NIFT 2025 Mock Test eBook PDF

NIFT 2025 Mock Test of BDes GAT and BFTech GAT  NIFT BDes GAT - 2024 ___________________________________________________________________________ ENGLISH LANGUAGE : Direction for the questions 1 to 5: The passage below is accompanied by...

NIFT 2025 Mock Test of BDes GAT and BFTech GAT  NIFT BDes GAT - 2024 ___________________________________________________________________________ ENGLISH LANGUAGE : Direction for the questions 1 to 5: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Understanding where you are in the world is a basic survival skill, which is why we, like most species come hard-wired with specialised brain areas to create cognitive maps of our surroundings. Where humans are unique, though, with the possible exception of honeybees, is that we try to communicate this understanding of the world with others. We have a long history of doing this by drawing maps - the earliest versions yet discovered were scrawled on cave walls 14,000 years ago. Human cultures have been drawing them on stone tablets, papyrus, paper and now computer screens ever since. Given such a long history of human map-making, it is perhaps surprising that it is only within the last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top, according to Jerry Brotton, a map historian... “North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from,” he says. “West is also very unlikely to be put at the top because west is where the sun disappears.” Confusingly, early Chinese maps seem to buck this trend. But, Brotton, says, even though they did have compasses at the time, that isn’t the reason that they placed north at the top. Early Chinese compasses were actually oriented to point south, which was considered to be more desirable than deepest darkest north. But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him. “In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it's where the winds come from, it's a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a position of subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him,” says Brotton. Given that each culture has a very different idea of who, or what, they should look up to it’s perhaps not surprising that there is very little consistency in which way early maps www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 2  pointed. In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it. Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre. So when did everyone get together and decide that north was the top? It’s tempting to put it down to European explorers like Christopher Columbus and Ferdinand Megellan, who were navigating by the North Star. But Brotton argues that these early explorers didn’t think of the world like that at all. “When Columbus describes the world it is in accordance with east being at the top,” he says. “Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is from a medieval mappa mundi.” We’ve got to remember, adds Brotton, that at the time, “no one knows what they are doing and where they are going.” Q1. Which one of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do? 1. It questions an explanation about how maps are designed. 2. It corrects a misconception about the way maps are designed. 3. It critiques a methodology used to create maps. 4. It explores some myths about maps. Q2. Early maps did NOT put north at the top for all the following reasons EXCEPT 1. North was the source of darkness. 2. South was favoured by some emperors. 3. East and South were more important for religious reasons for some civilisation. 4. East was considered by some civilisations to be a more positive direction. Q3. According to the passage early Chinese maps placed north at the top because 1. The Chinese invented the compass and were aware of magnetic north. 2. They wanted to show respect to the emperor. 3. The Chinese emperor appreciated the winds for the South. 4. North was considered the most desirable direction. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 3  Q4. It can be inferred from the passage that European explorers like Columbus and Megellan 1. Set the precedent for north-up maps. 2. Navigated by the compass. 3. Used an eastward orientation for religious reasons. 4. Navigated with the help of early maps. Q5. Which one of the following about the northern orientation of modern maps is asserted in the passage? 1. The biggest contributory factor was the understanding of magnetic north. 2. The biggest contributory factor was the role of European explorers. 3. The biggest contributory factor was the influence of Christian maps. 4. The biggest contributory factor is not stated in the passage. Direction for the questions 6 to 10: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. I used a smartphone GPS to find my way through the cobblestoned maze of Geneva’s Old Town, in search of a handmade machine that changed the world more than any other invention. Near a 13th-century cathedral in this Swiss city on the shores of a lovely lake, I found what I was looking for: a Gutenberg printing press. 'This was the Internet of its day — at least as influential as the iPhone’, said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg’s great invention. [Before the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 15th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks. The printing press offered the prospect that tyrants would never be able to kill a book or suppress an idea. Gutenberg's brainchild broke the monopoly that clerics had on scripture. And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation. So, a question in the summer of this 10th anniversary of the iPhone: has the device that is perhaps the most revolutionary of all time given us a single magnificent idea? Nearly every advancement of the written word through new technology has also advanced www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 4  humankind. Sure, you can say the iPhone changed everything. By putting the world's recorded knowledge in the palm of a hand, it revolutionized work dining, travel and socializing. It made us more narcissistic — here's more of me doing cool stuff — and it unleashed an army of awful trolls. We no longer have the patience to sit through a baseball game without that reach to the pocket. And one more casualty of Apple selling more than a billion phones in a decade's time: daydreaming has become a lost art. For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy.. the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press opened more minds than anything else…it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print. Not long after Steve Jobs introduced his iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed for history's attic. Not so fast. After a period of rapid growth in e-books, something closer to the medium for Chaucer's volumes has made a great comeback. The hope of the iPhone, and the Internet in general, was that it would free people in closed societies. But the failure of the Arab Spring and the continued suppression of ideas in North Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out. The iPhone is still young. It has certainly been one of the most important, world-changing and successful products in history, as Apple C.E.O. Tim Cook said. But I'm not sure if the world changed for the better with the iPhone — as it did with the printing press — or merely changed. Q6. The printing press has been likened to the Internet for which one of the following reasons 1. It enabled rapid access to new information and the sharing of new ideas. 2. It represented new and revolutionary technology compared to the past. 3. It encouraged reading among people by giving them access to thousands of books. 4. It gave people access to pamphlets and literature in several languages. Q7. According to the passage, the invention of the printing Press did all of the following EXCEPT 1. Promoted the spread of enlightened political views across countries. 2. Gave people direct access to authentic medical information and religious texts. 3. Shortened the time taken to produce books and pamphlets. 4. Enabled people to perform various tasks simultaneously. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 5  Q8. Steve Jobs predicted which one of the following with the introduction of the iPhone? 1. People would switch from reading on the Internet to reading on their iPhones. 2. People would lose interest in historical and traditional classics. 3. Reading printed books would become a thing of the past. 4. The production of e-books would eventually fall. Q9. "I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy.” The author uses which one of the following to indicate his uncertainty? 1. The rise of religious groups in many parts of the world. 2. The expansion in trolling and narcissism among users of the Internet. 3. The continued suppression of free speech in closed societies 4. The decline in reading habits among those who use the device. Q10. The author attributes the French and American revolutions to the invention of the printing press because 1. Maps enabled large numbers of Europeans to travel and settle in the American continent. 2. The rapid spread of information exposed people to new ideas on freedom and democracy. 3. It encouraged religious freedom among the people by destroying the monopoly of religious leaders on the scriptures. 4. It made available revolutionary strategies and opinions to the people. Direction for the questions 11 to 15: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. This year alone, more than 8,600 stores could close, according to industry estimates, many of them the brand name anchor outlets that real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court. Already there have been 5,300 retail closings this year... Sears Holdings--which owns Kmart--said in March that there's “substantial doubt it can stay in business altogether, and will close 300 stores this year.” So far this year, nine national retail chains have filed for bankruptcy. Local jobs are a major casualty of what analysts are calling, with only a hint of hyperbole, the retail apocalypse. Since 2002, department stores have lost 448,000 jobs, www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 6  a 25% decline, while the number of store closures this year is on pace to surpass the worst depths of the Great Recession. The growth of online retailers, meanwhile, has failed to offset those losses, with the e-commerce sector adding just 178,000 jobs over the past 15 years. Some of those jobs can be found in the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter. But those are workplaces, not gathering places. The mall is both. And in the 61 years since the first enclosed one opened in suburban Minneapolis, the shopping mall has been where a huge swath of middle-class America went for far more than shopping. It was the home of first jobs and blind dates, the place for family photos and ear piercings, where goths and grandmothers could somehow walk through the same doors and find something they all liked. Sure, the food was lousy for you and the oceans of parking lots encouraged car- heavy development, something now scorned by contemporary planners. But for better or worse, the mall has been America's public square for the last 60 years. So what happens when it disappears? Think of your mall. Or think of the one you went to as a kid. Think of the perfume clouds in the department stores. The fountains splashing below the skylights. The cinnamon wafting from the food court. As far back as ancient Greece, societies have congregated around a central marketplace. In medieval Europe, they were outside cathedrals. For half of the 20th century and almost 20 years into the new one, much of America has found their agora on the terrazzo between Orange Julius and Sbarro, Waldenbooks and the Gap, Sunglass Hut and Hot Topic. That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn’t: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans. A growing number of Americans, however, don't see the need to go to any Macy’s at all. Our digital lives are frictionless and ruthlessly efficient, with retail and romance available at a click. Malls were designed for leisure, abundance, ambling. You parked and planned to spend some time. Today, much of that time has been given over to busier lives and second jobs and apps that let you swipe right instead of haunt the food court. Malls, says Harvard business professor Leonard Schlesinger, ‘were built for patterns of social interaction that increasingly don’t exist.’ www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 7  Q11. The central idea of this passage is that: 1. the closure of malls has affected the economic and social life of middle-class America. 2. the advantages of malls outweigh their disadvantages. 3. malls used to perform a social function that has been lost. 4. malls are closing down because people have found alternate ways to shop. Q12. Why does the author say in paragraph 2, ‘the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter’? 1. To highlight the irony of the situation. 2. To indicate that malls and distribution centres are located in the same area. 3. To show that Amazon is helping certain brands go online. 4. To indicate that the shopping habits of the American middle class have changed. Q13. In paragraph 1, the phrase ‘real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court’ suggests that they 1. took brand-name anchor outlets to court. 2. no longer pursue brand-name anchor outlets. 3. collaborated with one another to get brand-name anchor outlets. 4. were eager to get brand-name anchor outlets to set up shop in their mall. Q14. The author calls the mall an ecosystem unto itself because 1. people of all ages and from all walks of life went there. 2. people could shop as well as eat in one place. 3. it was a commercial space as well as a gathering place. 4. it sold things that were needed as well as those that were not. Q15. Why does the author say that the mall has been America's public square? 1. Malls did not bar anybody from entering the space 2. Malls were a great place to shop for a huge section of the middle class. 3. Malls were a hangout place where families grew close to each other. 4. Malls were a great place for everyone to gather and interact. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 8  Direction for the questions 16 to 20: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Scientists have long recognised the incredible diversity within a species. But they thought it reflected evolutionary changes that unfolded imperceptibly, over millions of years. That divergence between populations within a species was enforced, according to Ernst Mayr, the great evolutionary biologist of the 1940s, when a population was separated from the rest of the species by a mountain range or a desert, preventing breeding across the divide over geologic scales of time. Without the separation, gene flow was relentless. But as the separation persisted, the isolated population grew apart and speciation occurred. In the mid-1960s, the biologist Paul Ehrlich - author of The Population Bomb (1968) - and his Stanford University colleague Peter Raven challenged Mayr's ideas about speciation. They had studied checkerspot butterflies living in the Jasper Ridge Biological Preserve in California, and it soon became clear that they were not examining a single population. Through years of capturing, marking and then recapturing the butterflies, they were able to prove that within the population, spread over just 50 acres of suitable checkerspot habitat, there were three groups that rarely interacted despite their very close proximity. Among other ideas, Ehrlich and Raven argued in a now classic paper from 1969 that gene flow was not as predictable and ubiquitous as Mayr and his cohort maintained, and thus evolutionary divergence between neighbouring groups in a population was probably common. They also asserted that isolation and gene flow were less important to evolutionary divergence than natural selection (when factors such as mate choice, weather, disease or predation cause better-adapted individuals to survive and pass on their successful genetic traits). For example, Ehrlich and Raven suggested that, without the force of natural selection, an isolated population would remain unchanged and that, in other scenarios, natural selection could be strong enough to overpower gene flow. Q16. Which of the following best sums up Ehrlich and Raven’s argument in their classic 1969 paper? 1. Ernst Mayr was wrong in identifying physical separation as the cause of species diversity. 2. Checkerspot butterflies in the 50-acre Jasper Ridge Preserve formed three groups that rarely interacted with each other. 3. While a factor, isolation was not as important to speciation as natural selection. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 9  4. Gene flow is less common and more erratic than Mayr and his colleagues claimed Q17. All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT 1. Gene flow contributes to evolutionary divergence. 2. The Population Bomb questioned dominant ideas about species diversity. 3. Evolutionary changes unfold imperceptibly over time. 4. Checkerspot butterflies are known to exhibit speciation while living in close proximity. Q18.The author discusses Mayr, Ehrlich and Raven to demonstrate that 1. Evolution is a sensitive and controversial topic. 2. Ehrlich and Raven’s ideas about evolutionary divergence are widely accepted by scientists. 3. The causes of speciation are debated by scientists. 4. Checkerspot butterflies offer the best example of Ehrlich and Raven’s ideas about speciation. Direction for the questions 16 to 20: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. Creativity is at once our most precious resource and our most inexhaustible one. As anyone who has ever spent any time with children knows, every single human being is born creative; every human being is innately endowed with the ability to combine and recombine data, perceptions, materials and ideas, and devise new ways of thinking and doing. What fosters creativity? More than anything else: the presence of other creative people. The big myth is that creativity is the province of great individual geniuses. In fact creativity is a social process. Our biggest creative breakthroughs come when people learn from, compete with, and collaborate with other people. Cities are the true fonts of creativity... With their diverse populations, dense social networks, and public spaces where people can meet spontaneously and serendipitously, they spark and catalyze new ideas. With their infrastructure for finance, organization and trade, they allow those ideas to be swiftly actualized. As for what staunches creativity, that’s easy, if ironic. It’s the very institutions that we build to manage, exploit and perpetuate the fruits of creativity — our big bureaucracies, and sad to say, too many of our schools. Creativity is disruptive; schools and organizations are regimented, standardized and stultifying. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 10  The education expert Sir Ken Robinson points to a 1968 study reporting on a group of 1,600 children who were tested over time for their ability to think in out-of-the-box ways. When the children were between 3 and 5 years old, 98 percent achieved positive scores. When they were 8 to 10, only 32 percent passed the same test, and only 10 percent at 13 to 15. When 280,000 25-year-olds took the test, just 2 percent passed. By the time we are adults, our creativity has been wrung out of us. I once asked the great urbanist Jane Jacobs what makes some places more creative than others. She said, essentially, that the question was an easy one. All cities, she said, were filled with creative people; that’s our default state as people. But some cities had more than their shares of leaders, people and institutions that blocked out that creativity. She called them “squelchers.” Creativity (or the lack of it) follows the same general contours of the great socio-economic divide - our rising inequality - that plagues us. According to my own estimates, roughly a third of us across the United States, and perhaps as much as half of us in our most creative cities - are able to do work which engages our creative faculties to some extent, whether as artists, musicians, writers, techies, innovators, entrepreneurs, doctors, lawyers, journalists or educators - those of us who work with our minds. That leaves a group that I term ‘the other 66 percent,” who toil in low-wage rote and rotten jobs — if they have jobs at all — in which their creativity is subjugated, ignored or wasted. Creativity itself is not in danger. It’s flourishing is all around us - in science and technology, arts and culture, in our rapidly revitalizing cities. But we still have a long way to go if we want to build a truly creative society that supports and rewards the creativity of each and every one of us. Q16. In the author’s view, cities promote human creativity for all the following reasons EXCEPT that they 1. contain spaces that enable people to meet and share new ideas. 2. expose people to different and novel ideas, because they are home to varied groups of people. 3. provide the financial and institutional networks that enable ideas to become reality. 4. provide access to cultural activities that promote new and creative ways of thinking. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 11  Q17. The author uses 'ironic’ in the third paragraph to point out that 1. people need social contact rather than isolation to nurture their creativity. 2. institutions created to promote creativity eventually stifle it. 3. the larger the creative population in a city, the more likely it is to be stifled. 4. large bureaucracies and institutions are the inevitable outcome of successful cities. Q18. The central idea of this passage is that 1. social interaction is necessary to nurture creativity. 2. creativity and ideas are gradually declining in all societies. 3. the creativity divide is widening in societies in line with socio-economic trends. 4. more people should work in jobs that engage their creative faculties. Q19. Jane Jacobs believed that cities that are more creative 1. have to struggle to retain their creativity. 2. have to ‘squelch’ unproductive people and promote creative ones. 3. have leaders and institutions that do not block creativity. 4. typically do not start off as creative hubs. Q20.The 1968 study is used here to show that 1. as they get older, children usually learn to be more creative. 2. schooling today does not encourage creative thinking in children. 3. the more children learn, the less creative they become. 4. technology today prevents children from being creative. Direction for the questions 21 to 25: The passage below is accompanied by a set of six questions. Choose the best answer to each question. During the frigid season... it’s often necessary to nestle under a blanket to try to stay warm. The temperature difference between the blanket and the air outside is so palpable that we often have trouble leaving our warm refuge. Many plants and animals similarly hunker down, relying on snow cover for safety from winter’s harsh conditions. The small area between the snowpack and the ground, called the subnivium... might be the most important ecosystem that you have never heard of. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 12  The subnivium is so well-insulated and stable that its temperature holds steady at around 32 degree Fahrenheit (0 degree Celsius). Although that might still sound cold, a constant temperature of 32 degree Fahrenheit can often be 30 to 40 degrees warmer than the air temperature during the peak of winter. Because of this large temperature difference, a wide variety of species... depend on the subnivium for winter protection. For many organisms living in temperate and Arctic regions, the difference between being under the snow or outside it is a matter of life and death. Consequently, disruptions to the subnivium brought about by climate change will affect everything from population dynamics to nutrient cycling through the ecosystem. The formation and stability of the subnivium requires more than a few flurries. Winter ecologists have suggested that eight inches of snow is necessary to develop a stable layer of insulation. Depth is not the only factor, however. More accurately, the stability of the subnivium depends on the interaction between snow depth and snow density. Imagine being under a stack of blankets that are all flattened and pressed together. When compressed, the blankets essentially form one compacted layer. In contrast, when they are lightly placed on top of one another, their insulative capacity increases because the air pockets between them trap heat. Greater depths of low-density snow are therefore better at insulating the ground. Both depth and density of snow are sensitive to temperature. Scientists are now beginning to explore how climate change will affect the subnivium, as well as the species that depend on it. At first glance, warmer winters seem beneficial for species that have difficulty surviving subzero temperatures; however, as with most ecological phenomena, the consequences are not so straightforward. Research has shown that the snow season (the period when snow is more likely than rain) has become shorter since 1970. When rain falls on snow, it increases the density of the snow and reduces its insulative capacity. Therefore, even though winters are expected to become warmer overall from future climate change, the subnivium will tend to become colder and more variable with less protection from the above-ground temperatures. The effects of a colder subnivium are complex... For example, shrubs such as crowberry and alpine azalea that grow along the forest floor tend to block the wind and so retain higher depths of snow around them. This captured snow helps to keep soils insulated and in turn increases plant decomposition and nutrient release. In field experiments, researchers removed a portion of the snow cover to investigate the www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 13  importance of the subnivium’s insulation. They found that soil frost in the snow-free area resulted in damage to plant roots and sometimes even the death of the plant. Q21. The purpose of this passage is to 1. introduce readers to a relatively unknown ecosystem: the subnivium. 2. explain how the subnivium works to provide shelter and food to several species. 3. outline the effects of climate change on the subnivium. 4. draw an analogy between the effect of blankets on humans and of snow cover on species living in the subnivium. Q22. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT 1. Snow depth and snow density both influence the stability of the subnivium. 2. Climate change has some positive effects on the subnivium 3. The subnivium maintains a steady temperature that can be 30 to 40 degrees warmer than the winter air temperature 4. Researchers have established the adverse effects of dwindling snow cover on the subnivium. Q23. Based on this extract, the author would support which one of the following actions? 1. The use of snow machines in winter to ensure snow cover of at least eight inches. 2. Government action to curb climate change 3. Adding nutrients to the soil in winter. 4. Planting more shrubs in areas of short snow season. Q24. In paragraph 6, the author provides the examples of crowberry and alpine azalea to demonstrate that 1. Despite frigid temperatures, several species survive in temperate and Arctic regions. 2. Due to frigid temperatures in the temperate and Arctic regions, plant species that survive tend to be shrubs rather than trees. 3. The crowberry and alpine azalea are abundant in temperate and Arctic regions. 4. The stability of the subnivium depends on several interrelated factors, including shrubs on the forest floor. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 14  Q25. Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? 1. In an ecosystem, altering any one element has a ripple effect on all others. 2. Climate change affects temperate and Arctic regions more than equatorial or arid ones 3. A compact layer of wool is warmer than a similarly compact layer of goose down. 4. The loss of the subnivium, while tragic, will affect only temperate and Artic regions. VERBAL ABILITY TEST Directions (Questios 26-30) : In each othe questions, out the given group of words, choose the correctly spelt word. Q26.: Which of the following words is spelled correctly? A) Bureacrat B) Bureaucrat C) Burocrat D) Burrocrat Q27: Choose the correctly spelled word from the options below: A) Exhilerate B) Exhilarate C) Exhillarate D) Exhilarait Q28: Which of the following words is spelled correctly? A) Inconveneint B) Inconveneent C) Inconvenient D) Inconvinient Q29: Identify the correctly spelled word from the choices provided: A) Appologetic www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 15  B) Apologetic C) Apologeitc D) Apologitic Q30: Which of the following words is spelled correctly? A) Occurence B) Occurrance C) Occurrence D) Occurence Directions (Questios 31-35) : Choose the option that is plural form of word. Q31: Choose the correct plural form of "ox." A) Oxen B) Oxes C) Oxies D) Oxi Q32: Identify the correct plural form of "mouse." A) Mouses B) Mice C) Mousies D) Micez Q33: Choose the correct plural form of "toothbrush." A) Toothbrushes B) Teethbrush C) Toothbrushies D) Toothbrushz Q34: Identify the correct plural form of "phenomenon." A) Phenomenons B) Phenomena C) Phenomenies D) Phenomenz www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 16  Q35: Choose the correct plural form of "person." A) Persons B) People C) Personies D) Peoplers Directions (Questios 36-40) :Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the given word. Q36: Choose the word that is the opposite in meaning of "Eloquent." A) Articulate B) Inarticulate C) Fluent D) Persuasive Q37: Identify the word that is the opposite of "Voracious." A) Indifferent B) Insatiable C) Apathetic D) Contented Q38: Choose the word that is the opposite in meaning of "Mundane." A) Ordinary B) Extraordinary C) Routine D) Commonplace Q39: Identify the word that is the opposite of "Hinder." A) Facilitate B) Obstruct C) Impede D) Deter www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 17  Q40: Choose the word that is the opposite in meaning of "Disparate." A) Diverse B) Similar C) Varied D) Distinct QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Q41. If p +q = 13 and pq = 11, find the value of p3 + q3. A] 1768 B] 2076 C] 1934 D] 1955 Q42.What is the least natural number that must divide 29 x 38 x 57 so that the quotient is a perfect cube? A] 360 B] 5 C] 15 D] 45 Q43.if √a – 1/√a = 6, find the value of a2 + 1/ a2 (a>1) A] 1162 B] 1442 C] 1158 D] 942 Q44. What is the remainder 51000 divided by 26? A] 1 B] 5 www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 18  C] 25 D] 21 Q45.Find the HCF of 24, 30 and 42. A] 6 B] 12 C] 15 D] 20 Q46.What will be the HCF of 1785, 1995 and 3381? A] 105 B] 125 C] 120 D] 115 Q47.In an election between 2 candidates, Bhiku gets 65% of the total valid votes. If the total votes were 6000, what is the number of valid votes that the other candidate Mhatre gets if 25% of the total votes were declared invalid? A] 1625 B] 1575 C] 1675 D] 1525 Q48.The population of a town is 12000, if the number of males be increased by 6% and that of females by 8%, the population would be increased to 12800. Find the strength of females in the town. A] 3500 B] 4000 C] 4500 D] 5000 Q49.A & B have, between them, Rs. 1200. A spends 12% of his money while B spends 20% of his money. They are then left with a sum that constitutes 85% of the whole sum. Find what amount is left with A. A] Rs 750 www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 19  B] Rs. 800 C] Rs. 700 D] Rs. 660 Q50. 125 toffees cost Rs. 75, Find the cost of one million toffees if there is a discount of 40% on the selling price for this quantity. A] Rs. 3,00,000 B] Rs. 3,20,000 C] 3,60,000 D]Rs. 4,00,000 Q51. Find the simple interest earned on Rs.20000 for 2 years at 10% p.a. A] Rs.4500 B] Rs.2000 C] Rs.4000 D] Rs.6000 Q52.In what time, 1200 will become Rs.1450 when annual rate of interest is 20%? 1 A] 1 24 years B] 3 years C] 5 years D] 2 years Q53. Find the compound interest earned on Rs.20000 for 2 years at 10% p.a. the interest being compounded annually. A] Rs.2100 B] Rs.4200 C] Rs.6300 D] Rs.5600 www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 20  Q54.Convert 72 km/h into m/s. A] 20 m/s B] 40 m/s C] 10 m/s D] 60 m/s Q55.A bike crosses a bridge with a speed of 108 km/h. What will be the length of the bridge if the bike takes 8 minutes to cross the bridge? A] 14400 m B] 12400 m C] 13400 m D] 14000 m Q56.Ram completes 60% of a task in 15 days and then takes the help of Rahim and Rachel. Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is and Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is. In how many more days will they complete the work? A] 40/7 B] 20/7 C] 30/7 D] 10/7 Q57.In what ratio must a grocer mix rice worth Rs. 30 per kg and Rs. 32.5 per kg so that by selling the mixture at Rs. 34.10 per kg, he may gain 10%? A] 3:2 B] 1:2 C] 5:2 D] 7:2 102 103 { Q58. What is the unit digit in (264) + (264) }? A] 0 B] 1 C] 2 www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 21  D] 4 Q59. In a election between two candidates , the candidate who got 57% of valid votes won by majority of 420 votes. Find the total valid votes? A] 3000 votes. B] 5000 votes. C] 4000 votes. D] 2000 votes. Q60. A number is divided into parts such that 4 times the first part, 3 times the second part, 6 times the third part and the 8 times the four parts are all equal. In what ratio is the number divided? A] 6 : 8 : 4 : 3 B] 2 : 6 : 4 : 3 C] 4 : 6 : 4 : 3 D] 1 : 8 : 4 : 3 Q61.Assertion (A): The Bauhaus movement emphasized the relationship between form and function in design. Reason (R): Bauhaus was grounded in the idea of creating practical, usable objects with an aesthetic appeal. A] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B] Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. C] A is true but R is false. D] A is false but R is true. Q62.Assertion (A): Sustainable fashion is becoming increasingly popular as it addresses environmental and ethical concerns in the fashion industry. Reason (R): Sustainable fashion involves using eco-friendly materials, ethical manufacturing practices, and promoting recycling and upcycling in fashion. A] Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B] Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. C] A is true but R is false. D] A is false but R is true. www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 22  Q63.Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements to indicate your answer. Statements a. Best performance in the Olympics fetches a gold medal. b. The player X got a gold medal but later was found to be using a prohibited drug. Conclusions I. X should be allowed to keep the gold medal. II. The gold medal should be withdrawn and given to the next person. 1. Only conclusion II follows 2. Neither conclusion I nor II follows 3. Both conclusions I and II follow 4. Only conclusion I follows Q64.Direction: In the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements. Statements I. The Constitution assures fundamental rights. II. Parliament has the right to amend the Constitution. Conclusions I. Parliament included fundamental rights in the Constitution. II. Parliament did not assure the fundamental rights. 1. Only conclusion I follows 2. Only conclusion II follows 3. Both conclusions I and II follow 4. None of them www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 23  CRITICAL REASONING Q65.Direction: In the following question, a series is given with one number missing. Select the missing number from the given alternatives. 19, 9, 28, 37, 65, ? 1. 99 2. 97 3. 102 4. 113 Q66.Direction: A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. HPA, FMZ, DJY, BGX, ? 1. ZDW 2. ZEV 3. YDW 4. YEV Q67.Direction: Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list? abABABAB, ABabABAB, ABABabAB, ABABABab, abABABAB, ? 1. ABABAbaB 2. abABABAB 3. ABabABAA 4. ABabABAB Q68. Direction: In the following question, find the odd letter from the given alternatives. 1. NT 2. WC 3. JP 4. GE www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 24  Q69.Direction: In the following question, select the odd one from the given alternatives. 1. RTV 2. HJL 3. KMP 4. BDF Q70.Direction: In the following question, select the odd letter cluster from the given alternatives. 1. OMK 2. RPN 3. USP 4. XVT Q71.Direction: A is the father of B, B is the daughter of C, D is the brother of B and N is the sister of C. How is B related to N? 1. Daughter 2. Niece 3. Mother 4. Sister Q72 Direction: There are five girls — R, S, T, P, and Q — sitting in a row facing north. T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end. Who is sitting third to the left of R? 1. P 2. Q 3. S 4. T Q73.Direction: In a certain code language, RUN is written as 50, and BUS is written as 39. How is GUN written in that code language? 1. 37 2. 38 www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 25  3. 39 4. 42 Q74.Direction: Sunita walks 45 meters towards the south, then turns right and walks another 45 meters. She then turns right and walks for 20 meters to reach point L. She then again turns to her right and walks for 45 meters. How far (in meters) is she from point L? 1. 50 2. 45 3. 25 4. 60 Q75.If the sum of two numbers is 10 where as their difference is 4, then the greater number is_____. 1. 5 2. 7 3. 4 4. 3 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Q76. A stretch of sea water, partly or fully separated by a narrow strip from the main sea is called 1. bay 2. isthmus 3. lagoon 4. strait Q77. The Battle of Haldighati was fought between which two armies? 1. Babur and Lodi Empire 2. Babur and Rana Sanga 3. Akbar and Hemu 4. Akbar and Maharana Pratap www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 26  Q78.The garden inside the Taj Mahal is known as ____. 1. Mughal Garden 2. Taj Bageecha 3. Taj Mahal Garden 4. Mahal Bageecha Q79.Which Institutions has the final authority to interpret the constitution of India? 1. Parliament 2. Supreme Court of India 3. President 4. Attorney General Of India Q80. Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog? 1. President 2. RBI Governor 3. FInance Secretory 4. Prime Minister Q81.Which International organisation observed the 125th birth anniversary of Shri B. R. Ambedkar? 1. International Monetary Fund (IMF) 2. United Nations 3. Asian Development Bank 4. World Bank Q82. Japan is called the 'Land of the rising sun' because 1. sun rises there as soon as it sets 2. sun always remains in the eastern part of the sky throughout the day in Japan 3. Japan being the Eastern most country in the world, it has the earlist sunrise 4. The rays of the sun get reflected from the waters of the sea and make the sunrise beautiful in Japan www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 27  Q83.What is the other name of Sahyadri Range? 1. Lesser Himalayas 2. Shivaliks 3. Western Ghats 4. Eastern Ghats Q84.A sheer soft knit fabric, most often 100% cotton as an informal fabric at weddings. 1. Moiré. 2. Organdie. 3. Jersey. 4. Organza Q85. A sleeve cut wide at the armhole and tapering to the wrist is------------------- 1. Dolman sleeve. 2. Puff sleeve. 3. Plain sleeve. 4. Tulip sleeve. Q86. --------------------------- is the dress fitted through the bodice, waist, and hips, and flaring out from the knees. 1. Empire. 2. Mermaid. 3. Ball gown. 4. A-line. Q87. Dart Manipulation of the front bodice consists of --------------- types. 1. 13 2. 4 3. 6 4. 8 Q88.The secondary property of a textile fiber is ? www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 28  1. tenacity 2. luster 3. flexibility 4. uniformity Q89. Texturizing is the processes that introduce ? 1. coils 2. crimp 3. zigzag shaping 4. all the above Q90.When the fibre molecules are arranged in random then it is ? 1. high orientation 2. low orientation 3. crystalline 4. amorphous Q91. If the speed of a car is doubled, then what is the required braking force of the car to stop in the same distance? A.Four times B.Two times C.Half D.One-fourth Q92. In which iron ore, maximum iron is found? A.FeCO₃ B.Fe₂O₃ C.Fe₃O₄ D.FeS₂ Q93. A pure form of “direct democracy” exists only in which country? A.Russia B.India www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 29  C.France D.Switzerland Q94.Which of the following has coined the term ‘Hindu rate of growth’ for economy of India? A. A.K. Sen B. Kirit S. Parikh C. Raj Krishna D. Montek Singh Ahluwalia Q95. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was founded in which year? A. 1967 B. 1990 C. 1985 D. 2000 Q96. Which country is not a landlocked country of Europe? A. Armenia B. Switzerland C. Austria D. France Q97.Govind Ballabh Pant was the first chief minister of which Indian state? A. Rajasthan B. Uttar Pradesh C. Madhya Pradesh D. Odisha Q98. The term ‘India’ is derived from the name of which river? A. Ganga B. Tigris C. Indus D. Inaya www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 30  Q99.The International Date Line (IDL) passes through which ocean? A. Arctic B. Indian C. Dead sea D. Pacific Q100.What is a Preventive Detention provided under Article 22 of the constitution? A. Detention for interrogation B. Detention after interrogation C. Detention without interrogation D. Detention for cognizable offence www.careers360.com Answers Solutions 31  ANSWER KEY ______________________________________________________________________ 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 B B B C D A D C C B 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 C A B C D D B A C B 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 C B B D A B B C B C 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A B A B B B D B A B 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 A D B A A A B D D C 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 C A B A A A A A A A 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 A A A 4 C A D D C C 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 B B C B B C D A B 4 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 B C C C A B A B D D 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 A C D C A D B C D B www.careers360.com Back to Questions 32  SOLUTIONS ______________________________________________________________________ 1-B So this is a question where you need to be careful with the answer options. Each answer option involves a subtle play with words that you need to capture here. Refer to the lines: Given such a long history of human map-making, it is perhaps surprising that it is only within the last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top…. Option A: In this particular case, there is no single explanation being questioned. Option B: There is no methodology in particular being discussed; this is about the general history of map-making and how we got it wrong. Option D: There are no myths mentioned here; just assume this option to be correct and ask yourself whether there are any myths mentioned here. Option B is the valid answer as it fits the generic nature of the passage. The passage is simply explaining to us how map-making was faulty in our history and the reasons for it being so. The passage essentially corrects our views about maps of the past and the reasoning behind them. 2-B This is a fact-based question with just asks you to derive some subtle inferences. Option B is factually incorrect. Chinese Emperors preferred the North to be on top and not the South. Refer to the lines: But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him... Option A is derived from the line: “North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from,”… Options C and D are derived from the lines: ….. In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it. Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 33  3-B Refer to the lines: But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him. “In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it's where the winds come from, it's a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a position of subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him,” says Brotton. The answer can be directly derived from the lines above. The reason for the north being placed at the top is the fact you looked up to the Emperor; it was a mark of respect. Options A and D find no mention in the passage. Option C explains the point of the view of the Emperor but it is not the reason for north being at the top; north was at the top as a mark of respect and showing that the citizens respect the emperor. 4-C There is a simple link-up that you need to do in this case. Link these two extract of the passage. Extract 1: “When Columbus describes the world it is in accordance with east being at the top,” he says. “Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is from a medieval mappa mundi.” From the above, we can derive that Columbus and Megellan had a medieval mappa mundi. What does this mean? Extract 2: Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre. This Mappa Mundi is co-related to religious reasons. Hence, option C is the correct answer in this case. 5-D The passage simply does not state why does North come at the top. There is no reference to the same. In fact, the complete passage revolves around the fact that how does North not come at the top. Considering this, option D is the correct answer here. 6-A Refer to the lines: 'This was the Internet of its day — at least as influential as the iPhone’, said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg’s great invention….[Before the invention of www.careers360.com Back to Questions 34  the printing press] it used to take four monks up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 15th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks. The above lines show the connection between the Printing Press and the Internet: the speed with information spread and the access to information being key. This sentiment is best expressed by option A. Option B is incorrect as this is about a comparison between two things; there is no point comparing it with the past. Options C and D are incorrect as it misses out highlighting the parallel between the Printing Press and the Internet. 7-D Option A can be derived from the lines: And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation…it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print. Option B can be derived from the lines: Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks. Option C can be derived from the lines: [Before the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 15th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Option D is actually a feature of the iPhone and not the printing press. 8-C This is the simplest question in the set. Refer to the line: Not long after Steve Jobs introduced has iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed for history's attic. This is a direct and fact-based question. 9-C This is a question where you need some form of application. You need to form a connection between the lines: For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy….. But the failure of the Arab Spring and the continued suppression of ideas in North Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out. The key here is that from the examples given in the options, you need to identify the one which co-relates to religion and democracy best and the fact should also be mentioned in the passage. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 35  Option A finds no mention in the passage. Option B is about personal habits and not religion/democracy. Option C highlights the correct sentiment with respect to religion/democracy. Option D is again about personal habits and not about religion/democracy. 10-B Refer to the lines: For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy.. the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press opened more minds than anything else…it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print. You very simply need to find an answer option that goes with the sentiment that how the printing press helped open up minds. There is only one option in the given case that connects with this sentiment: option B. Option A is about settlements and not the revolutions and ideas connected to it. Option C is about religious freedom and not about the revolutions. Option D talks about revolutionary strategies and opinions. As you can see from the extract above, there is no mention of such strategies or opinions. 11-C Refer to the following lines: That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn’t: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans… Malls, says Harvard business professor Leonard Schlesinger, ‘were built for patterns of social interaction that increasingly don’t exist.’ Option C Is the correct answer in this case. It essentially captures the essence above. The author is primarily highlighting how malls are no longer performing the function they were; the passage revolves around this central theme. This is a tough question. You need to careful with the other answer options in this case. Option A commits one mistake: it highlights middle-class America and by doing so, implies that the passage is written from the perspective of one particular class. This is clearly not the case here. Option B is about the advantages and disadvantages of malls whereas the passage is about the closure of malls and how they social function they perform is no longer in play. Option D simply highlights that the malls are closing down because of one specific reason, relating to shopping alone. In the passage, the author talks about our digital lives as well as online shopping; the passage is not restrictive in the sense that it only focuses on one issue. This option just highlights that people have found alternate ways of shopping. Also, the option does not highlight what the alternative is. 12-A www.careers360.com Back to Questions 36  Irony means: the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite, typically for humorous or emphatic effect/the expression of one's meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite, typically for humorous or emphatic effect. In the given case, the author is simply highlighting, in a subtle manner, how the very things that led to shutdown of malls have opened up next to them. Option B tells us the literal meaning but not the intended meaning. Options C and D are connected with the given context. 13-B Refer to the lines: This year alone, more than 8,600 stores could close, according to industry estimates, many of them the brand name anchor outlets that real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court. This is a really interesting question where you can make a mistake very easily. To stumble over something means: to push and shove someone else out of the way, as to get some place or in order to do something. Meaning of the line: So basically real estate developers were fighting with each other to obtain those anchor outlets. The problem here is that the question does not ask you the meaning of the line; it is asking us what the line suggests or implies. The line here suggests that they are no longer interested in these brands. Hence, the answer is option B and not option D. 14-C This is an easy question. Just refer to the lines: That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn’t: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans. The answer can be directly derived from the lines above. 15-D Refer to the lines: But those are workplaces, not gathering places. The mall is both. And in the 61 years since the first enclosed one opened in suburban Minneapolis, the shopping mall has been where a huge swath of middle-class America went for far more than shopping. It was the home of first jobs and blind dates, the place for family photos and ear piercings, where goths and grandmothers could somehow walk through the same doors and find something they all liked. We can see from the lines above the malls represented the coming together of everyone: difference types of people, families, and individuals of all kinds. Thus, in effect, were melting pots of sorts for all kinds of people. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 37  Keeping this in mind, we find option D to be the best answer. Option B makes the mistake of focusing only on the middle class. Option C makes the mistake of focusing only on families. 16-D Refer to the lines: What fosters creativity? More than anything else: the presence of other creative people. The big myth is that creativity is the province of great individual geniuses. In fact creativity is a social process. Our biggest creative breakthroughs come when people learn from, compete with, and collaborate with other people…..Cities are the true fonts of creativity... With their diverse populations, dense social networks, and public spaces where people can meet spontaneously and serendipitously, they spark and catalyze new ideas. With their infrastructure for finance, organization and trade, they allow those ideas to be swiftly actualized. The strategy to approach this question’s answer should be that of ELIMINATION of incorrect options. Option A talks about public spaces where people can meet. Option B talks about where people can catalyze new ideas. Option C mentions providing good infrastructure to convert those ideas to reality. All these three points have been discussed in the second paragraph that starts with 'cities are true fronts of creativity'. Though Option D may appear to be a natural conclusion, it has not been specifically mentioned anywhere that cultural activities can be accessed in cities. It is important to stick to the facts provided in the passage to answer this question correctly. The question is asking about the author’s view. Hence Option D is the correct answer. 17-B To understand the question clearly, it is important to know what makes something ironic. A situation can be called ironic when the outcome of an action turns out to be the opposite of what was originally expected or desired, thus the whole exercise defeating its core-purpose or intention. Now, in the third paragraph, the author writes, “As for what staunches creativity, that’s easy, if ironic. It’s the very institutions that we build to manage, exploit and perpetuate the fruits of creativity..” – which hints at the fact that the institutions that were supposed to encourage and nurture the growth of creative pursuits unfortunately tend to stifle or restrain creativity. The author continues that “creativity is disruptive; schools and organizations are regimented, standardized and stultifying.” Here the word “disruptive” denotes to a change in set processes; a shift from routine. However, schools and organizations are strictly organized and controlled which stifles or hampers the free rein required to be creative. Hence Option B is the correct answer. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 38  18-A The strategy to approach this question’s answer should be that of ELIMINATION of incorrect options. To support Option A, we can find multiple instances in the passage. The first paragraph itself says that “what fosters creativity? More than anything else: the presence of other creative people. The big myth is that creativity is the province of great individual geniuses. In fact creativity is a social process. Our biggest creative breakthroughs come when people learn from, compete with, and collaborate with other people”. In fact, the whole passage focuses on the idea that cities are well-equipped to foster creativity, however institutions and some leaders can stifle creative processes. Option B cannot be correct as the author states in the last paragraph that “creativity itself is not in danger. It’s flourishing is all around us..” Option C is a true statement, however it is not the “central idea” of the passage. Option D states that more people “should work” in creative jobs. However the passage does not imply it anywhere. Hence the correct answer to the question "The central idea of this passage is that", social interaction is necessary to nurture creativity – option A. 19-C In the fifth paragraph, Jane Jacobs mentions that, ‘all cities, were filled with creative people..-.. but some cities had more than their shares of leaders, people and institutions that blocked out that creativity’. Also, from the nomenclature of 'squelchers', we can understand that she considers leaders to have the power to encourage or stifle creativity. Hence it can be derived that cities that are more creative have leaders and institutions that do not block creativity. Option C is the correct answer. 20-B Refer to the context: The education expert Sir Ken Robinson points to a 1968 study reporting on a group of 1,600 children who were tested over time for their ability to think in out-of-the-box ways. When the children were between 3 and 5 years old, 98 percent achieved positive scores. When they were 8 to 10, only 32 percent passed the same test, and only 10 percent at 13 to 15. When 280,000 25-year-olds took the test, just 2 percent passed. By the time we are adults, our creativity has been wrung out of us. Option A says that children become more creative as they get older. However, this statement is the exact opposite of what has been discussed in the passage. Option B has been thoroughly supported by the author. The third paragraph specifies that schools were supposed to foster creativity, but instead they are stifling it.. The last www.careers360.com Back to Questions 39  sentence of the fourth paragraph points out that “By the time we are adults, our creativity has been wrung out of us.” Option C correlates the decline of creativity in children to learning more. But, in the third paragraph the author blames regimented schools as the reason for what staunches creativity, not learning. Option D can be eliminated as there is not mention in the entire passage about the impact of technology on creativity. Hence Option B is the correct answer. 21-C The passage consistently focuses on educating the reader about the ill-effects of climate change on subnivium. It discusses why the subnivium is important for various plant and animal species, and for nutrient cycling across the supported ecosystem. Only Option C mentions the effects of climate change on the subnivium, which is exactly the purpose of the passage. Options A and B consider subnivium to be the subject. However, the main subject the effect of climate change on the subnivium. Option D can be eliminated as that the example of blankets is just an analogy to paint a picture for the reader. Option C is the correct answer. 22-B Option B is a false statement. All the other options A, C and D can be found described in the passage. The passage does not discuss any positive effect of climate change on the subnivium. Therefore, Option B is the correct answer. Option A can be derived from the lines: Depth is not the only factor, however. More accurately, the stability of the subnivium depends on the interaction between snow depth and snow density. Option C can be derived from the lines: The subnivium is so well-insulated and stable that its temperature holds steady at around 32 degree Fahrenheit (0 degree Celsius). Although that might still sound cold, a constant temperature of 32 degree Fahrenheit can often be 30 to 40 degrees warmer than the air temperature during the peak of winter. Option D can be derived from the lines: Scientists are now beginning to explore how climate change will affect the subnivium, as well as the species that depend on it....Therefore, even though winters are expected to become warmer overall from future climate change, the subnivium will tend to become colder and more variable with less protection from the above-ground temperatures. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 40  23-B Based on the passage, we would need to put ourselves in the author’s shoes and ponder what would be the most sustainable option to preserve the natural qualities of the subnivium. The author mentions in the beginning itself that the quality of snow also plays a vital role. So, using an artificial method such as a snow machine will not be a permanent and eco-friendly solution to the problem. Therefore, we can eliminate option A. Though Option B might look near impossible to some people, reversing the ill-effects of climate change in a natural method is what the subnivium ecosystem needs. Stopping or slowing down further climate change is the most sustainable solution in the long-run. Option C is still an external solution, and we do not have enough evidence in the paragraph to infer how adding nutrients can improve the health of the subnivium – especially when the problem is arising due to a separate problem of climate change. Option D suggests planting shrubs, however with the lack of snow, the plants and shrubs can undergo permanent damage. So simply planting more shrubs will not increase the snow cover right away. Option B offers a more feasible solution and addresses the root cause of the issue. Therefore, the author will agree with option B. 24-D Options A and C are general statements, and not adding and weight to central idea. Option B states that due to cold temperatures, shrubs tend to survive, but trees do not. But, this point has not been specified anywhere in the passage. B can also be eliminated. The passage cites that, “shrubs such as crowberry and alpine azalea that grow along the forest floor tend to block the wind and so retain higher depths of snow around them. This captured snow helps to keep soils insulated and in turn increases plant decomposition and nutrient release”. These shrubs play a vital role in maintaining the quality of the subnivium ecosystem. Their purpose can be directly correlated with the central idea of the passage. Option D is the correct answer. 25-A Options B and D are conveying that only the arctic and the temperate regions will be affected due to climate change. Though the passage does not discuss the effects of climate change on other regions, it cannot be inferred that other regions will not be impacted. Thus, B and D can be eliminated. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 41  Though the passage gives the example of compact layers of wool versus loosely held layers of wool as an analogy, the understanding of that example cannot be extrapolated to a compact layer of goose down. Option C can hence be eliminated too. Option A talks about ripple effect of one things over the other. This is exactly what the passage is trying to explain. Hence, option A is the correct answer. 26-B The correct spelling is "Bureaucrat." The other options (A, C, and D) have misspellings. 27-B The correct spelling is "Exhilarate." The other options (A, C, and D) have misspellings. 28-C The correct spelling is "Inconvenient." The other options (A, B, and D) have misspellings. 29-B The correct spelling is "Apologetic." The other options (A, C, and D) have misspellings. 30-C The correct spelling is "Occurrence." The other options (A, B, and D) have misspellings. 31-A "Oxen" is the correct plural form of "ox." It's a slightly less common plural form. 32-B The plural form of "mouse" is "mice." "Mouses" (option A), "Mousies" (option C), and "Micez" (option D) are not correct plural forms. 33-A The plural form of "toothbrush" is "toothbrushes." The other options (B, C, and D) are not correct plural forms. 34-B The plural form of "phenomenon" is "phenomena." The other options (A, C, and D) are not correct. 35-B While "persons" (option A) is a valid plural form in some contexts, "people" is the more commonly used plural form for "person." Options C and D are not correct plural forms. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 42  36-B "Inarticulate" is the opposite of "eloquent." While "eloquent" means expressing oneself fluently and persuasively, "inarticulate" means unable to express oneself clearly. 37-D "Contented" is the opposite of "voracious." While "voracious" means having an insatiable appetite or desire for something, "contented" means satisfied and happy with what one has. 38-B "Extraordinary" is the opposite of "mundane." While "mundane" means ordinary and commonplace, "extraordinary" means remarkable and exceptional. 39-A "Facilitate" is the opposite of "hinder." While "hinder" means to obstruct or impede progress, "facilitate" means to make something easier or smoother. 40-B "Similar" is the opposite of "disparate." While "disparate" means distinct and different, "similar" means having common characteristics or qualities. 41-A p +q=13 P*q=11 (p+q)3=133 By solving this p3+q3=1768 42-D 29 X38 X 5. must be divided by 32 X 51= 9 X 5= 45 43-B a1/2-1/a1/2=6 Squaring both side a+1/a = 38 Squaring both sides a2+1/a2= 1442 www.careers360.com Back to Questions 43  44-A 51000/26 51/26=remainder 5 52/26=remainder 25 53/26=remainder 21 54/26=remainder 1 Cyclicity of 5 is 4 0 remainder means last term of cycle Remainder=1 45-A 2 24 2 30 2 42 2 12 3 15 3 21 2 6 5 5 7 7 3 3 1 1 1 ∴ Factors of 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = (2³ × 3¹) Factors of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5 = (2¹ × 3¹ × 5¹) Factors of 42 = 2 × 3 × 7 = (2¹ × 3¹ × 7¹) ∴ The product of common prime factors with the least powers = 2¹ × 3¹ = 6 46-A At the 1st step, use any two of three numbers. ∴ HCF for 1785 and 1995 = 105 At the 2nd step, use obtained HCF 105 and the 3rd given number 3381. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 44  47-B Total votes=6000 Valid votes=6000*(75/100)=4500 Mhatre gets=4500*(35/100)=1575 48 -D A=x B=1200-x 85% of x +80% of (1200-x)= 85% of 1200 X=750 Amount left with A= 88% of 750=660 49-D A=x B=1200-x 85% of x +80% of (1200-x)= 85% of 1200 X=750 Amount left with A= 88% of 750=660 Option D 50-C 125 toffees cost= 75 1 toffee=75/125 1 million toffees=(75/125)*1000000=600000 After discount= 600000*60/100=360000 Option C 51-C S.I = (2000 x 2 x 10) /100 = 4000 Or S.I = RT% of P = 10 x 2 %P of P i.e 20 % of = 20/100 x 20000 = 4000. 52-A Here P = R 1200, A = 1450, R = 20% www.careers360.com Back to Questions 45  As we know, A = P + SI ⇒ 1450 = 1200 + SI ⇒ SI = 1450 – 1200 = R 250 𝑃×𝑅×𝑇 Again, SI = 100 1200×20×𝑇 Or 250 = 100 = 240T 25 1 ∴ T= 24 = 1 24 years 53-B P = 20000 T = 2 years R = 10 % C.I = P (1 + R/100) T -P = 2000 [1+ 10/100]2 – P 24200 – 20000 = 4200 54-A We know that 𝑎km/h = 𝑎× ( ) m/s 5 18 72 km/h = (72 × ) m/s = 20 m/s 5 18 55-A Here, length of the bridge = Distance travelled by bike in 8 minutes = Speed X Time Given that speed = 108 km/h = 108 X 518 m/s = 30 m/s Time = 8 minutes = 8 X 60 = 481 seconds Length of the bridge = 30 X 480 = 14400 m 56-A Ram completes 60% of the task in 15 days. i.e., he completes 4% of the task in a day. Rahim is 50% as efficient as Ram is. Therefore, Rahim will complete 2% of the task in a day. Rachel is 50% as efficient as Rahim is Therefore, Rachel will complete 1% of the task in a day. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 46  Together, Ram, Rahim and Rachel will complete 4 + 2 + 1 = 7% of the work in a day. They have another 40% of the task to be completed. Therefore, they will take 40/7 more days to complete the task. 57-A SP of 1 kg mixture = R 34.10, gain = 10% 100 CP of 1 kg of mixture = 110 × 34.10 = R 31 According to the rule of mixture/alligation, CP of Cheaper (R 30) CP of dearer (R 32.5) Mean price (R 31) 32.5 – 31 = 1.5 31 – 30 = 1 Required ratio = 1.5 : 1 = 3 : 2 58-A 264102*264103 4102+4103 6+6*4=30=0 59-A Let total valid votes be v According to question if one candidate got 57% then second will get 100-57 = 43% Therefore.57v -.43v = 420 14v=420 and hence v = 3000 votes. 60-A Let the four parts into which the number is divided is a, b, c and d. 4a = 3b = 6c = 8d= e (let) www.careers360.com Back to Questions 47  A = (e/4), b = (e/3), c = (e/6), d = (e/8) Hence, a : b : c : d = (e/4) : (e/3) : (e/6) : (e/8) = (1/4) : (1/3) : (1/6) : (1/8) = (24/4) : (24/3) : (24/6) : (24/8) =6:8:4:3 61-A The Bauhaus movement indeed emphasized the relationship between form and function, aiming to merge aesthetics with practicality. This movement was centered around creating usable objects that also held aesthetic value, thus making Reason (R) the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 62-A The rise of sustainable fashion is indeed a response to environmental and ethical concerns within the fashion industry. Sustainable fashion practices such as using eco-friendly materials, employing ethical manufacturing practices, and promoting recycling and upcycling are aimed at addressing these concerns, making Reason (R) the correct explanation of Assertion (A). 63- A Given: Statements a. Best performance in the Olympics fetches a gold medal. b. The player X got a gold medal but later was found to be using a prohibited drug. Now, let's consider the conclusions: I. X should be allowed to keep the gold medal. This conclusion does not logically follow from the given statements. The use of a prohibited drug in sports is typically considered cheating and is against the rules of fair competition. Therefore, allowing X to keep the gold medal would be against the principles of fair play and the rules of the Olympics. II. The gold medal should be withdrawn and given to the next person. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 48  This conclusion logically follows from the given statements. If an athlete is found to have used a prohibited drug, it is common practice in sports to disqualify that athlete and strip them of any medals or awards they received. The gold medal should be awarded to the next deserving athlete who did not violate the rules. So, conclusion II is the correct conclusion based on the given statements. Hence, the first option is correct. 64-D Given: Statements I. The Constitution assures fundamental rights. II. Parliament has the right to amend the Constitution. Let's analyze the conclusions: I. Parliament included fundamental rights in the Constitution. This conclusion does not logically follow from the given statements. Statement I tells us that the Constitution assures fundamental rights but doesn't specify that Parliament included these rights. Fundamental rights could have been included when the Constitution was initially drafted or through amendments, but this statement doesn't provide information about the process. II. Parliament did not assure the fundamental rights. This conclusion does not logically follow from the given statements. Statement I clearly states that the Constitution assures fundamental rights. While Parliament has the right to amend the Constitution, it doesn't mean that Parliament did not ensure the fundamental rights. Fundamental rights could have been included in the Constitution initially. Parliament's role may be to amend or modify the Constitution as needed, which doesn't imply that Parliament did not ensure these rights. So, neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II logically follows from the given statements. Hence, the fourth option is correct. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 49  65-C Given: 19, 9, 28, 37, 65, ? 19 + 9 = 28; 9 + 28 = 37; 28 + 37 = 65; 37 + 65 = 102 So, the series becomes – 19, 9, 28, 37, 65, 102 Hence, the third option is correct. 66-A Given: HPA, FMZ, DJY, BGX, ? HPA; H – 2 = F; P – 3 = M; A – 1 = Z FMZ; F – 2 = D; M – 3 = J; Z – 1 = Y DJY; D – 2 = B; J – 3 = G; Y – 1 = X BGX; B – 2 = Z; G – 3 = D; X – 1 = W So, the series becomes – HPA, FMZ, DJY, BGX, ZDW Hence, the first option is correct. 67-D Given: abABABAB, ABabABAB, ABABabAB, ABABABab, abABABAB, ? In all terms, the letters ab are changed from lowercase to uppercase, and the letters AB are changed from uppercase to lowercase as we move from left to right. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 50  So, the sixth term becomes ABabABAB Hence, the fourth option is correct. 68-D Let's check the options — First option: NT → N + 6 = T Second option: WC → W + 6 = C Third option: JP → J + 6 = P Fourth option: GE → G – 2 = E Therefore, the fourth option is different from the other three. So, it's an odd one out. Hence, the fourth option is correct. 69-C Let's check the options – First option: RTV; R + 2 = T; T + 2 = V Second option: HJL; H + 2 = J; J + 2 = L Third option: KMP; K + 2 = M; M + 3 = P Fourth option: BDF; B + 2 = D; D + 2 = F The difference between the letters of the third option is different from the other options. So, the third option is different from the others. Hence, the third option is correct. 70-C Let's check the options – First option: OMK; O – 2 = M; M – 2 = K www.careers360.com Back to Questions 51  Second option: RPN; R – 2 = P; P – 2 = N Third option: USP; U – 2 = S; S – 3 = P (The third option is different from the other three.) Fourth option: XVT; X – 2 = V; V – 2 = T Hence, the third option is correct. 71-B Given: B ⇒ daughter of A and C; C ⇒ mother of B; N ⇒ sister of C Therefore, B is the niece of N. Hence, the second option is correct. 72-B Given: (i) T is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. (ii) Q is sitting to the immediate right and immediate left of P and T, respectively. S is not sitting at the extreme end. www.careers360.com Back to Questions 52  From the final seating arrangement, 'Q' is sitting third to the left of 'R'. Hence, the second option is correct. 73-C Given: RUN → 50; BUS → 39; GUN → ? Add the place values of each letter of RUN and subtract 3 from it – RUN → (18 + 21 + 14) – 3 = 53 – 3 = 50 Thus, RUN is coded as 50. Likewise, BUS → (2 + 21 + 19) – 3 = 42 – 3 = 39 Thus, BUS is coded as 39. Similarly, follow the same pattern for GUN – GUN → (7 + 21 + 14) – 3 = 42 – 3 = 39 Thus, GUN is coded as 39. Hence, the third option is correct. 74-B Given: Firstly, we will draw the diagram as per the given instructions: www.careers360.com Back to Questions 53  Now, we have to find the distance between point L and the end point covered by Sunita: The distance between point L and the endpoint = LM = 45 m So, the distance between point L and the endpoint covered by Sunita is 45 m. Hence, the second option is correct. 75-B Let the two numbers be x and y according to question x + y = 10....(1) and x-y=4....(2) www.careers360.com Back to Questions 54  Add (1) and (2) 2x = 14 x = 7 and y = 3 Greater number is 7. 76-C The correct answer is lagoon Lagoons are smaller bodies of water that are often surrounded by a barrier island, reef, or sandbar, which separates them from the larger sea. Lagoons can be found all around the world, in both tropical and polar climates. Lagoons are important ecosystems that provide various benefits to both humans and animals. They can serve as crucial breeding habitats for fish and other marine life and can also help protect coastal areas from storms and flooding. 77-D The correct answer is Akbar and Maharana Pratap The Rajput monarch Maharana Pratap of Mewar and the Mughal emperor Akbar engaged in combat in Haldighati. On June 18, 1576, a battle took place in the Haldighati Pass, which is now in the state of Rajasthan. The bravery and resistance shown by Maharana Pratap and his Rajput soldiers agains