Ophthalmology Practice Questions PDF

1. Determine compliance with the following: A) 1b, 2c, 3a B) 1a, 2c, 3b C) 1c, 2b, 3a D) 1b, 2a, 3c E) 1c, 2a, 3b 2. Binocular vision is: A) ability to look alternately B) ability to look with two eyes without mixing two monocular images C) condition in which any retinal area does not fix the objec...

1. Determine compliance with the following: A) 1b, 2c, 3a B) 1a, 2c, 3b C) 1c, 2b, 3a D) 1b, 2a, 3c E) 1c, 2a, 3b 2. Binocular vision is: A) ability to look alternately B) ability to look with two eyes without mixing two monocular images C) condition in which any retinal area does not fix the object D) ability of the eye to mix two monocular images into one image E) fixation with some peripheral area of retina 3. In conjunctivitis patients complain of: A) diminishing vision B) sensation of the sand on the eye C) dizziness D) visual dimness E) appearance at colored rings around the light 4. Superior oblique musce is innervated by: A) facial nerve B) trigeminal neve C) optic nerve D) N.oculomotorius E) N. trochlearis 5. Determine X, Y and Z features: A) X-transparent, Y- non-transparent, Z - has muscle. B) X-transparent, Y-translucent, Z-round. C) X-smooth, Y-non-transparent, Z-transparent. D) X-translucent, Y-non-transparent, Z-feeling sensitive. E) X-bloodless, Y-light passing medium, Z-surface is not smooth. 6. Gonioscopy is examination of: A) intraocular pressure B) anterior chamber angle C) colour vision D) size of pupil E) deviation angle 7. If there is monocular vision, patient sees in Worth apparatus: A) 5 circles B) 1 circle C) 4 or 5 circles D) 4 circles E) 2 or 3 circles 8. Pulsating proptosis (exopthalm) is seen in: A) orbital varicose vein B) retrobulbar haemophthalm C) arteriovenous aneurism D) thyrotoxicosis E) cavernous sinus thrombosis 9. Sensory innervation of the choroid: A) is very strong B) none C) the average rate D) is weak E) strong 10. YAG laser is used in: A) congenital cataract B) traumatic cataract C) nuclear cataract D) cortical cataract E) secondary cataract 11. This is the type of the squint: A) anisometropic B) dysbinocular C) occlusion D) concomitant E) hysteric 12. Corneal staining is done by following vital stains: A) silver nitrate B) carbolic acid C) fluorescein D) boric acid E) iodine 13. Upper border of normal intraocular pressure: A) 21 mm Hg B) 19 mm Hg C) 17 mm Hg D) 26 mm Hg E) 13 mm Hg 14. Parts of the optic nerve: A) optic nerve, chiasm, visual pathways, visual center B) optic nerve head, intraorbital, intracanalicular, intracranial C) the optic nerve head, intraorbital, intracanalicular, intracranial, chiasm D) optic nerve head, intraorbital, intracanalicular, intracranial, visual pathways E) nerve fiber layer, intraorbital, intracranial 15. After retinal stimulation the visual impulse reaches occipital cortex after: A) 1 min B) 10 min C) 124 m sec D) 24 sec E) 10 sec 16. Determine compliance with the following signs of illness: A) 1b, 2c, 3a B) 1b, 2a, 3c C) 1a, 2b, 3c D) 1c, 2a, 3b E) 1a, 2c, 3b 17. Nutriment of the choroid is provided: A) a.centralis retinae B) a.ciliaris posterior breves C) a.lacrimalis D) a.ciliaris anterior E) a.ethmoidalis 18. The sequence of the tear ways: A) glandula lacrimalis, points, saccus lacrimalisspots, canalis nasolacrimalis B) points, saccus, canaliculis, canalis nasolacrimalis C) tear points, tear canaliculies, saccus lacrimalis, canalis nasolacrimalis D) glandula lacrimalis, saccus, points, canalis nasolacrimalis E) canalis nasolacrimalis, saccus, canaliculis 19. Chalcosis: A) when aluminium remains inside the eye long time B) when tree debris remains inside the eye for a long time C) when the glass remains inside the eye for a long time D) when iron remains inside the eye for a long time E) when copper remains inside the eye for a long time 20. Dychromasia: A) low sensitivity to one color B) low sensitivity to 2 color C) color disorder of the visual field D) sectoral disorder of the visual field E) binocular vision disorders 21. Posterior synechias – this is: A) attachement between the posterior surface of the iris and anterior surface of the lens B) attachement between the anterior surface of the iris and posterior surface of the cornea C) attachement in the angle of anterior chamber D) attachement in posterior chamber E) attachement between the anterior surface of the lens and posterior surface of the cornea 22. These pass through the superior orbital fissure: A) N.oculomotorius B) central retinal artery C) anterior ciliary arteries D) central retinal vein E) optic nerve 23. Pterigium is: A) presence of synechias at the fornix B) subconjunctival fat tissue in the internal angular area C) thicken sclera conjunctiva in the internal angular area passes over the cornea D) presence of synechias in the internal angular area E) subconjunctival haemorrhagies in the internal angular area 24. Retina is: A) posterior part of the vascular layer B) posterior part of the fibrous layer C) outer layer of the eye D) inner layer of the eye E) middle layer of the eye 25. Optic power of the cornea: A) 45 dptr B) 12 dptr C) 15 dptr D) 20 dptr E) 10 dptr 26. Normal tonometric measurement of the intraocular pressure by Machlakov: A) 13-26 mm Hg B) 19-29 mm Hg C) 21-29 mm Hg D) 13-21 mm Hg E) 17-26 mm Hg 27. For removing of the foreign body from the cornea it is necessary: A) apply soft contact lens B) special needle C) to keep under the control during 3 days D) to use laser E) medicamentous therapy 28. Blood supply of ciliary body and iris is by: A) ethmoidal arteries B) medial arteries of the lids C) lacrimal arteries D) long posterior ciliary arteries E) short posterior ciliary arteries 29. Pathogenetic cause of the optic nerve oedema include: A) increased intraocular pressure B) inflammatory diseases of the optic nerve C) increased intracranial pressure D) retinal detachment E) dystrophic diseases of the retina 30. Determine compliance with the following: A) 1d, 2c, 3a, 4b B) 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d C) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c D) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c E) 1c, 2b, 3a, 4d 31. Vascular changes in papiloedema: A) veins are dilated, arteries are narrowed B) arteries and veins are dilated C) veins are narrowed, arteries are dilated D) arteries and veins are narrowed E) retinal vessels are not changed 32. Innervation of the cornea is provided by: A) the branch of the N.trochlearis B) N.oculomotorius C) facial nerve D) N.abducens E) trigeminal nerve 33. This is typical for primary open angle glaucoma: A) low intraocular pressure B) colored halos around light C) pain D) metamorphopsia E) photophobia, lacrimation 34. This is seen in eye fundus on retinitis pigmentosa: A) local haemorrhagies B) bone crumbs C) red cherry spot D) dystrophic lezions E) mashed tomato 35. These are observed in optic neuritis: A) deepening of the cupping B) clear borders of optic nerve disc C) non distinquished borders of optic disc D) "crushed tomatoes" symptom E) "Red cherry spot" symptom 36. Two main refracting mediums of the eye are: A) iris, lens B) retina, choroid C) cornea, lens D) sclera, choroid E) limbus, cornea 37. Sequence of stages of parenchimatous siphilitic keratitis: A) infiltration, vascularisation, resolvation B) vascularisation, resolvation C) vascularisation, infiltration D) vascularisation, infiltration, resolvation E) infiltration, resolvation 38. Drainage system of the eye include: A) trabecula, Shlemms channel, anterior ciliary arteries B) sinus channel, Shlemms channel, venous collector C) anterior chamber angle, trabecula, collector veins D) trabecula, trabeular mesh, sinus channel E) trabecula, sinus channel, the collector veins 39. Muscles of the eyelids: 1.M.orbicularis oculi. 2.M.ciliaris. 3.M.levator palpebrae superior. 4.M.rectus superior. A) 3, 4 B) 1, 4 C) 1, 2 D) 2, 3 E) 1, 3 40. Emmetrop person of 60 years old needs near vision spectacles: A) +2,0 dptr B) +3,0 dptr C) +4,0 dptr D) +5,0 dptr E) +1,0 dptr 41. Intaocular fluid is produced by: A) cornea B) ciliary body C) iris D) vitreus body E) retina 42. Regenerative ability of the endothelial cells of the cornea: A) present B) present only in limbal area of the cornea C) present in childhood D) absent E) present only in the center of the cornea 43. The symptom of ”crushed tomato” is seen in: A) central retinal artery occlusion B) retinal detachment C) dystrophic diseases of retina D) central retinal vein occlusion E) inflammatory diseases of retina 44. Stages of primary glaucoma: A) beginning, advanced, super advanced, terminal B) beginning, non advanced, advanced, super advanced C) beginning, non advanced, super advanced, terminal D) beginning, developed over the terminal E) advanced, super advanced, terminal 45. Crystalline lens is located in : A) vitreus body B) anterior chamber C) posterior polus of the eye D) posterior chamber E) in front of the iris 46. Acquired disease of the lens: A) inflammation of the lens B) tumors C) vascularization of the nucleus of lens D) phytisis of the lens E) cataract 47. Spectacles for near vision of patient of 50 years old with emmetropic refraction must be: A) +1,0 dptr B) +3,0 dptr C) +4,0 dptr D) +5,0 dptr E) +2,0 dptr 48. Surgical treatment of the progressive myopia: A) scleroplasty B) blepharoplasty C) keratoplasty D) is not possible E) capsuloplasty 49. Sensory innervation of the eye is by: A) trochlear nerve B) trigeminal nerve C) optic nerve D) sympathetic nerve E) facial nerve 50. Intraocular pressure rate in normotensive glaucoma: A) is within normal limits B) is normal at certain times of the day C) is normal at the time of examination, but is increased in another time of the day D) is normal under the use of antiglaucomatous medications E) is normal periodically 51. Viral uveitis cause damage all these structures, except: A) extraocular muscles B) cornea C) retina D) vitreous body E) optic nerve 52. Cardinal symptoms of iridocyclitis are: A) deep anterior chamber B) dullness of vitreous body C) retinal hemorrhage D) loss of normal pattern of the iris E) blood on the surface of the iris 53. The beginning part of the optic nerve is called: A) ora serrata B) optic nerve disc C) limbus D) macula lutea E) hyaloid membrane 54. Superficial vascularization is seen in: A) episcleritis B) scleritis C) adenoviral conjunctivitis D) syphilitic keratitis E) fliktenulos keratitis 55. The amount of the endothelial cells: A) stable whole life B) decreases only in childhood C) decreases by the age D) increases only in childhood E) increases by the age 56. Examination of the patients with squint include exept: A) measurement of the visual acuity B) measurement of the angle of deviation C) fluorescein D) determination of the refraction E) examination on synoptophore 57. Drainage system of the eye is examined by: A) perimetry B) ophthalmoscopy C) gonioscopy D) skiascopy E) tonometry 58. Intraocular fluid is produced by: A) retina B) anterior chamber angle C) ciliary body D) choroid E) iris 59. Levator muscle of upper eyelid is innervated by: A) sympathetic nerve B) oculomotor nerve C) facial nerve D) optic nerve E) trigeminal nerve 60. The function of the ciliary body is: A) to conduct of the light B) accommodation C) nutrition of the cornea D) to retract of the light E) nutrition of the vitreous body 61. Lowest row in Snellen chart which may be seen by the person with visual aquity of 0,6: A) 3hd B) 10th C) 1st D) 2nd E) 6th 62. Innermost layer of the eye is: A) vascular layer B) fibrous layer C) cornea D) retina E) vitreus body 63. Disturbance of the corneal surface is examined by: A) perimetry B) keratoscopy C) tonometry D) gonioscopy E) skiascopy 64. In penetrating injures to the eye this sign confirm correct diagnosis: A) haemophthalm B) traumatic cataract C) presence of corneal aperture D) presence of entrance aperture on the eye E) presence of foreign body inside of the eye 65. Intumescent cataract is seen in following stage of the senile cataract: A) incipiens cataract B) immaturae cataract C) hypermatura cataract D) Morqanian cataract E) maturae cataract 66. Drug of choice for acute iridocyclitis is: A) atropin B) tobramycin C) pilocarpine D) timolol E) travatan 67. Eye fundus in indirect ophthalmoscopy: A) eye fundus is seen in green colour B) eye fundus is sees in blue color C) a real, inverted, 5 times enlarged image of the fundus is formed between the lens and the observer D) the image is virtual, erect and magnified 13-16 times E) non-distinct image of the fundus 68. Cylindrical lenses are used: A) for treatment of corneal ulcer B) in trearment of nystagmus C) to protect against UV rays D) in treatment of strobismus E) for correction of astigmatism 69. Increasing of the production of intraocular fluid or occlusion of the paths of out flow of tne intraocular fluid is typical for: A) glaucoma B) uveitis C) cataract D) retinitis E) scleritis 70. Optic lenses used in correction of myopia are: A) prismatic B) spherical convex C) toric D) spherical concave E) cylindrical 71. Cobblestone appearance of the conjunctiva is seen in: A) angular conjunctivitis B) trachoma C) bacterial conjunctivitis D) dry eye syndrome E) spring catarrh 72. Intraocular pressure is measured by: A) pachimeter B) keratometer C) gonioscope D) ophthalmoscope E) tonometer 73. Thickness of the cornea is measured by: A) ophthalmometer B) keratometer C) keratopachimeter D) dyoptrimeter E) refractometer 74. Extraction of the cataract using ultrasound is called: A) thermocoagulation of the lens B) phacoemulsification of the lens C) laserkoagulation of the lens D) capsulectomy E) crioextraction of the lens 75. When miosis is seen? A) acute glaucoma B) cycloplegia C) viral conjunctivitis D) acute iridocyclitis E) retrobulbar neuritis 76. Corneal thickness is measured by: A) keratometer B) tonometer C) Snellen chart D) Maddox scale E) pachymeter 77. Indication for dissection of the abscess of lids: A) infiltration of the lids B) painfulness C) disappearing of the pain D) presence of the fluctuation E) hyperemia of the lids 78. Corneal sensitivity is: A) is weak B) strong C) depends on the degree of refraction D) mild E) does not exist 79. Tenon’s capsule separates: A) retina and vitreous body B) conjunctiva and eyeball C) retina and conjunktiva D) vascular layer and sclera E) eyeball and orbital tissue 80. Retinal blood vessels are best examined by : A) gonioscopy B) electoretinography C) ultrasonography D) tonometry E) fluorescein angiography 81. Causative agents of trachoma are: A) viruses B) adenoviruses C) chlamydias D) staphylococcus E) allergens 82. Congenital glaucoma manifests: A) presents between 1-3 years B) presents around puberty C) presents around 30 years D) presents around 40 years E) presents in first year of the life 83. The retinablastoma can present itself as: A) amaurotic cats eye B) hyphema C) salt and pipper sign D) enophthalm E) papilloedema 84. Treatment of choice for congenital glaucoma: A) trabeculectomy B) iridectomy C) goniotomy D) eye drops E) cylodialysis 85. Accommodation is: A) static refraction B) adaptation of the visual analyzer to the fixed objects in different distances from the eye C) optic power of the cornea D) dynamic refraction E) anteroposterior axis 86. Determine the sequence: A) 1c, 2d, 3a, 4b B) 1c, 2d, 3b, 4a C) 1b, 2c, 3b, 4a D) 1d, 2c, 3a, 4b E) 1a, 2c, 3b, 4d 87. Cardinal symptoms of glaucoma include: A) colored halos, pain, glaucomatous B) worsening of the vision, pain, increased intraocular pressure C) increased intraocular pressure, pain, disturbance of functions D) increased intraocular pressure, glaucomatous atrophy, disturbance of functions E) retinal oedema, nausea, increased intraocular pressure 88. Aphakia is: A) the absence of the lens B) loss of transparency of the lens C) inflammation of the lens D) lens subluxation E) loss of transparency of the lens capsule 89. Lamina cribrosa is located in: A) ciliary body B) cornea C) sclera D) iris E) retina 90. Normal central vision is: A) 1,0 B) 0,6 C) 0,3 D) 0,2 E) 0,7 91. In campymetry location of the blind spot is approximately : A) 15 deg. nasal to the fixation point B) 15 deg. temporal to the fixation point C) 25 deg. nasal to the fixation point D) on the fixation point E) 25 deg. temporal to the fixation point 92. Highest visual resolution is seen in: A) fovea centralis B) macula lutea C) optic disc D) blind spot E) ora serrata 93. The most dangerous complication of the cellulitis is: A) diplopia B) enophthalm C) proptosis D) cataracta E) cerebral involvement 94. Binocularity of the eye is examined: A) with the test of Worth B) with ophthalmoscope C) with adaptometer D) with perimeter E) with tonometer 95. The operation of extraction of cataract includes: A) removal of nucleus B) removal of opaque lens C) removal of anterior capsule D) removal of posterior capsule E) removal of vitreus body 96. Lacrima is secreted by: A) nasolacrimal canaliculi B) lacrimal glands C) nasolacrimal duct D) lacrimal puncta E) lacrimal sac 97. Sudden loss of vision occurs in the: A) optic atrophy B) trombosis of central retinal vein branch C) retinitis piqmentosa D) neuritis E) papilloedema 98. This is common for open angle and closed angle glaucoma: A) swelling of the root of iris B) miosis C) lens dislocation D) glaucomatous optic nerve atrophy developing E) increasing pigmentation of the angle of anterior chamber 99. Scotopic vision is due to: A) cones B) optic disc C) macula lutea D) both rods and cones E) rods 100. Most common symptom of retinitis pigmentosa: A) hemianopsia B) photopsia C) metamorphopsia D) hemerolopia E) anopsia