TETRACYCLINES ADR om Chelate _______, _______, _______, and _______ salts i.l c They get deposited in newly forming _____________. m a Causes __________ discoloration of teeth. Causes __________ damage @ g in a Tetracyclines are distributed into the milk of lactating mothers and will cross the placental barrier into the fetus. a n Should not be given to: b b _____________ io a o d _________________ mothers Children below ____ years old s o m Highly phototoxic Causes ____________ syndrome - ingesting expired tetracycline TETRACYCLINES om 1. Chlortetracycline aka ___________________ i.l c Microbial source: m a g First tetracycline to be discovered (by ____________) 2. Demeclocycline a @ n in Causes photosensitivity reaction that produces erythema after exposure to sunlight. 3. Doxycycline b a a b io DOC: d Prophylaxis for __________________ o s o m 4. Minocycline Most _______________ tetracycline, and least _____________________ *Tigecycline is the first glycylcycline QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c a 1. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is: m A. Pen G Tetracycline @ g a Vancomycin in Gentamicin a n 2. Tetracycline is: b b a A. An intermediate spectrum, bactericidal io B. A broad spectrum, bacteriostatic o d C. A broad spectrum, bactericidal m D. An intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic s o QUICK QUIZ! om 3. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are: i.l c A. Enols m a g B. Esters C. Ethers a @ in D. Amines a n b b 4. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents? A. Isoniazid B. Chloramphenicol io a C. Erythromycin o d D. Tetracycline s o m MACROLIDES om Characteristics: i.l c m a g A. Large lactone ring B. Ketone group a @ in C. Glycosidically linked amino sugar (2-deoxy sugars) a n Advantage b b Can be given ________ io a o d ______________________ - first macrolide to be discovered s o m MACROLIDES om i.l c 1. Erythromycin m a Found in the soil of _________________ @ g a Microbial source: _____________________________ Discovered by: _____________________________ n in a Given to patient with allergy in ______________ antibiotics Enzyme inhibitor b b io a Estolate salt causes: _____________________________ d DOC: Diphtheria, Pertussis, Legionella – Respiratory tract infection o ADR: GI distress (abdominal cramps, diarrhea) m s o MACROLIDES 2. Clarithromycin aka: _____________________________.co m a i l m Increased acid stability and oral bioavailability Enzyme inhibitor @ g i n a Used in the tx of peptic ulcer disease 3. Azithromycin a n b b Given for 3 days io a d Food decreases its absorption by as much 50%. Administer at least 1 hour before or 2 o hours after meal. m o Not an enzyme inhibitor s LINCOSAMIDES om S-containing antibiotic i.l c 1st: Lincomycin m a g Microbial source: _________________________________ Disadvantage: easily excreted a @ in Solution: Added _________________ and __________________ group. a n b b 1. Clindamycin (Dalacin-C and Cleocin) o a Aka: 7-chloro-7-deoxy-lincomycin i d Broad spectrum antiobiotic that inhibit the growth of GI flora o m Clostridium difficile is resistant: It proliferate causing ___________________________________ s o Symptoms: GI distress, blood in stool Management: D/C, give vancomycin or metronidazole CHLORAMPHENICOL om Unclassified i.l c Isolated by ____________________________ m a Microbial source: ____________________________ @ g a Main metabolism: Glucoronidation Minor metabolism: Reduction and Hydrolysis n in a It can cross BBB DOC: ____________________________ b b a Alternative: ____________________________ io d ADR: Bone marrow depression --> ____________________________ o Toxic: _________________________ m s o QUICK QUIZ! om 1. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin: i.l c A. Clindamycin m a g B. Roxithromycin @ C. Spectinomycin D. Ilotycin in a a n b 2. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol: b a A. NO2 group B. NH2 group d io o C. OH group m D. COOH group s o QUICK QUIZ! om 3. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo: i.l c A. Achromycin m a g B. Albamycin @ C. Erythromycin D. Viomycin in a 4. Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics: a n I. Large lactone ring b b II. Ketone group io a III. A glycosidically linked amino sugar IV. An asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol o d A. I only m B. II only s o C. I-III D. I-IV om.l c Synthetic m ai g Antibacterial a n i n a @ d ioAgents a b b m o s o SULFONAMIDE om.l c Prototype: _____________________ (brilliant red dye) Active metabolite: _____________________ ai m Metabolism: Acetylation g MOA: Structural analogs of ____________. It competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase. @ a Active form of sulfonamide: ______________ form Folate Synthesis (DNA) n in b a a b d io m o s o SULFONAMIDE om i l c 1. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim (Bactrim,.Septra) m a Sulfamethoxazole: inhibits _____________________________________ g Trimethoprim: inhibits _____________________________________ @ Use: i n a n Tx and prophylaxis of _________ (common cause of mortality in HIV px) b a Tx for the first attack of _________ 2. Pyrimethamine +io a b Sulfadiazine o d m Use: Tx and prophylaxis of _____________________________________ s o SULFONAMIDE om i.l c 3. Silver sulfadiazine and Mafenide m a Mafenide S/E: @ g Use: Burn therapy: Prevention and treatment BEQ for bacterial infections in a 4. Sulfacetamide a n b b Use: Tx of _________________________ and other ocular infections 5. Sulfadoxine + d io a Pyrimethamine m o o Use: Tx of _________________________ P. falciparum malaria s SULFONAMIDE om ADR i.l c Crystalluria m a Rashes @ g Anemia (Hemolytic) Nausea in a Kernicterus a n Stevens Johnson Syndrome b b io a o d Other commonly used drugs that are sulfon- amides or sulfanilamide: m Tolbutamide (OHA) s o Furosemide (diuretic) Chlorathalidone (diuretic) SULFONES om Less effective than sulfonamides i.l c MOA: Analogue of PABA m a Dapsone (4,4’-diaminodiphenylsulfone or DDS) @ g i n a n DOC for ___________________ aka ________________ disease a b Tx of both lepromatous and tuberculoid types of leprosy b io a *Clofazimide: a reddish-brown dye, tx for leprosy)* o d s o m QUINOLONES om MOA: Inhibit ___________________ or ___________________ i.l c Prototype: ___________________(urinary antiseptic) m a g Most potent: ___________________ a @ ADR n in a Chelates: Zinc, Calcium, Magnesium, Bismuth, Ferrous and Ferric ions b b Phototoxic Most: ___________________ io a d Least: ___________________ o m Causes arthropathy (erosion of catilage) s o C/I: Below 18 yrs old QUINOLONES om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m NITROFURANS om.l c First _______________ compounds to be introduced into chemotherapy MOA: Inhibits DNA synthesis ai g m Drugs a @ in 1. _____________________ : Tx for burns (bacterial infection) n a 2. _____________________: Tx for bacterial or protozoal diarrhea b b 3. _____________________: Urinary antiseptic a io 4. _____________________: Used as antiprotozoal agent to treat trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis. o d s o m NITROFURANS om 5. Metronidazole i.l c Tx for: TAGA m a Trichomoniasis: causes _____________________ @ g a Amoebiasis in Giardiasis: aka _____________________ Anaerobes a n b b ADR: _____________________, _____________________ io a d Reactive reduction product of Metronidazole: Nitroso m o o Nitroxide s Hydroxylamine Amine Synthetic Antibacterial Agents QUICK QUIZ! om 1. Active form of the sulfonamide: i.l c 3. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by: A. Non-ionized B. Ionized A. Acetylation B. Oxidation m a C. Amphoteric C. Methylation @ g D. Oxo ring a D. Deamination in a n b 2. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin b A. Levo B. Dextro io a C. Cis isomer o d D. Trans isomer s o m om i.l c a Antifungal @ gm n a Agents a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTIFUNGAL AGENTS om i.l c m a ____________________: scientific study of fungi @ g Structural component of fungi: in a Cell membrane: ____________________ a n Cell wall: ____________________ b b io a o d s o m om.l c 3 Types of Mycoses: 1. ______________________: outermost layer of the skin and hair. ai m Eg. Tine versicolor aka ______________________ Causative agents: ____________________ @ g a Under the microscope: Spaghetti with meatballs in appearance. in 2. ____________________: subcutaneous tissues. a n 3. ____________________: aka “____________________”, affecting internal organs b b a Common Types of Ringworms 1. Tinea manuum: d io o 2. Tinea pedies aka Athlete’s foot: 3. Tinea corporis: s 4. Tinea capitis: o m 5. Tinea cruris aka “____________________”: 6. Tinea unguium: POLYENES om Contains: i.l c Conjugated double bonds m a g Hydroxyl groups (OH) Mycosamine (glycosidically linked deoxyaminohexose) a @ n in 1. Amphotericin B b a a b Microbial source: ____________________________ io MOA: Creates a hole in a fungal cell membrane causing cytoplasmic contents to leak out. d o DOC: ____________________________ m s o POLYENES om i.l c 2. Nystatin (Mycostatin) m a Aglycone: ________________________ @ g Microbial source: ________________________ in a n DOC: ________________________ b a 3. Natamycin a b io Microbial source: ____________________________ d o DOC: ____________________________ m s o ECHINOCANADINS om MOA: Inhibition of ________________________ i.l c Effective against most species of Candida m a Eg: @ g a 1. 2. n in b a a b d io m o s o AZOLES om MOA: Inhibition of ________________________ i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m AZOLES om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m ALLYLAMINES om Topical use only i.l c MOA: _________________________ inhibitor m a g Naftitine Tolnaftate a@ in Terbinafine (Lamisil) n Tx for _________________________ (Tinea unguium) a Shorter duration of therapy b b Applied once per day for a week io a ADR: Highly _____________________ o d s o m OTHERS om 1. Griseofulvin i.l c Antifungal antibiotic m a Microbial source: _________________________ @ g a Isolated originally as a “_________________________” in plants. in MOA: __________________________________________________ n Poor oral bioavailability b a b Solution: Micronized form io a Should be taken with _________________________ d DOC: _________________________ o s o m OTHERS om 2. Flucytosine i.l c Nucleoside antifungal agent m a g Prodrug @ Converted to ________________________ (active metabolite) MOA: inhibits ________________________ synthesis in a Synergistic with ________________________ a n 3. Propionic acid (0.01%) b b io a Natural antifungal agent found in the perspiration. 4. Undecylenic acido d s o m Tx for athlete’s foot. QUICK QUIZ! om 1. Which of the following is/are true regarding Griseofulvin? i.l c a I. It is recommended for the systemic treatment of refractory ringworm infections m g II. Its bioavailability is notoriously poor @ III. It is supplied in “microsize” and “ultramicrosize” forms in a n A. I, II and III B. I and II only b a 2. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following b C. I and III only antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous route? D. I and III only io a A. Miconazole d B. Amphotericin B m o C. Ketoconazole o D. Clioquinol s om i.l c a Cancer @ g n m a Chemotherapy a b b a n i d io m o s o CANCER CHEMOTHERAPY om i.l c ___________: a group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled growth, and the spread of abnormal cells that left untreated may lead to death. m a g 1g tumor= __________ cancer cells (it becomes detectable) a @ in _______________: the uncontrolled growth of new tissue, the product of which is known as a tumor, a n and these tumors may be either malignant or benign. b ______________ tumors: capable of invading surrounding tissues and moving to distant locations in b a the body in a process known as metastasis io d ______________ tumors - mass of cells that does not invade neighboring tissue or metastasize. m o s o CANCER CHEMOTHERAPY om ____________: cancer of the blood characterized by increased WBC i.l c Polycythemia vera: cancer of the blood characterized by increased RBC m a g Sarcoma: Malignant tumor of connective tissues Carcinoma: Tumor in epithelial cells. a @ Cell Cycle n in b a G1: Growth a b G2: Growth and preparation for Mitosis d io a. Inhibited by ____________ (Elspar) and Prednisone a. Inhibited by _______________ and ___________________ o S: DNA Synthesis M: Mitosis (________________________) m a. Inhibited by _____________________ b. Inhibited by ________________________ s o I. ALKYLATING AGENTS om Common side effect: Alopecia i.l c m a 1. Nitogen Mustards @ g A. Chlorambucil in a n Tx for _________________________________ b a B. Cyclophosphamide a b io Converted to phosphoramide mustard and acrolein d o Acrolein causes ________________________________ m o Emergency drug - _______________ s I. ALKYLATING AGENTS om 2. Organoplatinum Compounds i.l c A. Cisplatin ADR: _______________ and _______________ m a Emergency drug: _______________ @ g in a B. Carboplatin a n ADR: _______________ b b io a 3. Alkylsulfonates o d m A. Busulfan s o ADR: ________________ and _________________ II. ANTITUMOR ANTIBIOTICS om.l c A. Anthracyclines Microbial Source: __________________________ ai m 1. Daunarubicin 2. Doxorubicin @ g a ADR: _________________ in Emergency drug: _________________ a n B. Bleomycin b b a Cytotoxic glycopeptide io Microbial source: __________________________ d o ADR: __________________________ C. Plicamycin s o m Microbial source: __________________________ Yellow source that melts at 180-183 degree Celsius III. ANTIMETABOLITES om.l c A. Folate Analogue 1. Methotrexate ai m MOA: Inhibits __________________________ ADR: __________________________ @ g a Emergency Drug: _______________________ or ______________________ in B. Purine Analogues a n b 6-Mercaptopurine, 6-Thioguanine, Fludarabine, Cladirabine, Azathioprin b C. Pyrimidine analogues io a o d 5-Fluorouracil, Cytarabine, Capecitabine, Gemcitabine D. Hydroxyurea s o m MOA: Inhibits ribonucleotide diphosphate reductase. Use: Tx of myelogenous leukemia and thrombocytosis IV. PLANT ALKALOIDS om A. Vinca Alkaloids i.l c a Plant Source: __________________________ Common Name:__________________________ g m @ MOA: Inhibit __________________________ Eg: __________________________ in a n Tx for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma B. Camptothecins b a a b Plant Source: __________________________ d io Common Name:__________________________ o MOA: Inhibit __________________________ m o Eg: Irinotecan, Topotecan, s Irinotecan: First-line treatment for metastatic colon cancer Topotecan: Treatment of small cell lung cancer IV. PLANT ALKALOIDS om.l c C. Podophyllotoxins Plant Source: __________________________ ai m Common Name:__________________________ (Mandrake) MOA: Inhibits __________________________ @ g Eg: Etoposide, Tenposide in a a n D. Taxanes b b io a Plant Source: __________________________ Common Name:__________________________ o d MOA: Promote __________________________ s o m Eg: Paclitaxel, Docetaxel V. SEX HORMONES om A. Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators/ Antiestrogen i.l c 1. Tamoxifen m a DOC: __________________________ @ g a ADR: ______________________ cancer Tx: __________________________ (Depo-Povera) n in b a 2. Comiphene a b io Use: Fertility drug ADR: Multiple births o d s o m V. SEX HORMONES om B. Aromatase Inhibitor i.l c 1. Anastrozole m a @ g a C. Antiandrogens 1. Flutamide n in DOC: Prostate cancer ba a b io *Finasteride is the DOC for BPH. d MOA: 5-a-reductase inhibitor o m ADR: Hypertrichosis s o QUICK QUIZ! om 1. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine: i.l c a A. Mayapple m B. Periwinkle C. European year @ g a D. Datura alba n in a 2. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer A. Alopecia b b a B. Miosis io C. Mydriasis D. Ataxia o d s o m QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c 3. A type of tumor which has the capability of invading surrounding tissues and moving to distant locations in the body in a process known as metastasis. m a g A. Malignant tumor @ B. Benign tumor C. A & B in a n D. None b a b 4. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to: A. 100,000 cancer cells io a d B. 1 billion cancer cells C. 1 million cancer cells m o o D. None of the above s om i.l c a Antitubercular @ gm n a Agents a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m TB SECOND LINE AGENTS om 1. Ethionamide i.l c Thioisonicotinamide series m a g Differs from INH series in 2-substitution which enhances its activity. @ 2. Cycloserine in a Microbial Sources: a n ________________________________ b b a ________________________________ io ________________________________ HERZ: Antitubercular agents o d o m DOTS: Directly Observed Treatment Short- course s om i.l c a Antiviral @ g n m a Agents a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTIVIRAL AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m ANTIRETROVIRAL AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c a 1. It has become the drug of choice in the treatment of genital herpes. m A. Amantadine B. Idoxuridine @ g a C. Acyclovir in D. Vidarabine a n b 2. Ethionamide is a second line treatment drug of choice for tuberculosis and is used in the treatment a b of INH-resistant tuberculosis or when patient is intolerant to INH and other drugs. What is the io structural difference with INH series? A. 5-substitution B. 2-substitution o d o m C. 4-substitution s D. 3-substitution QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c a 3. AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of: m A. Koch’s infection B. HIV or AIDS @ g a C. Carbuncle in D. Ringworm a n b b 4. What antibiotic caused a major advance in the treatment of tuberculosis? A. Isoniazid io a d B. Ethionamide C. Rifampicin D. Cycloserine m o s o om i.l c a Antimalarial @ gm n a Drugs a b b a n i d io m o s o A. CINCHONA ALKALOIDS om 1. Quinine i.l c Use in the treatment of chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum m a Not indicated for prophylaxis @ g a Other indication: _________________________ in ADR: _______________________ a n 2. Quinidine b b Schizonticide io a o d Not indicated for malaria Primary indication: _________________________ s o m B. 4-Aminoquilonies om i.l c 1. Chloroquine and Hydroxychloroquine m a g Use in the prophylaxis and treatment of P. vivax, P. malariae and P. @ ovale and susceptible strains of P. falciparum a Other indication of Hydroxychloroquine: ________________________ in a n 2. Mefloquine b b a Use in the prophylaxis and treatment of chloroquine-resistant P. io falciparum and P. vivax o d PACOP: Newest and most potent agent for malaria s o m C. 8-Aminoquilonies om 1. Primaquine i.l c Not used as prophylaxis m a Radical cure for P. ovale and P. vivax @ g Indicated only to ________________________ form of malaria (outside RBC) in a a n b b io a o d s o m D. ARTERMISININ FAMILY om.l c Sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide i Plant source: Dry leaves of sweet wormwood (qinghaosu): Artemisia annua Discovered by Tu Youyou m a 1. Artemisinin @ g a Natural, PO (water-insoluble) 2. Artemether n in Oral, rectal, IM (lipid-soluble, volatile) ba 3. Artesunate a b d io Oral, IV, IM, and rectal (water-soluble) 4. Dihydroartemisinin m o s o Oral (water-soluble); most potent but least stable Active form/principal bioactive metabolite of Artemisinin 5. Artemotil E. FIXED COMBINATIONS om 1. Sulfadoxine and Pyrimethamine (Fansidar) i.l c Prophylaxis and treatment of chloroquine- resistant P. falciparum m a 2. Atovaquone and Proguanil @ g in a Prophylaxis and treatment of P. falciparum resistant to other antimicrobial drugs n The combination is effective against both ____________________ and ____________________ Plasmodium a b b a 3. Artemether and Lumefantrine io These two antimalarials interfere with heme metabolism, thereby stopping development of the parasite in the d o erythrocyte states m 1st line in the treatment of confirmed uncomplicated and severe Plasmodium falciparum malaria, replacing s o CQ+SP combination Treatment of P. falciparum resistant to other antimalarial drugs ADDITIONAL INFORMATION om i.l c m a According to the WHO country profile for Philippines, the best treatment for severe malaria is: @ g in a Quinine+ Tetracycline/Doxycycline/ Clindamycin (Q + T/D/C) a n b Suppressive prophylaxis agents: Only effective at killing the malaria parasite once it b a has entered the erythrocytic stage. io o d s o m QUICK QUIZ! om 1. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite: i.l c A. Will be effective for radical cure m a B. Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis C. Will not be clinically effective @ g D. Will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use in a a n b 2. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria: b a A. Amodiaquine B. Mefloquine d io o C. Atabrine m D. Daraprim s o QUICK QUIZ! om.l c 3. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes: ai m A. Primaquine B. Pyrimethamine @ g a C. Quinacrine in D. Chloroquine a n b b 4. In case of treatment failure following administration of primary drugs in P. falciparum malaria, the recommended treatment would be: A. Artesunate suppository io a o d B. Artemether-Lumefantrine C. Chloroquine + Primaquine m D. Quinine + Tetracycline/Doxycycline/ Clindamycin s o om i.l c a Anthelmintic @ gm n a Drugs a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTHELMINTIC AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m ANTHELMINTIC AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m QUICK QUIZ! om i.l c 1. A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that causes spastic paralysis to susceptible helminthes A. pyrantel pamoate m a g B. thiabendazole @ C. mebendazole D. niclosamide in a a n b 2. Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole a b A. Irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible helminths io B. Inhibits the helminths-specific enzyme fumarate reductase o d C. Prevention of the conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine monophosphat D. Irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase s o m om i.l c a Antiprotozoal @ gm n a Agents a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTIPROTOZOAL AGENTS om i.l c m a @ g in a a n b b io a o d s o m om i.l c a Local @ gm n a Anti-Infectives a b b a n i d io m o s o ANTISEPTIC om i.l c a Compounds that kill (-cidal) or prevent the growth of (-static) microorganisms when applied to __________ tissue. Ideal Antiseptic must have the following: g m _____________________ a @ _____________________ action n in b a _______ surface tension (so that it will spread into the wounds) a b Retain activity in the presence of body fluid io Non-irritating to the tissues d o Non-allergenic s o m Lack systemic toxicity Do not interfere with healing DISINFECTANT om.l c Is an agent that prevents transmission of infection by the destruction of pathogenic i microorganisms when applied to ________________ objects. m a 1. Alcohol and Alcohol Derivatives @ g in a ↑ number of C = ↑ activity (up to 8C’s). Branching decreases activity. a n b a. Alcohol, USP - Aka: Spiritus vini rectifcatus, Grain alcohol, Wine spirit b a Contains NLT ___% ethanol by volume io d i. Dehydrated alcohol aka __________ alcohol: Contains 99% ethanol by weight o ii. Denatured Alcohol: Ethanol that has been rendered unfit for use in intoxicating m s o beverages by the addition of other substances. iii. Completely denatured alcohol: Contains added _____________ and _________________ DISINFECTANT om i.l c a b. Isopropyl Alcohol aka ____________ Alcohol ___________ increases activity g m c. Ethylene Oxide a @ Epoxide (Cyclic Ether) n in b Flammable gas that liquefies at ___°C a a b Gas Sterilant - used to sterilize temperature sensitive medical equipment and certain io pharmaceuticals that cannot be heat sterilized in an autoclave. d o MOA: Alkyation s o m DISINFECTANT om 2. Aldehydes i.l c A. Formaldehyde solution, USP (HCHO) m a Aka: _____________ @ g Contains NLT ___% formaldehyde in a Embalming agent a n b b a B. Glutaraldehyde or Glutarol Brand name: Cidex d io Gas sterilant m o Use to sterilize temperature- sensitive medical equipment that cannot be heat s o sterilized in an autoclave. DISINFECTANT om.l c 3. Phenol and Derivatives ai Phenol coefficient: ratio of the dilutio