Odisha Police SI Previous Year Paper PDF - 26 Nov 2023

Odisha Previous Year Paper Paper-II Police SI 26 Nov, 2023  Question Booklet No, Question Booklet Series A Full marks-200 RollNumber of Candidate Time- 3 hrs READ THE INSTRU...

Odisha Previous Year Paper Paper-II Police SI 26 Nov, 2023  Question Booklet No, Question Booklet Series A Full marks-200 RollNumber of Candidate Time- 3 hrs READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET 1. Please follow Instructions to Candidate" already uploaded on the candidate portal. 2. Please strictly follow the instructions given by the invigilators and given on the Question Booklet. 3.Betore commencing to write anything on this booklet ensure that booklet has 200 (Two Hundred) MCQs, that there is no misprint, over-printing and/or any other deficiency either in Question Booklet or in the OMR Answer sheet. If there is any defect, report the same to the invigilator forthwith and get the booklet changed. Only on being fully satisfied fill your details on the OMR Answer sheet. Once the Roll no. has been written on the OMR Answer Sheet, it SEAL willnormally not be replaced. page no.I "General 4. There are 32 pages in this Question Booklet, out of which is Instructions" and the last three pages are blank for rough work. 5. Candidate should mark his/her answer only on the OMR answer shet, which is being provided separately. 6. Please use blue/black ball point pen ONLY for filling up the details and for marking your answers on the OMR Answer sheet. 7. Mark your answers with utmost care. You are not allowed to change the answer once marked, by adopting any method (including correction fluid, scratching etc). 8. Mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, that answer will be treated as wrong. 9. One mark (1) will be awarded for each correct answer. There will be negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong answer. No marks will be awarded or deducted for unanswered questions. 10. Rough work may be done in the blank space in the Question Booklet. No other paper will be provided. Please note that it will be your responsibility to carefully hand over your OMR Answer sheet, admit card and copy of identity proof to the invigilator at the end of the examination. If your answer sheet is found missing you will be disqualified. 1| Page SEAL 1. During Swadeshi Movement, which of the following had greatest success? A) Boycott of Government and educational institutions B) Development of Swadeshiindustries c) Disobeying of unjust laws D) Boycott of foreign goods 2. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult? A) Nagarjuna B) Tukaram C) Tyagaraja D) Vallabhacharya 3. Which was the first metal used by men? A) Copper B) Silver C) Bronze D) Gold 4. The inscription which proves Ashoka's sway over western India is A) Kalinga Rock Edict B) Girnar Rock Edict of Ashoka C) Junagarh Rock Edict of Rudradaman D) Shahbazgadhia Rock Edict of Ashoka a Who among the following was not slave before he became king? a 5. A) Ala-ud-din-Khalji B) Balban C) Qutub-ud-din Aibak D) lItutmish 6. Of the following three invaders of India, the correct chronological order of their invasions is 1. Mahmud Ghazni 2. Nadir Shah 3. Changez Khan A) 2, 3, 1 B) 1, 3, 2 c) 1, 2, 3 D) 3, 2, 1 3| Page  7. Who was the first and last woman ruler of Delhi? A) Chand Bibi B) Noor Jahan C) Razia Sultan D) Mumtaz Mahal 8. Rana Kumbha of Mewar built the famous 'Kirti Stambh' (Tower of victory) to commemorate his victory against A) Gujarat B) Marwar C) Mewar D) Malwa 9. Hampi is situated on the northern bank of A) Tungabhadra B) Godavari C) Cauvery D) Krishna 10. Which of the following Rajput dynasties did not surrender to Akbar? A) Parmar B) Pratihara C) Rathor D) Sisidiya 11. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system in A) Turkey B) Persia C) Afghanistan D) Mangolia 12. Sikh Guru Arjun Dev was killed during the reign of A) Humayuna B) Akbar C) Jahangir D) Shah Jahan 13. The distribution of powers between the centre and the states in the Indian Constitution based on the scheme provided in the A) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 B) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919 C) Government of India Act, 1935 D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 4| Page 14. Which of the following statemnents is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942? A) It was a non-violent movement B) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi C) It was a spontaneous movement D) not attract the labour class in general It did 15. In Bengal, the headquarters of East India Company were located at A) Forts St. David B) Fort William C) Fort St. George D) None of the above 16. The beginning of the British Political sway over India can be traced to the battle of A) Buxar B) Plassey C) Wandiwash D) Panipat 17. What is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following? 1, Prarthana Samaj 2. Ramakrishna Mission 3. Theosophical Society 4. Arya Samaj A) 1,3, 4, 2 B) 1, 4, 3, 2 C) 3, 2, 1, 4 D) 4, 2, 1, 3 18. Swaraj as a national demand was first made by A) Chittaranjan Das B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Dadabhai Naoroji D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak was 19. The only Annual Session of the Congress presided over by Mahatma Gandhi A) Kakinada, 1923 B) Belgaum, 1925 C) Karachi, 1931 D) Guwahati, 1926 5| Page  20. The peasants of Champaran were bound by law to grow indigo on how much part of the:. land? A) 1/40 B) 3/20 440 C) D) 530 21. Who was the chairman of the Utkal Meet of 1882? A) Gaurishankar Rai B) Madhusudan Das C) Hare Krishna Mahtaab D) None of the above 22. Which was the first state to be formed on a linguistic basis? A) West Bengal B) Madhya Pradesh C) Punjab D) Odisha 23. Who proved that the reason for lunar eclipse is the shade of the earth? A) Varahmihir B) Aryabhatta C) Bhaskaracharya D) Brahmagupta 24. Which is the holy book of Buddhist religion? A) Kalpa sutra B) Bhagwat Gita C) Tripitak D) Sariputra 25. The Yogini temple of Odisha has beautiful yogini images carved from A) Black chlorite B) Magnetite C) Carbonates D) Hametite 26 Which of the following winds blow from subtropical high pressure regions to the equator? A) Westerlies B) Tropical easterlies C) High latitude easterlies D) South-westerlies 27. Durand Line is boundary line between A) Pakistan and Afghanistan B) Boundary between France and Germany C) Boundary between India and China D) Boundary between India and Pakistan 6| Page 28. Which river flows between the Satpuras and the Vindhyas? A) Godavari B) Gandak C) Tapti D) Narmada 29. In which climatic region are Haryana and Punjab included? A) Humid subtropical, with dry winters B) Steppe c) Tropical moist D) Tropical rainforest 30. Where are iron ore mines located? A) Jaduguda, Singhbhum, Kudremukh, Jharia B) Singhbhum, Bastar, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar C) Neveli, Bastar, Jharia, Khetri D) Bhadravati, Barauni, Neyveli, Singhbhum 31. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is located at A) Thiruananthapuram B) Mumbai c) Bangalore D) Mangalore 32. The city of Paris is located on which river Bank? B) Seine A) Swan D) Liffy c) Danube 33. Which country is known as the Eternal City? A) London B) New York D) Paris C) Rome in India? 34. Which State is the largest producer of Iron Ore A) Jharkhand B) Karnataka D) Bihar C) Odisha of iPhones? 35. Which of the following city in India is associated with production A) Medak B) Pune C) Sriperumbudur D) Lucknow 36. The length of India's coastline is about A) 5900 km B) 6100 km C) 7000 km D) 7500 km 7| Page  37. Which of the following latitudes passes through India? A) Equator B) Arctic Circle C) Tropicof Capricon D) Tropic of Cancer 38. Duncan Passage is situated between A) Minicoy and Amindiv B) Minicoy and Maldives C) Little Andaman and Car Nicober D) South Andaman and Little Andaman 39. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands? A) SriLanka B) Myanmar C) Indonesia D) Pakistan 40. The Himalayan Mountain system belongs to which one of the following? A) Fold mountains B) Volcanic mountains C) Block mountains D) None of the above 41. The soil which is a mixture of sand, clay and silt is known as A) Loamy soil B) Sandy soil C) Clayey soil D) Desert soil 42. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? A) Teak- Jammu and Kashmir B) Deodar- Madhya Pradesh C) Sandalwood- Kerala D) Sundari - West Bengal 43. Which of the following is not a plantation crop? B) Rubber A) Coffee C) Sugarcane D) Tea 44. Which of the following is largest mustard oil growing state? B) Punjab A) UP MP D) Rajasthan C) 45. Among the following states, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources? Chhattisgarh B) Jharkhand A) C) Karnataka D) Odisha 8| Page 46. Pangong Lake is located in A) Himachal Pradesh B) Ladakh C) Arunachal D) Jammu and Kashmir 47. Usakothi is located in which district? A) Jharsuguda B) Bargarh c) Mayurbhanj D) Sambalpur 48, India shares longest international boundary with A) China B) Nepal C) Pakistan D) Bangladesh 49. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states? A) Odisha B) Tripura c) Bihar D) Punjab 50. Satpura hills lie in which of the following states? A) Madhya Pradesh B) Bihar C) Odisha D) Gujarat 51. The largest delta in the world is A) Gagetic Delta B Mahanandi Delta C) Sundarbans Delta D) Godavari Delta 52.. The river Mahanadi rises from which one of the following states? A) Madhya Pradesh B) Chhatisgarh c) Jharkhand D) West Bengal : 53. Economic growth is said to be intensive when A) More inputs are employed B) There is an improvement in the quality of goods produced C) There is an improvement in the way production is organised D) Existing resources are used more efficiently 9| Page  54. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning : 1. Ihe Second Five Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries, 2. Third Five Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy he for industrialisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 and2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 55. The National Family Health Survey of India is conducted by A) NITI Ayog B) International Institute for Population Sciences C) The World Bank D) Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER) 56. Sunshine countries refer to those countries which A) Receive more than 8 hours of average sunshine B) Lie on the equator C) Lie between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn None of the above D) 57. Which agency is responsible for the estimation of poverty in India? A) NITI Ayog B) Rural Development Ministry C) Ministry of Food and Civil Supplies D) Finance Commission 58. Under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, a start-up entrepreneur will be eligible for which category of loan? A) Kishore B) Tarun C) Shishu D)None of the above 59. What is Yellow Revolution? A) Increased production of milk R) Increased production of Apple in Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir C) Development of fisheries and aquaculture D) Increased production of poultry 10| Page 60, Economic Survey in India is published officially every year by which of the following ? A) Reserve Bank of India B) NITI Ayog C) Ministry of Finance, Government of India D) Ministry of Industries, Government of India 61. Which one of the following determines bank lending rate? A) Government of India B) State Bank of lndia C) Reserve Bank of India D) The President of India 62. Which of the following is NOT a type of motion available to Members of Parliament to initiate a discussion on the matters of public importance? A) Adjournment motion B) Closure motion C) No-Day-Yet-Named Motion D) Condemnation Motion 63. Who is the appointing authority of State Election Commission? A) Chief Election Commission of India B) President of India c) Chief Minister with approval of Cabinet D) Governor 64. To whom does State Finance Commission submit its report on its study about financial status of Panchayats A) Panchayati Raj Minister B) Chief Minister c) Speaker of Assembly D) Governor 65. Panchayats in scheduled areas are not empowered to regulate which of the following matters? A) The Sale and consumption of intoxicants B) Ownership rights over major forest produce C) Encroachment of tribal lands by outsiders D) Prevent the higher levels of panchayat from taking over the powers of gram panchayats 11| Page  o0. Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary democracY 1. Freedom of choice to elect the rulers 2. Freedom of speech and expression 3. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 67. Which of the following writ secures personal freedom? A) Habeas Corpus B) Mandamus C) Certiorari D) Quo-warranto 68. India opted for a federal form of government because of A) Vast territory B) Cultural integration C) Linguistic and regional diversity D) Administrative convenience on the basis of 69. Indian Constitution recognises minorities A) Religion B) Caste C) Population D) colour can act as President for a maximum 70. In case President dies while in office, the Vice-President period of B) 1 year A) 2 years D) 6 months C) 3 months included in 71. Panchayati Raj is List B) State A) Union List D) None of the above C)Concurrent List Law Officer of a State? 72. Who is the highest B) Advocate General A) Attorney General D) Solicitor General C) Law Secretary Policy of Indian Constitution is derived from the constitution Directive Principles of State 73. country? of which B) UK USA A) D) Germany C) Ireland 12| Page 74, The Preamble of Indian Constitution is based Objectives Resolution moved by whom in the Indian Constituent Assembly? A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad C) B. R. Ambedkar D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel 75. Who is the first Vice President of India? A) Dr. Zakir Hussain B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan C) V. V. Giri D) Dr. M. Jatti 76. Who is the Leader of the House in Lok Sabha? A) Speaker B) Leader of Opposition C) Prime Minister D) Chief Whip of Ruling Party 77. Which of the following State Legislature is NOT bicameral? A) Bihar B) UP C) Karnataka D) None of the above 78. How many Union Territories are there at present? A) B) Eleven Eight c) Nine D) Seven 79. What is the Unit of measuring Force? B) Joule A) Newton D) Pascal Watt C) 80. "Everv body continues its state of rest or of uniform motion until an external force is applied." This known as A) Newton's First Law B) Newton's Second Law D) Newton's Fourth Law C) Newton's Third Law 81. Why it is always easier to move a heavy object on rollers rather than to slide it? A) Gravitational force is stronger for sliding objects is weaker when a heavy object is rolled B) The air resistance sliding friction C) Rolling friction is always less than the D) None of the above 13| Page 0. who of the following postulated that mass can be converted into energy and energy can be converted into mass? A) Newton B) Einstein C) Kepler D) Heisenberg 83. What the value of "g" at surface of earth (acceleration due to gravity)? A) 9 m/sec sq B) 9.8 m/sec sq C) 10 m/sec sq D) Can't be determined 84. Which among the following is a negatively charged particle? A) Neutron B) Positron C) Boson D) Electron 85. Fuse wire in a circuit has A) Low resistance and low melting point B) High resistance and high melting point C) High resistance and low melting point D) Low resistance and high melting point 86. X-Rays were discovered by A) Rontgen B) Edison C) Einstein D) Newton 87. Which of the following is used to measure the age of earth and old civilizations in archaeology? A) Carbon Plating B) Carbon Dating C) Carbon Decay D) Hydrocarbon analysis 88. Which of the following is used to measure humidity in air? A) Hydrometer B) Humidifier C) Hygrometer D) Manometer 89. A sliced apple, when exposed to air, turns brown after some time as it contains? A) Magnesium B) Potassium C) Calcium D) Iron 90. How many elements are there in nature as per latest periodic table? A) 107 B) 110 C) 115 D) 118 91. Which of the following is not an Aluminium ore? A) Haematite B) Bauxite C) Corundum D) Kryolite 14| Page  Leprosy? 02. Which of the following is NOT true about the disease A) It is caused by a viruS patient The disease spreads only after long and close contact with the B) a C) Its symptoms.occur more than one year of the entryof bacteria into the body after D) of the above All Day is dedicated to 93, According to Earth Day Network, Earth A) Spreading awareness about the pollution caused by plastic B) Adherence to non-proliferation of radioactive materials C) Minimise carbon emissions D) Minimise the use of fossil fuels 94. Pangolins are A) Armadillos B) Scaly anteaters C) Toothless anteaters D) Earth pigs transport of food material in plants is called 95. The tissue that is involved in the A) Parenchyma B) Phloem D) Xylem C) Sclerenchyma is 96. The percentage of oxygen in the exhaled air B) 6 A) 0 D) 16 C) 12 97. Ebola disease is caused by B) Virus A) Bacteria D) Not Known C) Fungus SARS-COV-2 virus indicates 98. Ct value in diagnosis of indicating degree of lung damage A) Extent of chest infection can be detected cycle in RT-PCR after which the virus B) Number of threshold C) Type of COVID 19 virus None of the above D) source of calcium following is not a 99. Which of the B) Tomato A) Onion Brinjal D) C) Spinach discovering Covid vaccine? following won Nobel Prize for 100, Which of the B) Drew Weissman Narges Mohammadi A) D) Jon Fosse C) Pierre Agostini 15| 1  101. If mother's blood group is B and father's is AB, which of the following cannot betheir child's blood group? A) A B) B C) AB D) O 102. When is National Science day observed every year in A) 15 January Inatar B) 1 February C) 28 February D) 11 May 103. Awoman presents a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman? A) Nephew B) Son C) Cousin D) Uncle 104. Rashmita walks 10 km south from her house, turns left and walks 25 km, again and walks 40 km, then turns right and walks 5 km to turis left was the office from her reach her office. In which direction house? A) Southwest B) Northeast C) East D) North 105. In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a-liñe such and B are always together? that two of them, A A) 6 B) 12 C) 18 D) 24 106. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a part of the distance on bicycle at the rate of 10 km per How much distance did he travel on foot? hour. A) 10 km B) 20 km C) 30 km D) 40 km Read the statements and conclusions in following questions (Q. Nos. 107-111) choose the correct option. carefullv and 107. Statement A : Al rats are snakes. Statement B: No snake is a cat. Conclusion I: No rat is cat Conclusion Il: All snakes are rats. A) Only conclusion I follows B) Only conclusion Il follows C) Either conclusion I follows or I| D) Neither conclusion nor ll follows I 16| Page 108. Statement A : All men are dogs. Statement B: Al dogs are cats. Conclusion I : All men are cats. Conclusion Il : All cats are men. A) Only conclusion Ifollows B) Only conclusion I| followS C) Either conclusion or Il follows I D) Neither conclusion nor llfollows I : 109. Statement A Allgood athletes win. Statement B: Allgood athletes eat well. Conclusion I : All those who eat well are good athletes. Conclusion Il : All those who win eat well. A) Only conclusion I follows B) Only conclusion Il follows C) Either conclusion Ior llfollows D) Neither conclusion I nor llfollows are trucks. 110. Statement A : Many scooters are trains. Statement B: All trucks are trains. Conclusion I: Some scooters a scooter. Conclusion lIl : No truck is I follows A) Only conclusion follows B) Only conclusion II I or Il follows C) Either conclusion I nor Il follows D) Neither conclusion are tables. 111. Statement A: Some books tables are mirrors Statement B: Some mirrors are books. Conclusion I : Some is mirror. Conclusion Il No book : conclusion I follows A) Only Il follows Only conclusion B) follows conclusion I or Il C) Either follows conclusion I nor Il 17| Page D) Neither In tollowing questions (0. Nos. 112-116), a statement has been given followed by two assumptione umoered l and I. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions is implieis Give answer (A) if only assumption is implicit, (B) if only assumption is implicit (C) either I or I l f lis implicit and (D) if neither I or nor ll is implicit. 12. Statement : Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India, we still continue to import sugar. Assumption :The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India. I ASsumption I| : Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity. A) B) C) D) 113. Statement : If you have any problems, bring them to me. Assumption I: You have some problems. Assumption Il :1can solve any problem. A) B) C) D) 114. Statement : Nobody can predict as to how long our country would take to contain the unfortunate and disastrous terrorist activities. Assumption I: It is impossible to put an to terrorist activities. Assumption Il : Efforts to control the terrorist activities are on. A) B C) D) 115. Statement: Most people who stop smoking gain weight. Assumption I : If one stops smoking, one will gain weight. Assumption Il: If one does not stop smoking, one will not gain weight. A) B) C) D) 116. Statement :.Success is how much a person bounces up after hitting the bottom. Assumption I: Success requires conscious efforts without being discouraged by failure. Assumption Il : Failure cannot be considered an acceptable thing. A) B C) D) 117. Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3? A) 22/63 B) 4/11 C) 15/46 D) 33/98 118. What fraction of 2 hours is 12 seconds? A) 1/600 B) 1/12 C) 160 D) 1/300 18| Page 119. If the income of Amar is more than that of Samar by 25%, then by how much percentage Samar's income is less than that of Amar? A) 25% B) 20% C) 22.5% 12.5% D) 120. The average age of a family of five persons is 20 years and the youngest member is 8 years old. What was the average age of the family at the birth time of the youngest member? A) 12 years B) 15 years C) 18 years D) 16 years 121. The average of six numbers is 12. If each member is increased by 2, the new average ie A) 12 B) 8 C) 14 24 D) 122. The ratio of Mona's and Priya's present age is 9 : 10. After 4 years, the ratio of their ages become 11:12. What is Mona's present age? A) 18 yrs B) 20 yrs C) 27 yrs D) None of the above 123. In certain code, TOP is written as SN0, then how is FREEZE coded? A) EQDFYG B) ESDFYF C) GOFDYE D) EQDDYD 124. A train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car is called scooter, scooter is called bicycle, bicycle is called moped, which is used to plough a field? A) Train B) Bus C) Tractor D) Car 125. Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group. A) January B) May D) November c) July 126. Choose the group of letters which is different from others. KMN A BCD B D) GHI C) QRS 127. Housing Board built 100 flats. A painter is engaged to serially number each flat individually ONE? from 1 to 100. How many times will he be required to write B) 6 A 21 D) 18 C) 20 128. Who is the present Chairman, Rajya Sabha? A) Harivansh Narayan Singh B) Jagdeep Dhankar D) None of the above C) Om Birla 19| Page 129. Who is Chairman of NITI Ayog? A) Narendra Modi B) Suman Kumar Bary C) Nirmala Sitharaman D) B. V. R. Subramanyam 130. Who is the Chairman of ISRO? A) Ajit Kumar Mohanty B) Dinesh Kumar Shukla C) Samir V. Kamat D) S. Somanath 131. Capital of lsrael is A) Gaza B) Jerusalem C) Tel Aviv D) Beirut 132. Who is India's first woman fighter pilot? A) Bhavna Kant M. Veeralakshmi B C) Jyoti Sharma D) Ayesha Aziz 133. HELINA is a A) Fighter Aircraft B) Air Defense System C) Scorpene Submarine D) Ant-tank missile 134. Rafale Fighter Aircraft is developed by A) India B) France C) USA D) Israel 135. India's first 3D printed post office has been inaugurated in A) Mumbai B) Bengaluru D) Guwahati C) Kolkata 136. Which of the following schemes has been approved for artisans and craftspeople? B) PM Vishwakarma scheme A) PM eBUS Sewa scheme C) PM Karmakaar scheme D) PM Learn and Earn scheme 137. Which of the following cities in Maharashtra is going to be renamed Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar? B) Nashik A) Nagpur D) Aurangabad C) Kolhapur 429 Who has been recently sworn-in as Chief Minister of Tripura for the second time? B) Biplav Deb A) Manik Saha Manik Sarkar D) Rattan Lal Nath C) woman speaker of Odisha? 139. Who is the first B) Nandini Satpathy A) Draupadi Murmu D) JayantiPattnaik C) Pramila Mallick 20| Page  PATESCOPY 140. Who is the current President of Ukraine? A) Petro Poroshenko C) Volodymyr Zelensky B) Viktor Yanukovych 141. Which D) Leonid Kuchma country topped the World Happiness A) Israel Report- 2023 for the sixth consecutive term? C) B) Finland Ireland 142. Who has D) Denmark been recently elected as A) Le Duc Anh the new President of Vietnam? B) Tran Dai Quang C) VVan Thuong D) Vo thi Anh Suan 143. Which Indian Actor was named the National Ambassador of Child Rights A) Ayushmann Khurrana by UNICEF? B) Akshay Kumar C) Salman Khan D) Rajkumar Rao 144. Which country is the current World Champion in Women's A) Germany footbal? B) England C) France D) Spain 145. What is the theme of Vigilance Awareness Week 2023? A) Integrity and Ethics B) Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation C) Stay Vigilant, Stay Honest D) Information is Power 146. As of 2023,, which cricket team is the most successful in ODI World Cups? A) India B) Australia c) England D) South Africa 147. Which institution was tasked with the preparation of Vision India@2047' plan? A) NASSCOM B) NITI Ayog C) RBI D) Election Commission of India 148. AQl refers to A) Air Quality Index B) Accident Quantity Index C) Attitude Quality Index D) Algorithm Quantum Index 149, National Unity Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of which leader? A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 21| Pag  150. Maitree Super Thermal Proiect is situated in which country? A) India B) Nepal C) Sri Lanka D) Bangladesh 19. India procured S-400 air defence missile sauadrons from which country? A) USA B) Israel C) Russia D) France 152. Global Solar Facility is associated with which bloc? A) G-7 B) G- 20 C) ISA D) UNEA 153. What is the full form of GPU? A) General Processing Unit B) Ground Processing Unit C) Graphical Processing Unit D) Galvanic Processing Unit 154. Which of the following is not a characteristics of a computer? A) Versatility B) Accuracy C) Diligence D) I.Q. 155. Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer? A) Bit B) KB C) Nibble D) Byte 156. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer? A) User B) Application Software C) System Software D) Utility Software 157 Which of the following devices provides the communication between a computer and the outer world? A) Compact B) I/O C) Drivers D) Storage 158. WVhich of the following can access the server? A) Web Client B) User C) Web Browser D) Web Server 22| Page 159. Chat-GPT-4 is a A) Network model B) Large Language Model C) Language expression model D) Training data model 160. A plug and play storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is A) Flash drive B) Compact disk C) Hard disk D) CD 161. What does USB stand for? A) Universal Signal Board B) Universal Signal Bus C) Universal Serial Bus D) Universal Serial Board 162. OSS stands for A) Open System Service B) Open Source Software C) Open System Software D) Open Synchronised Software 163. XML stands for A) Extension Made Language B) Extensible Markup Language C) Extensible Major Language D) Extensible Minor Language user to move a file 164. An internet service that allows the B) Telnet A) FTP D) Time Sharing C) UseNet can access the server is called 165. Any computer that B) Web Browser A) Web Server D) Web Client C) User 166. Apache is a type of Programme A) Transmission Control B) Web Server C) Web Browser D) DBMS 23| Pag 167. Which of the following is not a type of browser A) Netscape B) Facebook C) Mozilla D) Chrome 168. ISP Stands for A) Intranet System Processing B) Internet Service Provider C) Intelligent System Processing D) Intranet Service Provider 103. Aterm for illusion of immersion by projecting stereo images on the walls and floor of room A) CAVE B) BOOM C) GUI D) HMD 170. Who made the first animated film in 1906? A) Walt Disney B) J. Stuart Blackton C) William Horner D) J. A. Ferdinand Plateau 171. DVD is an example of A) Output device B) Hard disk C) Optical Disc D) Objective Disc 172 WNhat is the procesSs Of alviaing a dlSK into tracks and sectore A) Crashing B) Tracking C) Formatting D) Dicing Pase 24|  SIonL 173. Which protocol provides e-mail facility among different hosts? A) FTP B) SMTP C) TELNET D) SNMP 174. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc are A) Task bar B) Windows C) lcons D) Desktop 175. Which was an early mainframe computer? A) UNIC B) FUNTRIA C) BRANIA D) ENIAC 176. A kilobyte also referred to as KB, s equal to A) 1000 bytes B) 1024 bytes c) 2048 bytes D) 512 bytes 177. The ifference between the greatest number of five digits and smallest number of five once digits obtained by using 0,1,2,3,4 all but A) 32976 B) 32966 C) 32906 D) None of the above 178. A certain number when multiplied by 13, the product consists entirely of fives. The smallest such number is A) 42735 B) 42375 C) 42365 D) None of the above 25| Page  number is 179. A 75 as result. The number when added Ito itself 14 times gives A) 10 B) 15 C) 5 D) None of the above 12, 16 and 30 leaves in each case a 180. The least number which when divided by 9, remainder 3 A) 723 B) 717 C) 1443 D) 1522 181. (6666.6 + 666.6 + 66.66 + 6.66 +.66) is A) 7201.7 B) 7407.18 C) 7307.18 D) None of the above he 182. One third of Rahul's marks in maths exceeds half of his marks in social studies by 30. If got 240 marks in two subjects together. His marks in social studies is A) 40 B) 60 C) 80 D) None of the above 183, Some men promised to do a job in 18 days but 6 of them became absent and remaining did the job in 20 days. The original number of men is AY 30 B) 40 C) 60 D) None of the above so8 Aaarison of 700 men has provision tor z0 weeks. If at the end of 4 weeks the are reinforced by 700 men, how long will the proision last? A) 8 weeks B) 16 weeks C) 24 weeks D) None of the above 26| Page 185. During one year the population of a town increased by 5% and during the next year it decreased by 5%. If at the end of second year the population was 35112, what was it at the beginning of the first year? A) 35100 B) 35200 C) 35204 D) None of the above price of 25 articles, the real gain/loss in % 186. If cost price of 20 articles is egual to selling A) Loss 20% B) Loss 25% C) Gain 20% B) Gain 25% with the help of his son, he is able to do in 8 days. can a piece of work in 12 days and 187. A do to finish the work? How many days will the son alone take A) 20 days B) 24 days C) 4 days D) 8 days mixture at with milk so as to gain 35% by selling the water be mixed 188, In what ratio must cost price? A) 7:20 B) 20 :7 C) 7:13 D) None of the above including officer is Rs.80/-. The staff of an office 189. The average salary per head of the entire is Rs.60/-. Given that the number of Rs.480/- and of clerks average salary of officers is is the number of clerks? officers is 15, what A) 400 B) 20 C) 120 D) 300 27| Page  should be the profit of B 190. A, B and invested Rs.5000/- in the C What if the ratio of 3 :8:14. total profit is Rs.2500/ A) Rs.800/ B) Rs.1400/ C) Rs.400/ D) Rs.600/ 191. Ta sum of money doubles itself in 6 years, how many years it will take to be 5 times? A) 12 years B) 24 years 10 years C) D) 16 years 192. A boat moves down the stream at the rate of 20 km/h and it takes 12 minutes for it to move one km against it. What the speed of the boat? A) 6km/h B) 7.5 km/h C) 9 km/h D) 10 km/h 193. A thief steals a bike at 9 am and drive at the rate of 20 km/h. The theft is discovered and police starts chasing him at 9.30 am in a jeep at the speed of 40 km/h. The thief will be caught at what time? A) 10 am B) 10.30 am C) 11 am D) 11.30 am 104 A rectangular plot of grass is 80m long and b0 m broad. From the centre of each side a nath of 3 metre wide ges acrosS the centre of the opposite side. What is the area of these paths? A) 420 sqm B) 411sqm C) 402 sqm D) 404 sqm 195. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The average of 3 of them is 8. What is remaining two numbers? the average of the A) 4 B) 5 C) 3 D) 3.5 28| Page 190. A train, 218 m long, travelling at 63 kmph can cross a platform in 32 seconds. If a man can cross the same platform in 3 minutes, what is the speed of the man (in m/sec)? A) 1.8 B) 1.9 C) 2.3 D) 2.5 197. There are 5 consecutive odd numbers. If the difference between the square of the average of the first two odd numbers and square of the average of the last two odd numbers is 492, what is the smallest odd number? A) 37 B) 42 C) 41 D) 35 198. The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is leaning against. If the lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then the height of the wall is A) 15 m B) 12 m C) 18 m D) 11 m 199. If three equal cubes are placed adjacently in a row, then the ratio of the total surface area of the new cuboid to that of the sum of the surface areas of the three cubes will be A) 5:9 B) 1:3 c) 2:3 D) 7:9 200. If an angle of a triangle remain unchanged but each of its two including sides is doubled, then by what factor does the area get multiplied? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6 29| Page