MMED CAT 2 Past Paper Review (23/02/2024) PDF

Question 38 Complete Marked out of 1 154. Cerebrovascular status during autoregulation shown in Figure 1 suggests: Select one: a. Mean arterial pressure shown by curve C b. Partial pressure of oxyg...

Question 38 Complete Marked out of 1 154. Cerebrovascular status during autoregulation shown in Figure 1 suggests: Select one: a. Mean arterial pressure shown by curve C b. Partial pressure of oxygen shown in curve B c. Passive collapse at phase E d. Normal autoregulation at phase D e. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide shown in curve A Question 39 Complete Marked out of 1 8. Which area is NOT normally considered to be an autonomic control center? Select one: a. medulla b. amygdala c. pons d. hippocampus e. hypothalamus Question 40 Complete Marked out of 1 134. A man falls asleep with one arm under his head. The arm is paralyzed when he awakens, but it tingles, and the pain sensation is still intact. The reason for the loss of motor function without loss of pain is that the nerves to his arm Select one: a. A fibres are more susceptible to hypoxia than B fibres b. A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C fibres c. Motor nerves are more affected by sleep than sensory fibres d. Sensory nerves are nearer to the bone than motor nerves and hence less affected by pressure e. C fibres are more sensitive to pressure than A fibres Question 41 Complete Marked out of 1 20. With regard to cerebrospinal fluid, which statement is FALSE? Select one: a. contains more proteins than plasma b. is produced at a rate of about 700 ml to 750 ml per day in adults c. drains into venous sinuses d. is formed mainly in choroid plexuses e. contains less K+ and glucose than plasma Question 42 Complete Marked out of 1 14. In a patient with right internuclear ophthalmoplegia: a. The lesion is in the right MLF. b. The saccadic movement of left eye is normal. c. There is right adduction deficit. d. Left abductor nystagmus. e. The convergence is abnormal. Question 43 Complete Marked out of 1 60. Which of the following statements correctly describes the processes involved in the synthesis, storage, release, binding to a receptor, and termination of action of a common neurotransmitter? Select one: a. Glutamate is synthesized in glia by the enzymatic conversion from glutamine and then diffuses into the neuronal terminal where it is sequestered into vesicles by a vesicle-associated membrane protein, released into the synaptic cleft in response to neuronal depolarization, acts on GPCRs, and its actions are terminated primarily by enzymatic degradation. b. Serotonin is synthesized from trytophan, stored in synaptic vesicles until its release into the synaptic cleft; it then acts primarily on GPCRs and its actions are terminated primarily by reuptake into the presynaptic nerve terminal. c. Glutamate is synthesized in glia by the enzymatic conversion from glutamine and then diffuses into the neuronal terminal where it is sequestered into vesicles until released by an influx of Ca2+ into the cytoplasm after an action potential reaches the nerve terminal, it binds exclusively to ligand-gated ion channel receptors, and is inactivated by reuptake into the nerve terminal. d. Norepinephrine is the only small-molecule transmitter that is synthesized in synaptic vesicles instead of being transported into the vesicle after its synthesis from the amino acid phenylalanine. After its release in response to depolarization, it binds to ligand-gated ion channels or GPCRs and its action is terminated by reuptake into the nerve terminal. e. Acetylcholine is synthesized from acetlyene, transported from the cytoplasm into vesicles by a vesicle-associated membrane protein, released into the synaptic cleft in response to neuronal depolarization, acts on GPCRs, and its actions are terminated primarily by enzymatic degradation. Question 44 Complete Marked out of 1 67. A medical student is studying neurons that are part of a descending pain modulating pathway. What brain region is correctly paired with the neurotransmitters it releases and the location where the neurotransmitter is released? Select one: a. Locus coeruleus neurons release norepinephrine in the spinal dorsal horn. b. Periaqueductal gray neurons release endorphins in the spinal dorsal horn. c. Locus coeruleus neurons release serotonin in the nucleus raphe magnus. d. Periaqueductal gray releases dynorphin in the rostral ventromedial medulla. e. Nucleus raphe magnus releases serotonin in the dorsal root ganglion. Question 45 Complete Marked out of 1 15. Recruitment and activation of motor units is tested by Select one: a. Electromyography b. Clinical examination of tendon jerks c. Nerve action potential recordings d. Electroencephalolgraphy e. Plethysmography Question 46 Complete Marked out of 1 15. The following area is primarily involved in the initiation of a saccadic eye movement: a. Posterior parietal cortex. b. Inferior colliculus. c. Dorsal prefrontal cortex. d. Frontal eye field. e. Superior colliculus. Question 47 Complete Marked out of 1 12. Which of the following has its cell body in the ganglion? Select one: a. preganglionic neuron, postganglionic neuron, and somatic motor neuron b. preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron c. postganglionic neuron d. somatic motor neuron e. preganglionic neuron Question 48 Complete Marked out of 1 15. Recruitment and activation of motor units is tested by Select one: a. Electroencephalolgraphy b. Plethysmography c. Electromyography d. Clinical examination of tendon jerks e. Nerve action potential recordings Question 49 Complete Marked out of 1 76. Which of the following neurotransmitters is low in Parkinson's disease: Select one: a. all of the above b. Noradrenaline c. Dopamine d. Serotonin e. Acetylcholine Question 50 Complete Marked out of 1 68. A 40-year-old man loses his right hand in a farm accident. Four years later, he has episodes of severe pain in the missing hand (phantom limb pain). A detailed PET scan study of his cerebral cortex might be expected to show Select one: a. a metabolically inactive spot where his hand area in his left primary somatosensory cortex would normally be. b. expansion of the right hand area in his left primary somatosensory cortex. c. projection of fibers from neighboring sensory areas into the right hand areaof his left primary somatosensory cortex. d. projection of fibers from neighboring sensory areas into the right hand area of his right primary somatosensory cortex. e. expansion of the right hand area in his right primary somatosensory cortex. Question 51 Complete Marked out of 1 90. List four disease that will happen in case of any part of basal ganglia is effected ? Select one: a. Hemiballismus b. Chorea c. all the above d. Parkinsonism e. Athetosis Question 52 Complete Marked out of 1 3. A 71-year-old man has a six-month history of being apathetic, unmotivated, and having poor judgment and inappropriate social behavior. These symptoms suggest dysfunction of what part of the brain? a. Occipital parietal association cortex. b. Limbic system. c. Amygdala and its connections. d. Frontal lobes. e. Parietal lobes. Question 53 Complete Marked out of 1 1. Post-mortem studies of Alzheimer's disease have shown: a. Enlarged parietal and occipital gyri. b. Shrinkage of frontal and temporal gyri. c. Enlarged frontal and temporal gyri. d. Shrinkage of the parietal and occipital lobes. e. Enlarged ventricles. Question 54 Complete Marked out of 1 86. The inability to undertake a series of movements involving a planning component, and the commission of errors that include inappropriate object use, is called: Select one: a. all the above b. Ideational apraxia c. Buccofacial apraxia d. Ideomotor apraxia e. Limb apraxia Question 55 Complete Marked out of 1 155. The brain is very sensitive to even short periods of ischaemia. The following statement is TRUE: Select one: a. CBF < 10 mL/100 g/min results in cellular acidosis. b. CBF < 50 mL/100 g/min results in impaired protein synthesis. c. CBF < 30 mL/100 g/min results in. cellular death d. CBF < 20 mL/100 g/min leads to failure of cell membrane ion pumps, with loss of transmembrane electrochemical gradients. e. CBF < 40 mL/100 g/min results in cellular oedema Question 56 Complete Marked out of 1 9. Brown sequard syndrome: a. Commonly cause by traumatic injury. b. Prognosis for motor recovery is good. c. Ipsilateral motor deficit. d. Contralateral impairment of vibration and position sense. e. Contralateral loss of pain and temp. Question 57 Complete Marked out of 1 56. A 32-year-old woman experienced the sudden onset of a severe cramping pain in the abdominal region. She also became nauseated. List some of the common features of visceral pain. Select one: a. It is mediated by Aδ and C fibers in the ventral roots of spinal nerves, radiates to a nearby or distant somatic structure, is accompanied by sweating, and is relayed to the cortex by the spinothalamic tract. b. It requires simultaneous activation of nociceptors within and outside of the viscera, causes spasms of the visceral and skeletal muscle, and is relayed to the cortex by the dorsal column pathway. c. It is poorly localized, is accompanied by sweating, radiates to a somatic structure that may be some distance away, and is relayed to the somatosensory cortex via the spinothalamic tract. d. It is well localized, is accompanied by sweating, radiates to a somatic structure that may be some distance away, and causes spasms of visceral muscle. e. It results from activation of nociceptors in the viscera that are innervated by the same fibers as innervate skin, induces rapid shard pain, causes spasms of the visceral muscle, and shows relatively rapid adaptation. Question 58 Complete Marked out of 1 81. Current neuroimaging research suggests that in Gilles de la Tourette syndrome: Select one: a. The connection between the basal ganglia and OFC is dysfunctional b. The connection between parts of the basal ganglia is dysfunctional c. Dopamine is low d. all of the above e. There is dysfunction in the parietal lobe Question 59 Complete Marked out of 1 156. The intracranial pressure compliance volume curve shown in Figure 2 can be interpreted as: Select one: a. Compensation with high compliance at D b. Minimal compliance at B c. Increased risk of cerebral oedema and herniation at C d. Collapse of cerebral microvasculature at A  e. Compensation reserve gradually depleted with decreased compliance at C Question 60 Complete Marked out of 1 23. In deep brain stimulation, which of the following is best target for the treatment of essential tremor? a. Thalamus. b. Caudate Nucleus. c. Globus pallidus externa. d. Globus pallidus interna e. Subthalamic Nucleus Question 61 Complete Marked out of 1 19. A 67-year-old man has motor neurone disease. Which of the following features is NOT seen in a pseudobulbar palsy? a. Exaggerated gag reflex b. Dysphagia c. Brisk jaw jerk d. Spastic tongue e. Tongue wasting and fasciculations Question 62 Complete Marked out of 1 72. Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease are examples of: Select one: a. Extrapyramidal disorders b. None of the above c. Perceptual disorders d. Dementia e. Dopaminergic disorders Question 63 Complete Marked out of 1 87. The inappropriate use of objects has been specifically termed: Select one: a. Conceptual apraxia b. Ideomotor apraxia c. None of the above d. Ideational apraxia e. Limb apraxia Question 64 Complete Marked out of 1 2. Which dementia is characterized by frontal lobe symptoms and a specific histology? a. Vascular dementia. b. Parkinson disease. c. Front-temporal dementia. d. Picks disease. e. NPH. Question 65 Complete Marked out of 1 70. A ventrolateral cordotomy is performed that produces relief of pain in the right leg. It is effective because it interrupts the Select one: a. right medial lemniscal pathway. b. left dorsal column. c. a direct projection to the primary somatosensory cortex. d. left ventrolateral spinothalamic tract. e. right ventrolateral spinothalamic tract. Question 66 Complete Marked out of 1 10. The following events occurs in a sympathetic noradrenergic neuroeffector junction except __. Select one: a. Activation of voltage-dependent Ca2+ channels b. Tyrosine is converted to DOPA c. DOPA is converted to DA d. Uptake of DA into vesicles is blocked by reserpine e. Dopamine is converted to adrenaline within the vesicles. Question 67 Complete Marked out of 1 77. The Gold Standard drug(s) for the treatment of Parkinson's disease is/are ______; this/these act(s) by ______. Select one: a. L-Dopa; increasing the amount of dopamine available b. Prozac; increasing the amount of serotonin available c. none of the above d. L-Dopa; increasing the amount of serotonin available e. The benzodiazepines; increasing the amount of dopamine available Question 68 Complete Marked out of 1 158. Secondary brain injury occurs hours to days after the primary injury through the following different mechanisms EXCEPT: Select one: a. Ischaemia and infection b. Damage to the BBB c. Reduced ICP d. Cerebral oedema e. Seizures Question 69 Complete Marked out of 1 92. Lesions of the extrapyramidal tract, all the following are true except; Select one: a. facial expression may be involved b. produce no muscle weakness c. swinging arm when walking may be defect d. may produce tremor e. hypertonia only affects one group of muscles Question 70 Complete Marked out of 1 99. Which association is not correct between receptor and stimulus? Select one: a. Pacinian corpuscle Pressure b. Muscle spindle Tapping the patellar tendon c. Receptor cells of the utricle Linear acceleration of the head d. Receptor cells of the auditory system Movement of the basilar membrane e. Rod photoreceptors Red light Question 71 Complete Marked out of 1 83. Neuroleptic drugs that block dopamine D2 receptors: Select one: a. Increase coprolalia in Tourette's syndrome b. Reduce depression c. None of the above d. Reduce coprolalia in Tourette's syndrome e. Increase anxiety