Nail Care and Diseases Questions PDF

Nail Care and Diseases 1. The study of the growth and structure of nails is known as: Answer (C) a) Histeology b) Nail etiology c) Onyxology d) Osteology 2. Etiology is the study of: Answer (C) a) A disease b) The likely progression of a disease c) The cause of a disease d) The pathology of a dise...

Nail Care and Diseases 1. The study of the growth and structure of nails is known as: Answer (C) a) Histeology b) Nail etiology c) Onyxology d) Osteology 2. Etiology is the study of: Answer (C) a) A disease b) The likely progression of a disease c) The cause of a disease d) The pathology of a disease 3. Often referred to as the cuticle, it overlaps the lunula at the base of the nail: Answer (A) a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Perionychium d) Pterygium 4. Infection at the nail base, usually with pus, untreated can cause loss of the nail: Answer (D) a) Leuconychia b) Leucoderma c) Onychophagy d) Onychia 5. Onychophagy refers to: Answer (A) a) Bitten nails b) Split nails c) Club nails d) Brittle nails 6. Onychia refers to a condition where: Answer (D) a) The nail hardens and thickens b) The nail softens and falls off c) White streaks or spots in the nail d) Inflammation at the base of the nail with pus usually present 7. The technical term for bitten nails is: Answer (D) a) Pterygium b) Leucoderma c) Onychia d) Onychophagy 8. Tight shoes, or improper trimming of the toe-nails, may result in: Answer (C) a) Athlete's foot b) Onychophagy c) Onychocryptosis/ingrown toe-nails d) Perionychium 9. Onychocryptosis is a condition that may result from: Answer (A) a) Excessively tight shoes b) Mold found in public showers c) Damage to the onychophagy d) Plantar warts 10. A nail product used to smooth out and fill in minor depressions in a client's nails is: Answer (D) a) Fiberglass b) Acrylic c) Nylon d) Ridge filler 11. The nail is composed of a substance known as: Answer (B) a) Calcium b) Keratin c) Sulphur d) Sodium 12. The area from the nail root to the free edge, contains no blood vessels / nerves: Answer (D) a) Nail plate b) Nail bed c) Nail body d) Both A and C 13. Portion of the nail assembly where the nail plate rests, contains blood vessels & nerves: Answer (B) a) Nail plate b) Nail bed c) Nail body d) Both A and C 14. The point where the nail enters the skin at the nail base is referred to as the: Answer (A) a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Perionychium d) Nail groove 15. The tissue beneath the free edge of the nail is known as: Answer (B) a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Perionychium d) Pterygium 16. Contains the blood, lymph, and nerves from which new nail cells are generated: Answer (C) a) Nail root b) Nail mantle c) Nail matrix d) Nail pterygium 17. This is the active tissue from which new nail cells are generated: Answer (C) a) Nail root b) Nail mantle c) Nail matrix d) Nail pterygium 18. The nail root and nail matrix are located in this cup / pocket like structure: Answer (B) a) Nail root b) Nail mantle c) Nail matrix d) Nail pterygium 19. Leuconychia is a condition that usually presents as: Answer (B) a) Blue spots / streaks under the nails b) White spots / streaks under the nails c) Red spots / streaks under the nails d) Soft, thin nails, with ridges 20. The Latin / medical term for nails is: Answer (A) a) Onyx b) Pterygium c) Onychia d) Onychatrophia 21. If a finger nail is lost / removed, approximately how long will it take to grow back? Answer (B) a) 1 - 2 months b) 3 - 6 months c) 9 months d) 9 - 12 months 22. If lost / removed, how long will it take to grow a new nail plate / nail body: Answer (C) a) 1 - 2 months b) 2 - 4 months c) 3 - 6 months d) Cannot be re-generated / regrown 23. If a toe-nail is lost / removed, approximately how long will it take to grow back? Answer (C) a) 1- 2 months b) 3 - 6 months c) 9 - 18 months d) It will not grow back 24. If the technician causes bleeding to occur during a nail service, they should use: Answer (B) a) Hydrogen peroxide b) Styptic powder / powdered alum c) Styptic pencil d) Alcohol 25. Once destroyed, which part of the nail will not grow again? Answer (A) a) Matrix b) Nail bed c) Nail wall d) Nail groove 26. The adhesive coat for nail polish is the: Answer (B) a) Top coat b) Base coat c) Sealer d) Foundation 27. Pumice powder is most commonly found in: Answer (C) a) Acrylic powder b) Nail buff powder c) Cuticle cream d) Moisturizing lotions 28. If bleeding occurs during a manicure / pedicure, use: Answer (C) a) Hydrogen peroxide b) Alcohol c) Antiseptic d) Warm soap and water 29. Always file natural nails: Answer (B) a) Center to corner b) Corner to center c) Right to left d) Left to right 30. The technical term for a hang nail is: a) Clubbed nail b) Onychophagy Answer (C) c) Agnail d) Hyponychium 31. If artificial nails are lifting from the nail bed, a) Bleeding c) Atrophy of the nail this may cause: b) Mold and infection d) Onychophagy Answer (B) 32. Cuticle creams will help to prevent: a) Leuconychia b) Onychophagy Answer (D) c) Perionychium d) Hang-nails / Agnails 33. Onychophagy may increase blood flow to the a) Nail groove c) Nail bed and cause the nail to grow faster: b) Nail Matrix d) Lunula Answer (B) 34. This portion of the nail effects its shape, size, a) Perionychium c) Pterygium and rate of growth: b) Onychia d) Matrix Answer (D) 35. A half-moon at the base of the nail is known as: Answer (C) a) Onychocryptosis b) Onychia c) Lunula d) Onychophagy 36. Oil or moisture under a nail enhancement may cause: a) Onychia b) Pterygium c) Fungus or mold d) Enhancements to lift/ fall off Answer (D) 37. The largest bone in the arm is known as the: a) Humerous b) Occipital c) Hyoid d) Ulna Answer (A) 38. The correct order of application in polishing a client's nails would be: Answer (D) a) Enamel, top coat, base coat b) Base coat, enamel c) Base coat, top coat d) Base coat, enamel, top coat 39. This bone is found in the forearm and on the same side as the little finger: Answer (B) a) Radius b) Ulna c) Femur d) Sternum 40. This bone is found in the forearm and on the same side as the thumb: Answer (A) a) Radius b) Ulna c) Femur d) Carpus 41. When removing polish from artificial nails, use: Answer (C) a) Alcohol b) Hydrogen Peroxide c) Non-acetone d) Acetone 42. When removing artificial nails or nail enhancements, use: Answer (D) a) Alcohol b) Hydrogen Peroxide c) Non-acetone d) Acetone 43. Before performing any nail service, the nail tech should attempt to find out if the client: Answer (B) a) Has high blood pressure b) Is diabetic c) Has a heart condition d) Is pregnant 44. What is the best manner in which to treat agnails: Answer (A) a) Hot oil manicures b) Ridge filler c) Astringent / powdered alum d) Nail wrap 45. When in use, how should manicuring / pedicuring implements be kept? Answer (D) a) In a Quats container b) In a closed receptacle c) In the manicure table drawer d) On a clean towel 46. When not in use, manicure / pedicure implements should be stored in a: Answer (B) a) Closed quats container b) Closed container c) At the manicure station d) In a locked cabinet 47. These warts, caused by the HPV Virus, are flat, hard, thick growths, usually occurring on the soles of the feet and sometimes look like a circle within a circle. Answer (C) a) Periungal warts b) Flat warts c) Plantar warts d) Filiform warts 48. Nail bleaches and lighteners usually contain: Answer (D) a) Detergent b) Sodium hydroxide c) Calcium carbonate d) Hydrogen peroxide 49. Thickened white skin and watery blisters between the toes are indications of: Answer (C) a) Tinea capitis b) Onychocryptosis c) Athlete's Foot / Tinea Pedis d) Fungal infection from a pedicure 50. Another name for Athlete's Foot is: Answer (B) a) Onychophagy b) Ringworm of the feet / Tinea Pedis c) Pediculosis d) Onychia 51. Watery blisters and thickened whitish skin between the toes, is known as: Answer (B) a) Tinea capitis b) Tinea pedis c) Tinea dermis d) Filiformus 52. If your client has brittle/dry nails or dry cuticles, what should you recommend? Answer (B) a) Nail wraps b) Hot oil manicure c) Gel manicure d) Plain manicure 53. To avoid ingrown toe-nails (onychocryptosis), do not file or clip: Answer (B) a) The nail into a square shape b) Into the corners of the nails c) The nails too short d) The nails into a rounded shape 54. The instrument used for trimming the cuticle is a: Answer (B) a) Brush b) Nipper c) Pusher d) File 55. A bacterial infection with pus at the nail matrix is known as: Answer (D) a) Paronychia b) Pityriasis c) Onychophagy d) Onychia 56. When giving a pedicure with a foot & leg massage, you should not massage over the: Answer (B) a) Calf muscle b) Shin bone c) Metatarsus d) Patella 57. For a natural effect, the shape of the finger nails should conform to the shape of the: Answer (D) a) Client's desire b) Current fashion dictates c) Client's hands d) Client's fingers 58. Most nail techs consider the ideal nail shape is: Answer (B) a) Round b) Oval c) Square d) Fan 59. Onychophagy is the technical term for: Answer (B) a) Hang nails b) Bitten nails c) Dry, brittle nails d) Wavy, ridged nails 60. When pushing back cuticles, how should the nail technician hold the pusher: Answer (D) a) Flat against nail with light pressure b) Angled with light pressure c) Flat with medium pressure d) Angled with medium pressure 61. A semicircular fold of skin overlapping the nail plate on either side: Answer (A) a) Nail wall b) Nail groove c) Eponychium d) Pterygium 62. To remove your client's acrylic nails, you should: Answer (C) a) Soak in non-acetone polish remover, then gently pull off nails b) Soak in acetone polish remover, then gently pull off nails c) Use nippers to remove unwanted acrylic nail, then soak off remainder in acetone d) Use electric file to buff off acrylic nail, then soak off remainder 63. Condition describes a forward growth of the cuticle covering most of the nail plate/body: Answer (A) a) Pterygium b) Eponychium c) Perionychium d) Onychia 64. Atrophy or wasting away of the nail plate, may be the result of injury or disease: Answer (A) a) Onychatrophia b) Onychophagy c) Leucoderma d) Paronychia 65. These are the tracks on both sides of the nail, through which it moves as it grows: Answer (B) a) Walls b) Grooves / Tracks c) Plains d) None of the above 66. This is the cuticle overlapping the lunula at the base of the nail: Answer (C) a) Perionychium b) Onychia c) Eponychium d) Onychophagy 67. This is the skin surrounding, touching, and overlapping the nail on 3 sides: Answer (C) a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Perionychium d) Pterygium 68. Nail shape recommended for individuals who work on computer keyboards: Answer (D) a) Oval b) Pointed c) Round d) Square 69. The field of medicine dealing specifically with the feet and related issues is: Answer (D) a) Dermatology b) Podiatrist c) Opthomology d) Podiatry 70. Portion of the nail extending beyond the end of the finger/toes, and protecting the tips: Answer (D) a) Hyponychium b) Nail plate c) Pterygium d) Free edge 71. Crescent shaped whitish area of the nail bed (not always visible): Answer (D) a) Quick b) Ptergyium c) Eponychium d) Lunula 72. This skin surrounds, touches, and overlaps the nail: Answer (C) a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Perionychium d) Pterygium 73. The term used to indicate inflammation of the skin surrounding the nail plate / body: Answer (C) a) Perionychium b) Onychia c) Paronychia d) Onychophagy 74. The fold of skin at the sides of the nail: Answer (A) a) Perionychium b) Hyponychium c) Ptergyium d) Leuconychia 75. The metacarpus / palm of the hand contains how many long & slender bones: a) Three b) Eight c) Fourteen d) Five Answer (D) 76. The carpus / wrist contains how many bones: a) 3 b) 8 c) 14 d) 5 Answer (B) 77. The tissue beneath the distal end (free edge) of the nail and the finger or toe: a) Perionychium b) Hyponychium c) Ptergyium d) Leuconychia Answer (B) 78. Hyponychium refers to the: a) Nail groove b) Skin under the free edge c) The nail matrix or root d) Bitten nails Answer (B) 79. The technical term for a "hangnail" is: a) Hangnail b) Agnail c) Ingrown nail d) Paronychia Answer (B) 80. The skin beneath / under the Free Edge of the nail: a) Hyponychium b) Eponychium c) Peronychium d) Paronychium Answer (A) 81. An inflammation at the base of the nail: a) Onychia b) Eponychium c) Peronychium d) Paronychium Answer (A) 82. What is the primary purpose of nail primer? a) To destroy bacteria present on the nail b) To absorb oil and moisture on nail c) To improve adhesion d) To help acrylic nails adhere to natural nail Answer (C) 83. What can a nail tech use to smooth out imperfections in a client's natural nails? a) A clear liquid polish b) Ridge filler c) A reconditioning treatment d) Any of the above Answer (B) 84. What is used to dry and harden gel nails: a) A heat lamp b) An ultra-violet lite c) Gel nails dry & harden without assistance d) None of the above Answer (B) 85. In the salon, nail techs often use styptic in this form to stop bleeding from minor cuts. Answer (B) a) A styptic pencil b) Powdered alum c) An alum block d) Alum crystals 86. One of the functions of "primer" when applied during an artificial nail application? a) Absorb oil & moisture b) Allow for better bonding c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above Answer (D) 87. The excessive heat often generated by electric nail sanders may harm the: a) Hyponychium b) Eponychium c) Perionychium d) Nail plate Answer (D) 88. A steel nail pusher should only be used: a) On a moist nail b) On a dry nail c) Steel pushers should not be used d) Technicians preference Answer (A) 89. What effect will acetone have on a sculptured, artificial, or gel nail? Answer (B) a) Harden b) Soften c) No effect d) Destroy bacterial infection & mold 90. What is the function of a "dehydrator" when applied during an artificial nail application: Answer (D) a) Absorb moisture b) Allow for better bonding c) Both A and B are correct d) Absorb oil & moisture 91. This is found at the base of the nail often overlapping the lunula: a) Eponychium b) Perionychium c) Hyponychium d) None of the above Answer (A) 92. The Latin / medical / technical term for nails: a) Ony b) Onx c) Onxy d) Onyx Answer (D) 93. Very thin nails that are brittle and less flexible than usual are referred to as: Answer (D) a) Pliable nails b) Agnails c) Onychophagy nails d) Eggshell nails 94. Found at the nail base, may overlap the lunula and extend as far back as the first knuckle: Answer (B) a) Hyponychium b) Eponychium c) Perionychium d) Free edge 95. This refers to the tissue that is found under the free edge of the nail: a) Eponychium b) Hyponychium c) Lunula or half moon d) Pterygium Answer (B) 96. This is the deep fold of skin within which the nail root & matrix are found: a) Matrix b) Mantle c) Pterygium d) Onychatrophia Answer (B) 97. Contains many nerves and blood vessels: a) Nail bed b) Nail body c) Nail fold d) Nail plate Answer (A) 98. Wavy nail ridges, often the result of uneven growth due to injury, are known as: Answer (D) a) Onychophagy b) Onychosis c) Onychia d) Corrugations 99. Nail tech will shape / file the nail prior to soaking in the nail bath, this is done because: Answer (D) a) Filing dry nails is harder for the nail tech b) Filing dry nails is easier for the nail tech c) Filing damp nails is more difficult d) Both B and C 100. If the nail matrix is destroyed, what will occur: Answer (D) a) Nail will have ridges b) Nail growth will be uneven c) Nail will be discolored d) Nail will not grow again 101. The nail matrix and nail root are found here: Answer (D) a) Nail ptygerium b) Nail plate c) Nail bed d) Nail mantle 102. Functions as a barrier to stop bacteria / infection from getting to the nail matrix: Answer (B) a) Ptygerium b) Eponychium c) Lanula d) Hyponychium 103. The cuticle overlapping the lunula is referred to as the: Answer (B) a) Ptygerium b) Eponychium c) Lanula d) Hyponychium 104. All nourishment is supplied to the nail from the: Answer (D) a) Nail ptygerium b) Nail plate c) Nail bed d) Nail root 105. Before the nail tech applies artificial nail enhancements, the natural nail must be: Answer (C) a) Oiled b) Moist c) Buffed d) All of the above 106. The improper use of nail nippers may result in: Answer (C) a) Onychocryptosis b) Onychia c) Agnails d) Onychophagy 107. Very dry cuticles may result in which of the following: Answer (A) a) Agnail (hangnails) b) Onychia (inflammation at the nail base) c) Onychophagy (bitten nails) d) Onychocryptosis (ingrown nails) 108. A bacterial infection of the tissue around the nail: Answer (C) a) Onychocryptosis b) Onychophagy c) Paronychia d) Agnail 109. The active ingredient in nail bleach or whiteners is: Answer (D) a) Bleach b) Hydrogen peroxide c) H2O2 d) Both B and C 110. For the most natural look, the shape of the nail should conform to the shape of the: Answer (C) a) Hands b) Fingers c) Fingertips d) Client's preference 111. Which of the following will not cause nail fungus? Answer (D) a) Trapped moisture b) Trapped air c) Loose nail enhancements d) Excessive primer 112. The pedicure process begins by: Answer (A) a) Soaking the feet in a disinfectant footbath b) Clipping the client's nails c) Filing the client's nails d) Soaking the feet in warm water 113. When giving a manicure, the proper procedure for dealing with cuticles is: Answer (B) a) Carefully cut them away b) Do not cut unless client insists c) Do not push d) It is against state board regulation to cut them By now, you are asking yourself; "am I taking the Cosmetology Examination or the Manicuring Test?" Past experience and current research has shown us that most applicants who failed the Cosmetology Exam did so by only a few questions. It has also shown that Cosmetology students tend to make more mistakes on the manicuring questions than in most any other area. On a recent exam given in Hawaii, the first 27 questions were all on nails and their diseases. With this information in mind: you want to be prepared, and it makes sense to attack the most difficult section/s first. 114. In discussing a haircut, where is the perimeter located? Answer (B) a) In the crown b) At the outer edges c) At the front hairline d) At the fringe area 115. It is recommended that you cut extremely curly hair: Answer (B) a) Wet b) Dry cut before straightening c) Dry cut after straightening d) Damp 116. It is recommended that you cut kinky curly hair: Answer (C) a) Wet b) Dry before straightening c) Dry after straightening d) Damp 117. When cutting extremely curly hair, avoid which of the following cutting implements? Answer (C) a) Shears b) Clippers c) Razors d) Thinning shears 118. When cutting a "cowlick", what tension should be used? Answer (D) a) Medium b) Very little c) High tension d) No tension 119. When cutting hair with electric clippers, the hair should be: Answer (B) a) Damp b) Dry c) Wet d) Cut with lotion 120. When cutting the hair with a razor, the hair should be: Answer (C) a) Wet or dry b) Dry c) Wet or Damp d) Cut with lotion 121. The reason razor cutting requires damp hair is: Answer (A) a) To avoid pulling the hair b) Retains sharp edge of razor longer c) Provides stylist with better control d) Prevents nicks & cuts 122. The principal reason for using thinning shears is: Answer (B) a) Increase bulk b) Decrease bulk c) Create a feathered appearance d) Increases stylist's control 123. Tapering has many different names, which of the following is not a name for tapering: Answer (A) a) Blunt b) Graduation c) Shingling d) Fading 124. Layering means the hair lengths have been cut: Answer (B) a) Bluntly b) Graduated c) At a 0 degree elevation d) Undercut 125. Which of the following would not be useful to thin out the hair: Answer (D) a) Thinning shears b) Shears c) Razor d) Clippers 126. Which of the following is not a part of your cutting shears? Answer (D) a) Screw b) Finger Brace c) Blade d) Prong 127. On which part of your cutting shears does your little finger rest?  Answer (D) a) Screw b) Tang c) Blade d) Finger Brace / Guard 128. Which of the following can be achieved with the "shears over comb" technique? Answer (B) a) Texturizing b) Layering very close to the skin c) Height at the crown d) Long layers 129. The blood is resupplied with oxygen by the : Answer (B) a) Heart b) Lungs c) Heart and Lungs d) Kidneys 130. In cutting very straight hair, what degree of tension is recommended? Answer (C) a) Medium tension b) Minimum tension c) Maximum tension d) Client comfort is the determining fact 131. A client has fine, dense hair, and wants it thinned out. How far from the head, should the stylist hold the razor, or thinning shears? Answer (C) a) ½ inch b) ¾ inch c) 1 inch d) 1 ½ inches 132. Club cutting is a method of cutting the hair: Answer (C) a) With a razor b) With "shears over comb" c) Blunt and straight across d) A very tight & close taper at the neck 133. To create the appearance of height, cut the hair: Answer (D) a) Full at the nape and crown b) Close at the nape and crown c) Short in front, but longer in back d) Close at the nape and high in the crown 134. When trying to create more body in fine hair: Answer (B) a) Use the shears over comb method b) Give a blunt cut c) Cut using a razor d) Use graduated layers where possible 135. In razor cutting, the amount of hair removed in one razor stroke is dependant upon: Answer (B) a) Sharpness of the razor b) Angle of the razor c) Length of the hair d) Skill and agility of the stylist 136. When slithering hair, the best results will be obtained when using shears with which edge: Answer (C) a) Notched b) Corrugated c) Sharp d) Smooth 137. Flexible comb, used in a "scissors over comb" technique, creates a close/tight neckline is: Answer (C) a) Styling comb b) Fine tooth comb c) Barber comb d) All of the above 138. Which of the following hair cutting implements may be used on wet or dry hair? Answer (A) a) Shears b) Razors c) Clippers d) All of the above 139. Which of the following hair cutting implements could be used on dry hair? Answer (D) a) Shears b) Razors c) Clippers d) Both A and C 140. Which of the following hair cutting implements is best used on wet/damp hair? Answer (B) a) Shears b) Razors c) Clippers d) All of the above 141. These hair-cutting lines are used to create a sense of weight and stability: Answer (D) a) Diagonal b) Vertical c) Concave d) Horizontal 142. These hair-cutting lines are used to create a sense/illusion of movement: Answer (B) a) Vertical b) Diagonal c) Horizontal d) Weight lines 143. The angle/degree at which you hold the hair out from the scalp prior to cutting: Answer (A) a) Elevation b) Graduation c) Weight line d) Demarcation 144. A blunt cut, tends to create lines that are: Answer (C) a) Feathered and soft b) Soft and feminine c) Hard d) Easy to roll in a roller set 145. In the "shear over comb" cutting technique, which comb is generally used? Answer (D) a) Wide tooth comb b) Styling comb c) Rattail comb d) Barber comb 146. In the "shear over comb" technique, you should work with an area: Answer (A) a) No wider than the comb b) Equal width to the comb c) As wide as the comb d) No wider than the blade of the shears 147. In the "shear over comb" technique, the angle of the comb will determine: Answer (A) a) The length of the hair b) The degree of elevation c) Both A and B d) None of the above 148. In the "shears over comb" technique, the stylist should begin the haircut at the: Answer (D) a) Crown b) Wherever they feel most comfortable c) Front d) Nape 149. If your client has lice, what must you do? Answer (B) a) Recommend a shampoo to destroy lice b) Refuse service c) Recommend they see a doctor d) Complete service 150. When cutting the hair with clippers, it is generally best to: Answer (B) a) Follow direction of the hair growth pattern b) Go against direction of the hair growth pattern c) Have hair slightly damp, especially in nape d) Shampoo and dry the hair prior to cutting