CRC Part 5 PDF Mock Examination

14 Mock Examination **1.** Federal money was first provided on a matching basis to states for vocational education programs by the: **A.** Civil Employees Act of 1920 **B.** Smith-Hughes Act of 1917 **C.** Soldier\'s Rehabilitation Act of 1918 **D.** Smith-Fess Act of 1920 **2.** The thrust of the Randolph-Sheppard Act of 1936 was to: **A.** Make it mandatory for the federal government to purchase designated products from workshops for individuals with cognitive impairments **B.** Create federal employment opportunities for individuals with hearing impairment **C.** Enable blind individuals to operate vending stands in federal property **D.** Expand vocational rehabilitation (VR) services to include civilians with disabilities 3\. The federal legislation that expanded VR services to include people with mental disabilities was: **A.** The Social Security Act **B.** The Wagner-O\'Day Act **C.** The Barden-LaFollette Act of 1943 **D.** The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 **4.** The professionalization of rehabilitation counseling has been shaped significantly by graduate training programs. Which of the following legislation provided funding to universities to train master\'s level rehabilitation counselors? **A.** The Vocational Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1954 **B.** The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 **C.** The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 **D.** The Workforce Investment Act of 1998 **5.** The following statements are all true regarding the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, EXCEPT: **A.** Increased funding for rehabilitation and disability research and established the National Institutes of Health **B.** Mandated that states serve individuals with the most severe disabilities before serving persons with less severe disabilities **C.** Established the Individualized Written Rehabilitation Program (IWRP) to ensure consumer involvement in the rehabilitation process **D.** Implemented Client Assistance Programs (CAPs) to provide assistance with application and advocacy services **370** **6.** What is true about Client Assistance Programs (CAPs)? **A.** It became the required program for every state in 1984. **B.** It was established with the passage of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. **C.** It ensured clients could receive assistance with application and advocacy services. **D.** All of the above **7.** What is true regarding the philosophy of rehabilitation after the passage of the 1973 Rehabilitation Act Amendments? **A.** The philosophy of rehabilitation has evolved from a \"pathological\" to \"functionality\" point of view. **B.** The philosophy of rehabilitation has evolved from a \"medical\" to \"ability\" point of view. **C.** The philosophy of rehabilitation has evolved from a \"pathological\" to \"disability rights\" point of view. **D.** The philosophy of rehabilitation has evolved from an \"economic-return\" to \"disability rights\" point of view. **8.** Federal contractors are expected to achieve a 7% utilization goal of people with disabilities in their workforces mandated by which section of Title V of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973? **A.** Section 501 **B.** Section 502 **C.** Section 503 **D.** Section 504 **9.** The Workforce Innovation and Opportunity Act (WIOA) amends the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and now requires state VR agencies to set aside at least 15% of their federal funds to provide \"preemployment transition services\" to youth with disabilities who are eligible or potentially eligible for VR services. Which of the following is NOT a preemployment transition service? **A.** Work-based learning experiences **B.** Instruction in self-advocacy **C.** Workplace readiness training **D.** Supported employment **10.** Which of the following is considered a goal of vocational rehabilitation? **A.** Empowerment **B.** Independence **C.** Quality of life **D.** Inclusion **E.** All of the above **11.** The ADA guarantees equal opportunity for people with disabilities in five aspects (Titles). Which of the following is NOT one of the five titles in the ADA? **A.** Employment **B.** Public services **C.** Independent contractors **D.** Telecommunications **371** **12.** Which of the following statement is NOT true about *substantially limiting?* **A.** An individual must be unable to perform, or be significantly limited in the ability to perform, an activity compared to an average person in the general population. **B.** An impairment is a \"disability\" under the ADA only if it substantially limits three or more major life activities. **C.** The impairment\'s nature and severity have to be considered when determining the impairment. **D.** How long the impairment will last or is expected to last is also a factor to consider. **13.** Which of the following is NOT promulgated by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992 or central to the philosophy of contemporary rehabilitation practices? **A.** Independent living (IL) **B.** Empowerment **C.** Self-determination **D.** Informed choices **14.** In which legislation was the Individual Written Rehabilitation Plan (IWRP) replaced by the Individualized Plan for Employment (IPE)? **A.** The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 **B.** The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 C. The Rehabilitation Act Amendment of 1998 **D.** The Ticket to Work and Work Incentives Improvement Act (TWWIIA) of 1999 **15.** The WIOA mandated state VR agencies to allocate at least % of their federal funding to provide preemployment transition services for youth with disabilities and to prioritize assistance in the area of transition from secondary to postsecondary education programs and/or competitive integrated employment. **A.** 5 **B.** 15 **C.** 25 **D.** 35 **16.** What is NOT a primary function of counselors in carrying out the rehabilitation counseling process? **A.** Assist individuals with disabilities in adapting to the environment **B.** Assist environments in accommodating the needs of individuals with disabilities **C.** Work toward the full participation of individuals in all aspects of society **D.** Maximize the cash benefits an individual can receive with the minimum work hours **17.** The basic objectives of the Code of Professional Ethics for Rehabilitation Counselor include the following statements, EXCEPT: **A.** Promote public welfare by specifying ethical behavior expected of rehabilitation counselors **B.** Establish laws and regulations that punish rehabilitation counselors who do not follow best practices **C.** Serve as an ethical guide designed to assist rehabilitation counselors in constructing a professional course of action that best serves those utilizing rehabilitation counseling services **D.** Serve as the basis for the processing of alleged code violations by certified rehabilitation counselors (CRCs^®^) **372** **18.** Certain client rights are protected under the CRC Code of Ethics. Which of the following is NOT one of the client rights listed in the CRC Code of Ethics? **A.** A professional disclosure statement should be provided. **B.** Informed consent should be included in the intake session. **C.** Official transcripts of the counselor should be provided to ensure the quality of the counseling services. **D.** Counselors should possess cultural sensitivity. **19.** The ethical responsibility of the rehabilitation counselor to safeguard clients from unauthorized disclosures of information given in the therapeutic relationship is: **A.** Privileged communication **B.** Advocacy **C.** Cultural sensitivity **D.** Confidentiality **20.** The \"duty to protect or duty to warn\" exception to confidentiality was first established by which of the following cases? **A.** *Tarasoff v. Regents of University of California* **B.** *Jaffee v. Redmond* **C.** *Ewing v. Goldstein* **D.** *Hunter v. Tansey* **21.** A new participatory ethical decision-making model is proposed to better involve clients in the decision-making process. This model consists of four interactive elements that facilitate client participation. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements? **A.** Ethical knowledge and practices **B.** Therapeutic alliance or relationship **C.** Client empowerment **D.** Consulting third-party organizations **22.** Which of the following is TRUE regarding *empowerment?* **A.** It is defined as the transfer of power and control over decisions, choices, and values from external entities to the consumers of disability services. **B.** It is defined as the process by which consumers make insightful decisions about personal goals and necessary services. **C.** It is defined as directing one\'s own course of action, which requires active personal agency in implementing informed choices. **D.** It is a process where the counselor works collaboratively with the client. **23.** There are several disclosures rehabilitation counselors must provide to clients before they engage in the rehabilitation counseling process. Which of the following is NOT one of the examples? **A.** Limitation of confidentiality **B.** Educational background and credentials **C.** Fees and billing arrangement **D.** Identities of other clients **373** **24.** All are acceptable disclosures of confidentiality by rehabilitation counselors, EXCEPT: **A.** Reporting to authorities when abuse or neglect of a child is suspected **B.** Reporting to the authorities when a client with a communicable and life-threatening disease is putting others at risk **C.** Sharing the counseling record with a client\'s spouse in order to fix the marriage **D.** Disclosing the appropriate case record when an attorney sends a subpoena 25\. Leahy et al. (2019) identified 12 major job functions that are essential to the professional practice of rehabilitation counseling in today\'s practice environment. Which of the following is NOT one of these job functions? **A.** Job placement **B.** Psychological assessment **C.** Case management **D.** Counseling **26.** Illness self-management includes all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Strategies that help individuals minimize the impact of the chronic health condition, including psychiatric symptoms on the daily lives of individuals living with the disability/chronic health condition **B.** A dynamic process that includes a partnership with the healthcare provider, family members, intervention team, and coupled with the individual\'s ability to maintain the management skills **C.** Only used with individuals with diabetes and hypertension in order to better manage their chronic health condition **D.** Illness management and recovery (IMR) is a standardized self-management curriculum that is designed for persons living with mental illness **27.** Interventions for persons who have experienced trauma and posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) include all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Pairing eye movement with cognitive processing of the traumatic event via eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) techniques **B.** You should stay away from working with anyone diagnosed with PTSD as you do not want to retraumatize them and cause more harm **C.** Stress-inoculation training (SIT) is used to help develop relaxation skills and a new set of cognitive skills related to a stressful situation **D.** Body safety skills training, psychoeducation, gradual exposure, modeling of adaptive behaviors, and coping skills training are components of trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) intervention **28.** Solution-focused brief therapy (SFBT) is a therapeutic intervention that assumes that: **A.** Significant others with whom the client is in a relationship will not notice changes in the client once the problem is solved **B.** Clients cannot formulate their own solutions to problems and that counseling is absolutely mandatory in order to get professional advice and opinion to resolve personal problems **C.** The counseling process is time-unlimited and aims to find the underlying cause of the issue and provide a diagnosis to the problem **D.** Exception questioning and miracle questioning is a useful part of the counseling technique **374** **29.** Which is NOT an important component of motivational interviewing (MI)? **A.** Using empathetic understanding, acceptance, and affirmation **B.** Identification of discrepancies **C.** Rolling with resistance and facilitation of self-efficacy **D.** MI does not acknowledge any conflicts, competing interests, or values that may get in the way of any rehabilitation goals **30.** Which is TRUE about multicultural counseling? **A.** It was developed to make sure we can understand client issues from a White-majority cultural lens. **B.** We should not be talking to clients about their cultural identities or issues as it relates to social justice and not a counseling-related issue. **C.** If there are counselor-client cultural differences, counselors are not expected to be culturally competent. **D.** Practicing culturally competent rehabilitation counseling requires a lifelong process of open-mindedness, respect, and valuing of cultural differences. **31.** Which of the following is FALSE about the empowerment counseling approach? **A.** It is a counseling process that includes increasing one\'s political and interpersonal power in the counseling session. **B.** It is a deficit-based counseling model. **C.** It is an empowerment-based counselor who respects the skills and knowledge that the client brings to the counseling relationship. **D.** It views the client as a catalyst for systemic and individual change. **32.** The necessary conditions of a counseling relationship according to person-centered therapy (PCT) include all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Two persons are in psychological contact. **B.** The client is in a state of incongruence. **C.** The therapist does not need to be integrated into the relationship. **D.** The counselor experiences empathetic understanding and unconditional positive regard for the client. **33.** Which of the following statements is FALSE? **A.** Existential therapy is concerned with the fundamental issues related to isolation, death, and existence. **B.** Gestalt therapy is concerned about the different parts of the self and working through emotions, thoughts, feelings, perceptions, and sensations as separate entities and keeping them separate within the individual. **C.** Gestalt therapy focuses on the here and now. **D.** Behavioral therapy focuses on reducing maladaptive behaviors and increasing adaptive behaviors. **375** **34.** Which of the following definitions and terms is FALSE? A. *Shaping* refers to a way of reinforcing behaviors that closely approximate the target behavior. **B.** *Token economies* refer to reinforcing behaviors by giving individuals monetary rewards or tokens that are of worth to the individual. **C.** *Superego* is related to the individual striving to be perfect and integrates the individual\'s moral character into their ego. **D.** *Projection* refers to a defense mechanism where the individual internalizes the unconscious impulses and needs of others onto oneself. **35.** Which of the following is TRUE about human development? A. Achieving industry and adjusting well in school are not important tasks for elementary school-age children with disabilities. **B.** Developmental tasks for adolescents are part of identity development. **C.** Career development is not important during early adulthood. **D.** Middle adulthood is devoid of any developmental tasks as you have achieved all the milestones. **36.** Which of the following best describes common factors as essential therapeutic conditions necessary for change? **A.** Common factors are very different from the facilitative conditions, as described by Carl Rogers. **B.** Working alliance is an important common factor in counseling. **C.** Common factors do not contribute to the efficacy of counseling. **D.** Treatment and interventions do not need to be customized to the unique needs of the client. **37.** Microskills in counseling include all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Open-and closed-ended questions **B.** Paraphrasing **C.** Reflection of feeling **D.** Behavioral modification **38.** Nonverbal communication includes all the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Verbal tracking **B.** Eye contact **C.** Body language **D.** Observing speech volume, pitch, pace, and fluency **39.** Confidentiality in counseling can be breached when: **A.** The counselor needs to share information with any parent **B.** A counselor is legally mandated to break confidentiality **C.** The counselor wants to break the privileged counselor-client communication **D.** The counselor will keep details for a suicidal plan shared by the client confidential, even when harm is intended **376** **40.** Which of the following is FALSE about *clinical supervision?* **A.** Supervision work should focus only on the client\'s case, and focus should be given to the supervisee\'s professional and personal development. **B.** In rehabilitation counseling, you may discuss the case conceptualization of the client from a psychosocial perspective. **C.** Supervisory activities may include consultation, support, instruction, training, and evaluation. **D.** Group supervision is when professionals within the same discipline share their cases and receive feedback about the counseling work. **41.** Which of the following terms are best associated with Carl Jung\'s analytic theory? **A.** Ancestral collective unconscious **B.** Narcissism **C.** Fictional finalism **D.** Object relations theory **42.** Which of the following best describes cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)? **A.** Psychological distress is caused by unresolved urges and unmet needs. **B.** Psychoeducation is not relevant to an intervention. **C.** Intervention does not include self-monitoring of negative thoughts or "self-talk.\" **D.** Intervention includes the identification of dysfunctional and distorted cognitions. **43.** REBT theory summarized using the ABC(DE) method. Which of the following is FALSE regarding this method? **A. A** refers to the activating event or adversity. **B. B** refers to the individual\'s belief about the event, which is either maladaptive or adaptive, rational, and helpful. **C. C** refers to the emotional and behavioral consequences of the beliefs. **D. D** refers to the development of new behavioral and emotional consequences. **44.** Evidence-based practice (EBP) is best described as: **A.** A set of processes that inform the counselor how to practice the art of counseling **B.** A practice that provides a cookie-cutter type of intervention and applies interventions to all clients regardless of their unique personal factors **C.** EBP is only used to formulate intervention **D.** Integrates the best scientific evidence into the clinical decision-making process engaged by rehabilitation counselors **45.** Which of the following does NOT describe an evidence-based practice (EBP)? **A.** The Individual Placement and Support (IPS) model **B.** Workplace socialization training **C.** The Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) model **D.** Supported employment **377** **46.** Resolving ethical dilemmas in group practice is best done by considering the following actions: **A.** Obtaining consultation from a colleague **B.** Thinking about the situation in relation to the ethical principles of beneficence, nonmaleficence, autonomy, justice, and fidelity **C.** Looking at the applicable professional code **D.** All of the above **47.** A married couple brings their two children to counseling for behavioral problems. The 16-year-old son is using drugs, and their 12-year-old daughter does not want to talk to her parents. According to the family systems theory, the identified client would be: **A.** The 16-year-old son **B.** The 13-year-old daughter **C.** The family **D.** Both children **48.** A family is seeing a solution-focused family therapist because of the huge argument between the parents and the daughter about the subject of the daughter\'s boyfriend. Which of the following techniques the therapist is likely to use? **A.** Process questions **B.** The miracle question **C.** Directives **D.** Interpretation **49.** A rehabilitation counselor has been working with a group of participants who have experienced a psychiatric disability associated with major depressive disorder. Several of the participants have voiced that they feel they will not be able to find a job because they are less skilled than others on the job market. The rehabilitation counselor has decided to work with the group to identify and address the negative thought patterns that might be presenting barriers to finding employment. What theoretical approach has this counselor decided to adopt? **A.** Psychodynamic **B.** Experiential **C.** Cognitive behavioral **D.** Psychoeducational **50.** Which of the following is NOT a key leader function/behavior during the transition stage of the group process? **A.** Challenging resistance **B.** Making decisions about the degree of shared leadership **C.** Identifying and processing feelings **D.** Increasing risk-taking **378** **51.** You are leading a group that has been meeting for several weeks now and has already established a set of group rules and norms and identified some of the goals that the group would like to work on. Recently, several of the group members have been very reluctant to speak in group, and you overheard a conversation between two members discussing how they do not want to speak in front of the group for fear of looking foolish. Judging by this behavior, within what stage of group development is this group likely functioning? **A.** Initial stage **B.** Transition stage **C.** Working stage **D.** Final stage **52.** You have received a referral to work with a same-sex couple who have 5-year-old son and are currently experiencing some relationship problems following one of the partners losing their job. Their son has been having some behavioral problems at school, which the school feels is linked to the problems going on at home. You are a CRC who specializes in family dynamics. Based on this information, you would make the following statement: **A.** Based on my specialization, I feel that I am prepared to assist this family to work on their issues. **B.** Family dynamics applies only to traditional family structures; therefore, you should refer these particular clients to someone who is prepared to handle their needs. **C.** This particular group of clients does not qualify for family therapy; instead, the child should receive individual counseling, and the same-sex partners should either pursue couples counseling or individual therapy. **D.** None of the above **53.** You are leading a group that has begun to exhibit signs of trust, cohesion, and sense of inclusion. Some individuals within the group have mentioned that they have been trying to practice some of the things that they are learning in group in their homes and communities. During group time, you have noted that some of the members have begun to take on more of a leadership role. Based on your observations, this group is most likely currently in the \_\_\_\_\_ stage of group development. **A.** Initial **B.** Transition **C.** Working **D.** End **54.** The group that you are currently leading has recently been exhibiting a great deal of resistance to discussing and dealing with common issues, has experienced a lot of conflict between group members, and the members just do not seem to trust each other. Based on these observations, your key roles at this point in time may include: **A.** Recognizing and dealing with unfinished business **B.** Reducing your active role in the group to allow for greater shared leadership **C.** Identification and processing of feelings, thoughts, and behaviors **D.** Both B and C **379** **55.** The group that you are currently conducting on substance abuse is in the working stage, which you have judged from the level of trust and cohesion among group members, and the presence of open communication, self-disclosure, and risk-taking. You are currently operating from a democratic leadership style and feel that it would be most appropriate at this point to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ your level of activity in structuring and leading the group. You, therefore, decide to adopt the \_\_\_\_\_\_ leadership style. **A.** Maintain, democratic **B.** Reduce, authoritarian **C.** Increase, authoritarian **D.** Reduce, laissez-faire **56.** For participants who are placed in unsubsidized employment, One-Stop centers provide, as appropriate, follow-up services for up to \_\_\_\_\_ months after their first day of employment. **A.** 6 **B.** 9 **C.** 12 **D.** 18 **57.** This disability model has advanced science to better understand illness and disease etiology, process, and survival rates and focuses on diagnostic labels and causes of health conditions. **A.** Social model **B.** Medical model **C.** Functional model **D.** Minority model **58.** According to the *ICF* model, this refers to the dynamic interaction between function and disability within the individual\'s context. **A.** Health **B.** Function **C.** Disability **D.** Impairment **59.** According to the *ICF* model, this concept refers to the environmental and personal factors that can be either facilitators or barriers to optimal functioning and disability. **A.** Functional factors **B.** Contextual factors **C.** Neither A nor B **D.** Both A and B **380** **60.** A transgender African American individual with diabetes experiences pancreatic and endocrine system impairments and high blood sugar, fatigue, and vision loss. Which of the following reflects the correct *ICF* factors described? **A.** Environmental barriers, health condition, body function impairment, activity limitation **B.** Personal factors, health condition, body structural impairment, body function impairment **C.** Participation restrictions, body structural impairment, environmental facilitator, personal factor **D.** Race, disease, and symptoms **61.** Mental functions fall under which *ICF* domain? **A.** Body structure **B.** Body function **C.** Activity **D.** Participation **62.** Difficulty lifting heavy objects due to heart disease would fall under what *ICF* domain? **A.** Activity limitation **B.** Environmental barrier **C.** Participation restriction **D.** Impairment **63.** This refers to the array of emotional (feelings, mood, affect), cognitive (beliefs, thoughts), and behavioral (actions) experiences of the individual. **A.** Psychosocial factors **B.** Mood and affect **C.** Social factors **D.** Psychological factors **64.** This is another component of self-concept and refers to individuals\' perceptions of their body (e.g., appearance, attractiveness, sexuality, functioning) and their belief about how others view their body. **A.** Body type **B.** Body structure **C.** Body image **D.** Body **65.** This refers to an individual\'s self-concept based on their perceived group membership. **A.** Self-esteem **B.** Empowerment **C.** Social identity **D.** Human agency **381** **66.** This refers to the psychological internalization of the negative stereotypes, biases, and assumptions about one\'s social group and the application of these negative messages to oneself. **A.** Internalized stigma **B.** Internalized hostility **C.** Internalized beliefs **D.** Internalized assumptions **67.** This occurs when stigma impacts disability communities in different ways, often depending on the type of disability. **A.** Internalized stigma **B.** Hierarchy of stigma **C.** Stigma variation **D.** Stigma reduction **68.** These concepts are traditionally used to describe the process and outcome associated with a psychological response to disability. **A.** Response, grief, adjustment **B.** Shock, anxiety, denial, anger, depression, adaptation **C.** Depression, guilt, grief **D.** Adaptation, adjustment, acceptance **69.** This manifests often as bodily symptoms such as rapid heart rate, sweaty palms, and/or chest pains as well as by worrisome thoughts and fears (\"I am going to die\" or \"I have lost everything\"). **A.** Anxiety **B.** Depression **C.** Guilt **D.** Grief **70.** An individual perceives a spinal cord injury as a threat to their life and do not perceive themselves as having the resources to manage this threat. Which of the following best describes this approach to adjustment to disability? **A.** Disability acceptance model **B.** Disability centrality model **C.** Self-management approach **D.** Stress coping model **71.** Family members caring for a person with a chronic illness or disability may experience which of the following? **A.** Sense of mastery **B.** Sense of satisfaction **C.** Distress **D.** Both A and C **E.** A, B, and C **382** **72.** Which of the following is NOT true about persons with chronic illnesses or disabilities? **A.** Persons with chronic illnesses or disabilities lack sex drive. **B.** Persons with chronic illnesses or disabilities often have intersecting identities. **C.** Persons with chronic illnesses or disabilities are less likely to have partners or marry than those without disabilities. **D.** Historically, adults with intellectual disabilities have frequently been prevented from sexual expression, marriage, or reproduction. **73.** This is a phrase coined by the African American/Black queer communities that is used as an alternative for *gay* and *lesbian.* **A.** Pansexual **B.** Questioning **C.** Two-Spirit **D.** Same gender loving **74.** This refers to the belief that heterosexuality is the only sexual orientation and that sexual and marital relations are fitting only between people of opposite sexes. **A.** Homophobia **B.** Transphobia **C.** Cissexism **D.** Heteronormativity **75.** Lesbian and bisexual women are more likely than cisgender women to have a disability. **A.** True **B.** False **76.** Which of the following best describes the following individual: A person with chronic illness or disability who was born with male genitalia, does not identify as a man or woman, and is not emotionally, physically, and/or sexually attracted to anyone. **A.** Assigned intersex at birth, cis-man, and queer **B.** Assigned transgender at birth, transgender, and gender nonconforming **C.** Assign male at birth, queer, and asexual **D.** Assigned female and male at birth, cisgender, and bisexual **77.** During the assessment process in rehabilitation, test-taker rights include all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Knowledge in advance why they are being tested **B.** Assessment provided by a competent evaluator **C.** Protection of confidentiality and awareness of limits to confidentiality **D.** Immediate access to all testing materials and scoring manuals if requested **383** **78.** John is a consumer with a significant cognitive disability who has limited verbal and reading ability (less than a second-grade reading level) who was referred to you for an assessment of his occupational interests and abilities. Which of the following assessment tools/approaches would you recommend? **A. MMPI-2** **B.** Strong Interest Inventory (SII) **C.** Situational or ecological assessment **D.** Medical evaluation 79\. Your client scores in the 92nd percentile on a reading comprehension examination, meaning: **A.** She answered 92 out of 150 answers correctly. **B.** She received a score of 92% on the test. **C.** She scored higher than 91% of the other test-takers. **D.** Both B and C **80.** All of the following statements are TRUE about assessment with individuals with disabilities, EXCEPT: **A.** It is important to consider how response style, performance motivation, disability effects, and language may affect test performance and consequently usefulness of test results. **B.** Only tests that have separate norms for individuals with disabilities are considered valid measures in vocational rehabilitation assessment approaches. **C.** Sensitivity and awareness of values, attitudes, and beliefs are considered the essential components of cultural competence in assessment. **D.** Test bias is an important consideration when selecting tests and interpreting results. **81.** Kelly is a 21-year-old consumer. She is administered the WAIS-IV. She receives a full-scale IQ score of 70. Her index scores are as follows: 65 on the Working Memory Index, 60 on the Verbal Comprehension Index, 60 on the Processing Speed Index, and 80 on the Perceptual Reasoning Index. Assuming these scores are representative of her true performance and valid, what inferences could be made? **A.** Kelly is considered to have a severe intellectual disability. **B.** Kelly\'s abstract verbal reasoning and verbal comprehension fall in the average range relative to her same-age peers. **C.** Kelly\'s spatial reasoning and visual processing are relative strengths. **D.** Nothing can be concluded from these scores. **82.** All of the following are TRUE statements regarding a true normal curve, EXCEPT: **A.** Approximately 68% of the total cases fall within 2 SDs of the mean. **B.** Approximately 98% of the cases are within 3 SDs of the mean. **C.** The mean, the median, and the mode all have the same value. **D.** The limits of the curve are infinite. **384** **83.** You are a rehabilitation counselor working with Teri. Teri is a 30-year-old womanwho would like to find employment. She left high school in the 10th grade to raise her child and has never worked. She is interested in obtaining a GED and would like to pursue a college degree in elementary education. You are interested in a brief measure to assess Teri\'s basic reading and arithmetic capabilities and would likely choose to administer the: **A.** Wide Range Achievement Test (WRAT-5) **B.** Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-IV) **C.** Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) **D.** Beta-4 **84.** You are working with a consumer who reports to you that she took a test several years ago in which her scores were elevated on the *Psychasthenia* and *Schizophrenia* scales. You believe she took the: **A.** Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) **B.** 16 Personality Factor (16 PF) **C.** Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) **D.** Raven\'s Progressive Matrices **85.** According to the Commission on Rehabilitation Counselor Certification (CRCC) Code of Ethics regarding evaluation, assessment, and interpretation: **A.** Rehabilitation counselors are not responsible for preventing the misuse of obsolete or outdated measures and assessment data by others. **B.** Rehabilitation counselors are able to reproduce or modify published assessments without acknowledgment and permission from the publisher under some circumstances. **C.** Prior to assessment, rehabilitation counselors are expected to explain the nature and purposes of assessment in the language and/or at the developmental level of the consumer, unless an explicit exception has been agreed on in advance. **D.** Since it may be necessary to accommodate consumers with disabilities, a test may not be administered under standard conditions. If this occurs, it is up to the rehabilitation counselor to decide whether or not to note this change in the interpretation of the test results. **86.** E-S-F-P (Extroversion, Sensing, Feeling, Perception) is a possible score summary of a personality type on this well-known personality test based on the works of Jung: **A.** Sixteen Personality Factor **B.** Myers---Briggs Type Indicator **C.** Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 **D.** NEO-PI **87.** Person-environment interaction and work adjustment theories are BOTH what kind of career development theory? **A.** Life span theory **B.** Developmental theory **C.** Social learning theory **D.** Trait and type theory **385** **88.** Based on Holland\'s personality hexagon, which of the following is *NOT* considered a personality type? **A.** Conventional **B.** Investigative **C.** Realistic **D.** Creative **89.** Based on the INCOME Model, which of the following involves \"the process of career decision-making by understanding the relations between self-knowledge and knowledge about occupations or jobs and selecting a job or occupation program\"? **A.** Imaging status **B.** Obtaining status **C.** Informing status **D.** Choosing status **90.** Which of the following is *NOT* one of the four factors that influence career decision-making based on the social learning theory? **A.** Genetic endowment **B.** Environmental conditions and events **C.** Learning experiences **D.** Personality type **91.** Which of the following is *NOT* true regarding the social cognitive theory? **A.** *Self-efficacy beliefs* refer to individuals\' beliefs about whether they can be successful at performing a particular task. **B.** *Outcome expectations* refer to individuals\' beliefs regarding what consequences are most likely to ensue if particular behaviors are performed. **C.** *Autonomous motivation* refers to motivation that individuals identify with an activity\'s value and how it aligns with their sense of self. **D.** *Personal goals* refer to individuals\' intention to engage in a certain activity or to produce a particular outcome. **92.** What are the two major concepts of social cognitive career theory (SCCT)? **A.** Trait and factor **B.** Satisfaction and satisfactoriness **C.** Self-efficacy beliefs and outcome expectations **D.** Life roles and life stages **93.** Social cognitive career theory was advanced by Lent, Brown, and Hackett as an extension of Bandura\'s \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. **A.** Social cognitive theory **B.** Self-determination theory **C.** Hope theory **D.** Attachment theory **386** **94.** Two types of strategies have been developed to assist clients with career development, according to Krumboltz\'s social learning theory: cognitive and behavioral strategies. Which of the following is an example of *cognitive* strategies? **A.** Practicing **B.** Role-playing **C.** Simulation **D.** Refraining **95.** According to Krumboltz\'s social learning theory, which of the following is an example of *BEHAVIORAL* strategies that have been developed to assist clients with career development? **A.** Goal clarification **B.** Reinforcement **C.** Refraining **D.** Cognitive rehearsal **96.** Life span theory has two major concepts: life role and life stage. What is the age range for the maintenance stage? **A.** 25 to 44 years **B.** 45 to 64 years **C.** 65+years **D.** 15 to 24 years **97.** Which of the following statements best describes *job placement?* **A.** Process or set of activities involved in locating a suitable job for vocational rehabilitation clients and getting them hired for the job **B.** Techniques such as the buddy system, family support, role models, and ample practice in completing job applications, writing resumes, and performing job interviews **C.** Identification of a client\'s vocational interests and goals **D.** Use of various assessments to understand a client\'s strengths and limitations **98.** What is the main feature of Job Club that is different from other job-seeking skills programs? **A.** The use of a buddy system **B.** The use of vocational assessment **C.** The use of selective placement **D.** The use of client-centered placement **99.** There are two types of employability skills, specific employability skills and general employability skills. Which of the following is an example of specific employability skills? **A.** Personal hygiene **B.** Intelligence **C.** Attendance and punctuality **D.** Interpersonal relationships **387** **100.** Which of the following is *NOT* one of the trait and type theories of career development? **A.** Life span theory **B.** Person-environment interaction theory **C.** Minnesota Theory of Work Adjustment (MTWA) **D.** Work personality theory **101.** A Self-Directed Search (SDS) assessment score can determine: **A.** The client\'s three highest work personality types based on Holland\'s theory **B.** The fastest growing occupation in the United States **C.** The highest paying job in the area **D.** The client\'s current life stage **102.** What should rehabilitation counselors be aware of when applying career development theories? **A.** Most of the theories are outdated and need revision. **B.** Theories must be applied with an understanding of the limitations resulting from a disability and a possible need for accommodations. **C.** Career development theories can be used to accurately predict employment outcomes of people with disabilities. **D.** Career assessment results are the only source of career development information a rehabilitation counselor can use in the career decision-making process. **103.** According to Paul Salamone, the negative consequences of selective placement include: **A.** Increased client dependence **B.** Decreased self-confidence **C.** Impaired dignity **D.** Lengthen the duration of job placement **104.** Among general employability skills, specific employability skills, and placeability skills, which is the most important in predicting job maintenance behavior? **A.** Specific employability skills **B.** General employability skills **C.** Placeability **D.** None of the above **105.** Which of the following is important in predicting a client\'s ability to obtain a job? **A.** Specific employability skills **B.** General employability skills **C.** Placeability **D.** None of the above **106.** Which of the following is NOT a typical function of social media networking sites, such as LinkedIn and Indeed? **A.** Facilitating client referrals **B.** Searching for job leads **C.** Building formal and informal connections with other professionals in one\'s field **D.** Interacting with friends and family **388** **107.** This practice, often utilized by employers and job seekers, which involves an in-depth examination of the labor market to get a sense of the supply and demand for certain jobs, the requirements/training expectations for jobs, and reasonable and expected salaries, among other important information, is commonly referred to as: **A.** Labor market analysis **B.** Social networking **C.** Job analysis **D.** Transferrable skills analysis 108\. Which of the following most accurately describes demand-side employment? **A.** Focusing on the rehabilitation counseling client\'s vocational employment needs, such as the need for medical, psychological, social, educational, and vocational services. **B.** A more recent perspective than supply-side employment, reflecting the importance of understanding the labor market, employer engagement, and understanding the needs of employers. **C.** Focusing primarily on the demands of the employment needs of the government, as reflected in employment legislation. **D.** A socially aware approach to employment driven by counseling theory. **109.** Which of the following statements accurately describes research findings concerning employers and workers with disabilities? **A.** Generally, employers expect workers with disabilities to be more reliable than workers without disabilities. **B.** Generally, small employers are more likely to hire workers with disabilities than large employers. **C.** Generally, large employers are more likely to hire workers with disabilities than small employers. **D.** Generally, the positive attitudes employers typically express toward people with disabilities always translate into the actual hiring of people with disabilities. **110.** The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was designed to protect people with disabilities from discrimination and to assure equal opportunities. Which of the following is true about the ADA? **A.** There is strong evidence suggesting that the ADA has been an effective mechanism in improving the employment rate of people with disabilities. **B.** The ADA is based on an employment quota system. **C.** Human resource managers who are knowledgeable about the ADA tend to be more positive about hiring people with disabilities. **D.** None of the above are true statements about the ADA. **111.** In 2005, the U.S. Department of Labor (USDOL) conducted a focus study with employers representing a range of industries and company size. What is the most common reason given by employers for not hiring people with disabilities? **A.** People with disabilities are dangerous. **B.** People with disabilities require expensive job accommodation. **C.** Employers need more accurate and practical information to dispel preconceptions about hiring and retaining people with disabilities. **D.** People with disabilities do not have the ability to perform the type of work that the organization needs to have done. **389** **112.** Unemployment, income inequality, and poverty have been shown to be associated with: **A.** Lower rates of alcohol use and domestic violence. **B.** Financial, but not physical or mental health. **C.** Financial and mental health, but not physical health. **D.** Physical, financial, and mental health. **113.** In recent years in the United States, compared to people without disabilities: **A.** People with disabilities were about equally likely to be employed. **B.** People with disabilities were less than one-tenth as likely to be employed. **C.** People with disabilities were about half as likely to be employed. **D.** People with disabilities were more likely to be employed. **114.** Which statement is correct about the United States state-federal vocational rehabilitation (VR) program? **A.** The state-federal VR program serves over one billion people with disabilities annually. **B.** The state-federal VR program has traditionally used a demand-side employment approach. C. There is no empirical evidence to support the effectiveness of the state-federal VR program. **D.** The state-federal VR program has traditionally used a supply-side employment approach. **115.** Work adjustment is an important consideration in vocational rehabilitation and employment retention, with successful work adjustment being indicated by which of the following? **A.** Job tenure, which is influenced by job satisfaction and job satisfactoriness. **B.** Pay rate. **C.** Satisfaction with approved accommodations. **D.** The capacity to move frequently from job to job without a significant fluctuation in job satisfaction and job satisfactoriness. **116.** Interdisciplinary collaboration between rehabilitation counselors and professionals across a range of disciplines is an important aspect of ethical professional practice. Which of the following is NOT an ethical requirement when engaging in interdisciplinary collaboration? **A.** Recognizing that the quality of interactions with colleagues can influence the quality of client service. **B.** Refraining from discussing confidential information that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client without client consent when engaging in formal and informal interdisciplinary consultation. **C.** Each professional engaged in interdisciplinary collaboration must obtain written informed client consent for sharing information. **D.** All of these are ethical requirements when engaging in interdisciplinary collaboration. **390** **117.** An individual with a significant disability is seeking employment services through a One-Stop Career Center. They are just beginning to learn English as a second language, have a very limited work history, and do not have a good idea about their career goals. They are likely to receive which services? **A.** Core and intensive career services **B.** Basic and individualized career services **C.** Basic and core career services **D.** Only Intensive career services and training **118.** Which of the following statements regarding eligibility for the Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI) and Supplemental Security Income (SSI) Programs is correct? **A.** SSI is an eligibility program, but SSDI is not. **B.** SSDI is an eligibility program, but SSI is not. **C.** Both SSI and SSDI are eligibility programs, with the same eligibility criteria. **D.** Both SSI and SSDI are eligibility programs, with different eligibility criteria. **119.** Only a small percentage of Social Security Administration (SSA) disability benefit beneficiaries resume employment once they begin receiving benefits. To address the low rate of employment and return to work among beneficiaries, work incentives have been established to promote employment participation. Examples of work incentive programs include which of the following? **A.** Social Security Disability Insurance (SSDI), Supplemental Security Income (SSI), and substantial gainful activity **B.** The Ticket to Work Program, Impairment-Related Work Expenses, and Plans for Achieving Self-Support **C.** Temporary Aid for Needy Families (TANF) and Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) **D.** Financial Literacy, Financial Capability, and Financial Literacy Education **120.** As authorized under the Rehabilitation Act, Centers for Independent Living (CILs) are required to provide core services. These include: **A.** Developing and maintaining the State Plan for Independent Living (SPIL) **B.** Recognizing that it is not a disability that prevents people with disabilities from living independently, that people with disabilities have the right to self-determination, that people with disabilities can be experts in their own self-care, and that independent living (IL) services are mostly managed and administered by consumers **C.** Information and referral, IL skills training, peer counseling, individual and systems advocacy, and services that facilitate the transition from nursing homes and other institutions to home and community-based residences with the necessary supports and services and provide assistance to those at risk of entering institutions, and facilitate the transition of youth to postsecondary life **D.** Statewide Independent Living Councils (SILCs) and CILs provide grants to consumer-controlled, community-based, cross-disability, nonresidential, private nonprofit agencies to provide IL services to individuals with significant disabilities **391** **121.** Among the various case management models, this biopsychosocial model, frequently employed with clients with psychiatric disabilities, is unique in its requirement that the case manager is also a clinician who provides counseling, therapy, or education. **A.** The Brokerage Model **B.** The Assertive Community Treatment Model **C.** The Strengths-Based Model **D.** The Clinical Case Management Model **122.** Which of the following federal laws limits the ability of health plans to deny insurance based on health status to individuals who were previously insured for 18 months or more and addresses the security and privacy of patient health data, including by establishing national standards for electronic healthcare transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers? **A.** The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) **B.** The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) **C.** The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) **D.** The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act **123.** Choose the best response: Healthcare plans in which there are financial incentives for physicians and patients to select less expensive forms of care, which have an emphasis on preventive care, formal reviews of the medical necessity and costs of medical services, and limits on inpatient admissions and lengths of stay, all in an effort to reduce healthcare costs are characteristics of: **A.** Medicaid **B.** Health insurance **C.** The Affordable Care Act **D.** Managed care **124.** An employee has insurance through their employer that provides benefits for employees who are either totally or partially disabled due to injury, illness, pregnancy, or psychiatric disorder and which will replace a portion of the employee\'s normal income for a period of weeks to several months. This type of insurance is called: **A.** Individual Short-Term Insurance **B.** Medicare **C.** Short-Term Group Disability Insurance **D.** Personal Injury (No-Fault) Insurance **392** **125.** You are a rehabilitation counselor working at a community-based clinical mental health agency. You have a colleague named Ben whom you do not know well, but you are friendly with him and frequently chat with him in the office. Ben has a client he regularly sees, a young woman. You do not know her name or anything about her background, but you frequently see her and Ben greet each other in the waiting room before he escorts her to his office, and you notice Ben perk up a bit and see a significant positive change in his mood when she arrives. One day, you see his client arrive with what appears to be a small gift bag. Later on, when the client leaves, she no longer has the gift bag, but Ben is now wearing what appears to be a brand-new watch. In addition, the client is now wearing this necklace that you did not notice earlier. You are a little uncomfortable with this presumed gift exchange, coupled with the way Ben seems to act around this client. What would be your best first course of action to take? **A.** Confront Ben directly **B.** Report Ben to your supervisor **C.** Identify a professional board or ethics committee within your organization and submit a formal complaint about Ben **D.** Get in contact with the client herself and express your concern and recommend she transfer to a new counselor **126.** The leading cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in young children and older adults is: **A.** Fails **B.** Motor vehicle accidents **C.** Sports and recreational activities **D.** Acts of violence **127.** What age range of people would most likely have rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? **A.** 18 to 30 years **B.** 40 to 60 years **C.** 70 to 80 years **D.** 70 to 90 years **128.** What is the prevalence rate for chronic pain across the world? **A.** One out of 10 persons **B.** One out of five persons **C.** One out of three persons **D.** One out of two persons **129.** Which of the following chronic diseases can frequently develop Sjögren syndrome? **A.** Type 1 diabetes **B.** Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) **C.** Cancer **D.** Multiple sclerosis (MS) **130.** The prevalence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has been steadily increasing throughout the years. What is the most recent estimated prevalence? **A.** 1 of 88 children **B.** 1 of 68 children **C.** 1 of 74 children **D.** 1 of 54 children **393** **131.** Which of the following is NOT the skill domains included in consideration of intellectual deficits and difficulty functioning in daily life during the diagnosis of intellectual disabilities? **A.** Behavioral **B.** Conceptual **C.** Social **D.** Practical **132.** Which of the following body systems is related to Parkinson and Huntington diseases? **A.** Musculoskeletal system **B.** Endocannabinoid system **C.** Vestibular system **D.** Integumentary system **133.** At which highest spinal cord injury level does a person with complete spinal cord injury maintain some gross movement of the upper extremities (e.g., bending the arm at the elbow, holding a light object between the thumb and the finger, independently operating an electric wheelchair)? **A.** C3 **B.** C5 **C.** T1 **D.** T7 **134.** At which highest spinal cord injury level can a person with complete spinal cord injury be almost independent with some environmental accommodations? **A.** C5 **B. C7** **C.** T7 **D.** S1 **135.** What severity of head injury is a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7? **A.** No head injury **B.** Mild head injury **C.** Moderate head injury **D.** Severe head injury **136.** Which of the following descriptions refers to the manifestations of right-sided brain damage? **A.** Speech-language deficit and spatial-perceptual deficits **B.** Spatial-perceptual deficits and quick impulsive behavior **C.** Quick impulsive behavior and language memory deficits **D.** Speech-language deficits and language memory deficits **394** **137.** Which of the following behaviors refers to difficulty carrying out purposeful, coordinated voluntary motor skills movements? **A.** Apraxia **B.** Alexia **C.** Agraphia **D.** Agnosia **138.** Wernicke aphasia includes which of the following symptoms? **A.** Fluent aphasia, word-finding difficulties **B.** Nonfluent aphasia, word-finding difficulties **C.** Fluent aphasia, effortless speech but reduced information content **D.** Nonfluent aphasia, effortless speech but reduced information content **139.** Which type of multiple sclerosis (MS) courses is characterized by a gradual physical decline with no noticeable remissions? **A.** Relapsing-remitting MS **B.** Primary progressive MS **C.** Secondary progressive MS **D.** Progressive relapsing MS **140.** Which of the following chronic pain syndromes are diagnosed primarily in women? **A.** Carpal tunnel syndrome **B.** Complex regional pain syndrome **C.** Fibromyalgia syndrome **D.** Surgical trauma **141.** Which one of the following medications for managing multiple sclerosis relapses might involve side effects of confusion, restlessness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and thinner skin? **A.** Prednisone **B.** Teriflunomide **C.** Methylprednisolone **D.** Dimethyl fumarate **142.** Which symptom is NOT part of the diagnostic criteria for anxiety disorders? **A.** Nervousness **B.** Sweating **C.** Sadness **D.** Worrying **143.** Which model of therapy is particularly effective for persons with personality disorders? **A.** Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) **B.** Psychoanalysis **C.** Cognitive behavioral therapy **D.** Motivational interviewing **395** **144.** What model of therapy is particularly effective for persons with anxiety disorders? A. Dialectical behavior therapy **B.** Psychoanalysis **C.** Cognitive behavioral therapy **D.** Motivational interviewing 145\. Which symptom is NOT part of the diagnostic criteria for depression? A. Irritable mood **B.** Increased or decreased appetite **C.** Substance misuse **D.** Suicidal thoughts **146.** What specific type of withdrawal symptoms might include insomnia, anxiety, agitation, nausea, tremors, seizures, delirium tremens, and hallucinations? **A.** Alcohol withdrawal **B.** Cocaine withdrawal **C.** Heroin withdrawal **D.** Opiate withdrawal 147\. Which symptom is NOT part of the diagnostic criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder? **A.** Emotional outbursts **B.** Concentration difficulties **C.** Mania **D.** Hypervigilance **148.** Which of the following is characteristic of bipolar II? A. The occurrence of at least one major depressive episode **B.** The occurrence of at least one major depressive episode and at least one manic episode **C.** The occurrence of at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode **D.** The occurrence of at least one manic episode **149.** Autism spectrum disorder varies widely in severity and symptoms. Which of the following is NOT one of the common characteristics of autism spectrum disorders? A. Difficulties in maintaining conversations and friendships **B.** Mannerisms **C.** Sensory sensitivities **D.** Exceptional memories **150.** According to *DSM-5,* which of the following IQ scores is required as a threshold for establishing a diagnosis? A. IQ score of 60 **B.** IQ score of 70 **C.** IQ score of 80 **D.** There is no longer a \"cutoff\" score or threshold for establishing a diagnosis **396** **151.** Which of the following types of seizure is an episode of brief disruption of consciousness and mild rhythmic movements of the eyelids? **A.** Myoclonic seizure **B.** Absence seizure **C.** Infantile seizure **D.** Tonic-clonic seizure **152.** Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of cerebral palsy? **A.** Abnormal gait **B.** Abnormal muscle tone **C.** Below-average IQ **D.** Loss of coordination **153.** Which of the following is NOT a common medication for controlling symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? **A.** Adderall **B.** Ritalin **C.** Clozaril **D.** Focalin **154.** Which of the following is not an example of a symptom of specific learning disorders that may include impairment in the ability to recognize and identify known objects through one or more senses? **A.** Agnosia **B.** Dyslexia **C.** Dysphasia **D.** Dysgraphia **155.** Which of the following is one of the uncorrected refractive errors? **A.** Presbyopia **B.** Cataracts **C.** Glaucoma **D.** Macular degeneration **156.** Which of the following is causing a hearing loss due to the damage along the auditory pathway or in the brain itself? **A.** Conductive **B.** Sensorineural **C.** Central **D.** Mixed **397** **157.** Which of the following accommodations is described as the design and composition of an environment that is accessed, understood, and used to the greatest possible extent, in the most independent and natural manner possible, in the widest possible range of situations, and without the need for adaptation, modification, assistive devices, or specialized solutions? **A.** Conditional access **B.** Assistive technology **C.** Universal design **D.** Specialized accommodation **158.** Which one of the following universal design principles is about avoiding segregation or stigmatizing any users and making the design appealing to all users? **A.** Simple and intuitive use **B.** Equitable use **C.** Flexible use **D.** Low physical effort **159.** Which one of the following universal design principles is about maximizing the legibility of essential information and providing compatibility with a variety of techniques or devices used by people with sensory limitations? **A.** Simple and intuitive use **B.** Equitable use **C.** Perceptible information **D.** Tolerance for error **160.** In which research design are participants randomly assigned to groups? **A.** Single-case experimental **B.** Independent groups **C.** Repeated measures **D.** Quasi-experimental designs **161.** Which one of the following methods is applying qualitative research? **A.** Laboratory experiments **B.** Longitudinal self-report outcome studies **C.** Cross-sectional studies **D.** Interviews **162.** A researcher looked for evidence from a systematic review or meta-analysis of all relevant randomized controlled trials (RCTs) or evidence-based clinical practice guidelines based on systematic reviews of RCTs or three or more RCTs of good quality that have similar results. Which level of evidence did the researcher look for? **A.** Level 1 **B.** Level 2 **C.** Level 3 **D.** Level 4 **398** **163.** A counselor found a study that reported the effect size of receiving rehabilitation counseling services was Cohen\'s *d* at 0.35, when compared with not receiving any services. Which of the following descriptions of effect size is correct? **A.** Small effect size **B.** Small to medium effect size **C.** Medium to large effect size **D.** Large effect size **164.** A study reported that the correlation between self-efficacy and motivation is at 0.8. Which of the following descriptions of effect size is correct? **A.** Small effect size **B.** Small to medium effect size **C.** Medium to large effect size **D.** Large effect size **165.** The process of seeking informed consent operationalizes the principle of: **A.** Justice **B.** Autonomy **C.** Beneficence **D.** Nonmaleficence **166.** The principle that promotes respect for persons is: **A.** Justice **B.** Autonomy **C.** Beneficence **D.** Nonmaleficence **167.** The principle that promotes fairness and equity is: **A.** Justice **B.** Autonomy **C.** Beneficence **D.** Nonmaleficence **168.** Which scale has an absolute zero point? **A.** Nominal **B.** Ordinal **C.** Interval **D.** Ratio **169.** In a set of scores, the lowest score subtracted from the highest score provides the: **A.** Variance **B.** Standard deviation **C.** Mean **D.** Range **399** **170.** When rehabilitation counselors communicate in ways that are both developmentally and culturally appropriate, this is referred to as what? **A.** Culturally informed **B.** Cultural sensitivity **C.** Cultural expertise **D.** Culturally open **171.** Which of the following counseling theories/orientations views one\'s current levels of distress as stemming from past experiences and/or the subconscious or unconscious? **A.** Client-centered therapy **B.** Gestalt **C.** Cognitive behavioral therapy **D.** Psychoanalysis **172.** Which of the following is generally characterized by feelings of sadness and sometimes accompanied by feelings of hopelessness or despair? **A.** Depression **B.** Cognitive distortion **C.** Rationalization **D.** Guilt **173.** A technique in motivational interviewing includes all of the following, EXCEPT: **A.** Open-ended questioning **B.** Affirmation **C.** Confrontation **D.** Summary statements **174.** You are facilitating a counseling group on the topic of disordered eating. You have been meeting for several weeks now, and group members seem to be more comfortable in opening up and sharing, and you sometimes perceive the group almost seems to be \"running itself.\" Slowly, you ease your way out of leading activities and structures in the group, yet still are present and alert to facilitate discussion. Which stage is the group most likely in? **A.** The initial stage **B.** The transition stage **C.** The working stage **D.** The final stage **400** **175.** Bruce decides to go out to eat on his lunch break. Lately he has had a hard time getting along with his boss, and at the restaurant he notices that his server appears to be in a bad mood. Bruce then starts to assume that there must be something wrong with him or that he is unlikeable. Drawing on some strategies he has learned in one of his group counseling sessions, he entertains the idea that perhaps there is nothing \"wrong\" with him. Maybe his boss and his server have just felt stressed out themselves lately. What type of coping has Bruce practiced? **A.** Appraisal-focused coping **B.** Emotion-focused coping **C.** Problem-focused coping **D.** Action-focused coping **176.** The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) can best be described as: **A.** An intelligence test **B.** A self-administered interest inventory based on Holland\'s Career Theory **C.** A standardized test measuring achievement and motivation **D.** A work sample **177.** Which of the following portrays the four main phases of customized employment? **A.** Discovery, assessment, job search planning, and job development. **B.** Job search planning, job development, job placement, and job carving. **C.** Discovery, job development, on-the-job training, and follow-along support. **D.** Assessment, job matching, job development, and job placement. **178.** Which of the following categories of services would typically include medical services, home-based rehabilitation, psychology and mental health, and dental care? **A.** Career and technical education services **B.** Rehabilitation and vocational services **C.** Healthcare and diagnostic services **D.** Community living resources **179.** Which of the following describes the variability or dispersion of the data in a particular distribution? **A.** Median **B.** Mode **C.** Mean **D.** Standard deviation **180.** True or false. Rehabilitation counselors are not equipped to conduct risk assessments. **A.** True **B.** False **181.** Regarding polytrauma injuries, which of the following is an example of a functional impairment? **A.** Shortness of breath **B.** Low frustration tolerance **C.** Memory issues **D.** Personality changes **401** **182.** In crisis and trauma counseling contexts, what does interdisciplinary care mean? **A.** When multiple medical and allied healthcare service providers collaborate together to provide comprehensive services to a client **B.** When a client receives one area of care at a time, then, when they and the provider agree that they have achieved their goals, they progress to the next service **C.** When one single agency/organization attempts to provide a broad range of services to the client in one setting **D.** Short-term, intensive psychological services that are provided to a client upon they have experienced a crisis or trauma **183.** BIFI stands for: **A.** Brain Injury Family Intervention **B.** Boston Interdisciplinary Forensics Investigations **C.** Brain Injury Financial Intervention **D.** Brief Integrated Family Intervention **184.** Which of the following is NOT one of the principles/core elements of employment services that rehabilitation counselors may provide to clients in crisis and trauma counseling? **A.** Flexible **B.** Individualized **C.** Collaborative with individual\'s family or other caregivers **D.** Traditional job placement **185.** True or false. When working with a client who is recovering from a crisis and/or trauma and they are consistently late, do not follow up on vocational plans, and often display poor hygiene, it is likely that they are not taking their services seriously and that the interventions are not working. **A.** True **B.** False **186.** Hybrid models in employment services for clients who have experienced a crisis and/or trauma have shown to be effective by combining individual placement and support (IPS) principles with what? **A.** Transitional employment services **B.** Sheltered workshops **C.** Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) **D.** Benefits counseling **402** **187.** Which of the following is NOT a reason why people with disabilities are disproportionately negatively impacted by inadequate disaster response plans? **A.** Those with physical disabilities may experience mobility barriers and require extra time to evacuate. **B.** Those with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be less capable of paying attention to evacuation instructions and thus be unsure of what to do when an evacuation is required. **C.** Those with intellectual disabilities may have difficulty understanding the meaning/seriousness of the alert and, therefore, not respond in a timely manner to a significant danger. **D.** All of the above **188.** Which of the following is accurate with respect to risk assessment during a mental health crisis? **A.** Risk assessments never involve structured questionnaires. **B.** Due to the intensity of the situation, suicidality is generally not discussed. **C.** Prior to the mental health or rehabilitation counseling intake interview, all potential clients must first \"clear\" a risk assessment survey before they can receive services. **D.** Risk assessments typically include identification of risk and protective factors, determination of risk level, and questions about suicidal thoughts or intent. **189.** A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a threat that is constant in a specific geographic area. **A.** Endemic **B.** Epidemic **C.** Pandemic **D.** Trepidemic **190.** How a counselor approaches a specific crisis intervention technique might depend on which of the following? **A.** The nature of the crisis **B.** The counselor\'s theoretical framework/orientation **C.** The counselor\'s professional background **D.** The resources that the counselor and client have access to **E.** All of the above **191.** Which of the following is NOT a goal of conducting a \"psychiatric triage\"? **A.** To determine the extent of and initial impact of a crisis on an individual **B.** To determine the risk of someone developing posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) **C.** To diagnose individuals with certain trauma-related disorders **D.** To assess an individual\'s lethality and/or risk for suicide following a crisis or trauma **192.** Which of the following is an example of an affective intervention? **A.** Helping a client to eliminate negative beliefs that may have contributed to a crisis **B.** Helping a client express feelings generated by a crisis **C.** Requiring the client to spend more time with other people **D.** Referring the client to an agency that can help alleviate financial problems **403** **193.** According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), which is true of an employee who is regarded as having a disability, but in fact does not actually have one? **A.** If an employer regards the employee as having a disability and treats them unfairly based on that (inaccurate) assessment, then the employee is protected under the ADA. **B.** If an employer regards the employee as having a disability and they actually do not, the employee is still entitled to reasonable accommodations. **C.** The ADA deals exclusively with people who actually have disabilities. There is no consideration concerning those \"regarded as\" having a disability. **D.** If an employer regards the employee as having a disability and treats them unfairly based on that (inaccurate) assessment, then the employee is protected and entitled to remedies, but only if the employer regards them as having a psychiatric disability. **194.** The \"miracle question\" typically belongs to which counseling theory/approach? **A.** Psychoanalytic **B.** Person-centered **C.** Solution-focused brief **D.** Existential **195.** Americans with disabilities have access to the same health insurance offerings as those without disabilities, yet people with disabilities: **A.** Tend to experience a higher prevalence of secondary conditions and access preventative care at lower rates than people without disabilities. **B.** Generally experience equal access to medical facilities. **C.** Are equally likely to experience communication barriers in interactions with healthcare providers. **D.** Are equally likely to experience problems in care coordination. **196.** The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act and the Healthcare and Education Reconciliation Act initiated reforms and expanded coverage provisions affecting many Americans with disabilities and chronic illnesses, including defining benefits that must be covered in individual and small group insurance plans. These included all but which of the following? **A.** Preventive and wellness services. **B.** Emergency services and hospitalization. **C.** Dental care for adults, acupuncture, and cosmetic surgery. **D.** Prescription drugs, mental health and substance use disorder services, and chronic disease management. **197.** According to the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA) of 2008, which of the following would be considered a mitigating measure that the ADAAA prohibits stakeholders from taking into account when determining whether an impairment substantially limits a major life activity? **A.** Eyeglasses or corrective lenses for someone with a visual impairment. **B.** An individual\'s perception of whether their impairment substantially limits a major life activity. **C.** An individual\'s age. **D.** The context/environment in which the impairment is assessed. **404** **198.** Which of the following is a hallmark feature of self-help/support groups? **A.** They are typically facilitated by psychologists and other mental health professionals. **B.** They provide the opportunity for individuals to have real-life work experiences and training. **C.** They provide in-depth vocational services to young adults who are transitioning from college to work. **D.** People can interact in a group setting to provide and receive support from other people who are navigating similar life experiences and difficulties. **199.** This type of group leader is often described as being \"laid-back,\" nondirective, or \"letting the group happen.\" **A.** Democratic **B.** Laissez-faire **C.** Authoritarian **D.** Dominant **200.** Which of the following is NOT typically a focus of rehabilitation counseling intake interviews? **A.** Discussing informed consent and confidentiality. **B.** Developing rapport. **C.** Providing information about the role and function of the agency. **D.** Interpreting the results of previously conducted medical, vocational, or psychological evaluations that the client previously completed. **ANSWER KEY** **1. B.** This Act has a focus on vocational education. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. There is no such Act. C. No. This Act has a focus on vocational rehabilitation services for World War I veterans. D. No. This Act has a focus on VR for civilians. **2. B.** It is a specific legislation for individuals with blindness. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. It is not the purpose of the Randolph-Sheppard Actof1936. C. No. It is not the purpose of the Randolph-Sheppard Act of 1936. D. No. It is not the purpose of the Randolph-Sheppard Act of 1936. **3. C.** This is true. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. This act makes VR a permanent program, but it is not the Act that expanded VR services to people with mental impairments. B. No. This act required the federal government to purchase designated products produced by persons with blindness in sheltered workshops. D. No. It mandated services for people with the most severe disabilities. **4. A.** The Vocational Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1954 provided funding to universities to train master\'s level rehabilitation counselors and resulted in the professionalization *of* rehabilitation counseling. **Incorrect Answers: B.** No. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 increased funding for rehabilitation and disability research. C. No. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 provided the most comprehensive civil rights protections for people with disabilities. D. No. The Workforce Investment Act of 1998 provided quality employment and training services. **5. A.** The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 established the National Institute of Handicapped Research instead of the National Institute of Health. **Incorrect Answers: B.** No. It was the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. C. No. It was the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. D. No. It was the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. **405** **6. D.** All of the above is true. Incorrect Answers: A. No. The other statements are also true. B. No. The other statements are also true. C. No. The other statements are also true. **7.** **D.** With the passage of the 1973 Rehabilitation Act Amendments emphasizing services to people with severe disabilities, the philosophy of rehabilitation has evolved from an \"economic-return\" philosophy to a \"disability rights\" philosophy. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is not true. B. No. This is not true. C. No. This is not true. **8.** C. Section 503 encourages federal contractors to achieve a 7% utilization goal. Federal contractors are defined by the 50-50 rule (at least 50 employees in the company and a contract amount of at least \$50,000). **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. Section 501 has a focus on discrimination. B. No. Section 502 created the U.S. Access Board to promote an accessible environment. D. No. Section 504 forbids organizations and employers from excluding or denying individuals with disabilities an equal opportunity to receive program benefits and services. **9. D.** Supported employment is a VR service available to both transition-age youth with disabilities and adults with disabilities. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a WIOA preemployment transition service. B. No. This is a preemployment transition service. C. No. This is a preemployment transition service. **10. E.** The goals of VR have been identified as (a) inclusion, (b) opportunity, (c) independence, (d) empowerment, (e) rehabilitation, and (f) quality life. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is one of the goals. B. No. This is one of the goals. C. No. This is one of the goals. D. No. This is one of the goals. **11. C.** Private contractors are not protected by the ADA. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is one of the five titles in the ADA. B. No. This is one of the five titles in the ADA. D. No. This is one of the five titles in the ADA. **12. B.** An impairment is only a \"disability\" under the ADA if it substantially limits ONE or more major life activities. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This statement is true. C. No. This statement is true. D. No. This statement is true. **13. A.** Independent living was not promulgated by the act. It is generally agreed that the goals of rehabilitation can be better achieved when there is maximum consumer involvement in the development, implementation, and use of VR services. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. Empowerment is central to the philosophy of contemporary rehabilitation practices. C. No. Self-determination is central to the philosophy of contemporary rehabilitation practices. D. No. Informed choice is central to the philosophy of contemporary rehabilitation practices. **14. C.** The IWRP was established during the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 and was replaced by the IPE during the Rehabilitation Act Amendment of 1998. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. The IWRP was established during the Rehabilitation Act of 1973. B. No. The ADA did not replace the IWRP with IPE. D. No. The TWWIIA did not replace the IWRP with IPE. **15. B.** The WIOA required state VR agencies to set aside at least 15% of their federal funds. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. The WIOA required state VR agencies to set aside at least 15% of their federal funds. C. No. The WIOA required state VR agencies to set aside at least 15% of their federal funds. D. No. The WIOA required state VR agencies to set aside at least 15% of their federal funds. **16. D.** In carrying out the multifaceted process of rehabilitation counseling, rehabilitation counselors must be prepared to assist individuals in adapting to the environment, assist environments in accommodating the needs of the individuals, and work toward the full participation of individuals in all aspects of society, with a particular focus on independent living and work. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a primary function. B. No. This is a primary function. C. No. This is a primary function. **17. B.** This is not the basic objective. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a basic objective. C. No. This is a basic objective. D. No. This is a basic objective. **406** **18. C.** Counselors\' qualifications, credentials, and relevant experience of rehabilitation counseling should be included in the professional disclosure, yet the official transcript is not necessary. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. It is one of the client rights listed in the CRC Code of Ethics. B. No. It is one of the client rights listed in the CRC Code of Ethics. D. No. It is one of the client rights listed in the CRC Code of Ethics. **19. D.** Client confidentiality is the requirement that therapists, psychiatrists, psychologists, and most other mental health professionals protect their client\'s privacy by not revealing the contents of therapy. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. Privileged communication is an interaction between two parties in which the law recognizes a private, protected relationship. B. No. Advocacy is not confidentiality. C. No. Cultural sensitivity is not confidentiality. **20.** **A.** This is the case that established the \"duty to protect or duty to warn\" exception to confidentiality. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. This case has a focus on psychotherapist-patient privilege and confidential communication. C. No. This case seeks review of a decision that extends California\'s duty to warn statute from communications from the patient to the therapist to include communications about the patient from a third party. D. No. There is no such case. **21. D.** This model, introduced by Tarvydas et al. (2015), is composed of four interactive elements that facilitate client participation in the process of ethical decision-making. Specifically, these elements are ethical knowledge and practices, the therapeutic alliance or relationship, client involvement, and client empowerment. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. This is one of the four elements. B. No. This is one of the four elements. C. No. This is one of the four elements. **22. A.** This is true. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. This is the definition of informed choice. C. No. This is the definition of self-determination. D. No. This is the definition of rehabilitation counseling. **23. D.** According to the CRC Code, disclosure at the onset of the counseling relationship should minimally include (a) the qualifications, credentials, and relevant experience of the rehabilitation counselor; (b) purposes, goals, techniques, limitations, and the nature of potential risks and benefits of services; (c) frequency and length of services; (d) confidentiality and limitations regarding confidentiality (including how a supervisor and/or treatment team professional is involved); (e) contingencies for the continuation of services upon the incapacitation or death of the rehabilitation counselor; (f) fees and billing arrangements; (g) record preservation and release policies; (h) risks associated with electronic communication; and (i) legal issues affecting services. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. It is one of the examples. B. No. It is one of the examples. C. No. It is one of the examples. **24. C.** It is not an acceptable disclosure. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. It is an acceptable disclosure. B. No. It is an acceptable disclosure. D. No. It is an acceptable disclosure. **25. B.** Rehabilitation counselors can administer vocational assessment for the purpose of career counseling but not the psychological assessment. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is one of the job functions. C. No. This is one of the job functions. D. No. This is one of the job functions. **26.** **C.** This is used widely across all chronic health conditions, include psychiatric conditions as many health conditions are responsive to lifestyle changes and through active engagement in the healthcare process by the individual and their healthcare support community. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is one of the main reasons to teach individuals the skills of illness self-management along with a reduced impact on emergency health services and fewer medical costs related to health management. B. No. This is a major feature of illness self-management as it is a collaborative process between the individual, the medical provider, and the larger support network. D. No. This is true as IMR is considered an evidence-based standardized intervention that was developed to help individuals with psychiatric illness move through their recovery process and be less dominated by their psychiatric symptoms. **27.** **B.** This is false and is the exception. All rehabilitation counselors should be prepared to work with individuals with PTSD, be familiar with the interventions, and provide services from a **407** trauma-informed perspective. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. EMDR is controversial but has been showing efficacy for the treatment of PTSD. C. No. This is true as SIT is an effective treatment for persons with PTSD and is used to prepare an individual for future stressful situations. D. No. This is not an exception but is a true statement. TF-CBT has been used to treat all types of trauma, including children with past history of sexual abuse. **28. D.** SFBT uses techniques to get an individual to consider times when problems are not present and the reasons why (exception question) and to articulate a desirable future where their current problems do not exist, in order to help the client find answers to their own problems. Incorrect Answers: A. No. Relationship questions are used as part of the counseling intervention if there are problems related to the client\'s relationship, and the intervention assumes the significant others will notice a change in the client. B. No. This is a false statement as the heart of SFBT is that with some support, clients have the answers to their own solutions to their problems. C. No. SFBT does not try to uncover the cause of the issue, or diagnosis, but tries to solve the issue within a few counseling sessions. **29. D.** This is not a true statement; in fact, the recognition of conflicts, values, and other competing interests that may create a barrier to their rehabilitation goals are explored with MI. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is an important principle of MI. B. No. This is an important principle in MI and central to getting clients to be aware of their barriers and commitment to their goals. C. No. These are fundamental to the MI process, and counselors must not fight the client\'s resistance but instead are there to help clients develop the skills and confidence needed to reach their personal goals through MI techniques. **30. D.** It is a lifelong learning process where we check our biases, be open to learning about other cultures, and value cultural differences as an important part of our counseling practice and skill development. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. It was developed to integrate the experiences of marginalized people of color in our understanding of behavior and counseling applications as a response to a traditional myopic and discriminatory view that only used a Western/European lens to understand human behavior. B. No. When practicing from a multicultural counseling framework, the client\'s identity is central to understanding their perspectives and influences the counseling relationship. Advocacy, discrimination, issues of power, and social justice are directly addressed in counseling. C. No. Regardless of cultural differences, counselors should work to understand how the client\'s culture and unique identity, including intersectional identities, will influence their counseling relationship and their presenting issues. Counselors must integrate the understanding of a client\'s culture in working with a client who is culturally different from the counselor. **31. B.** This is a false statement as it is a strength-based model that capitalizes on the individual\'s strengths, capabilities, and assets rather than focusing on their deficits or limitations. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a true statement about empowerment counseling as it improves ones\' sense of political, personal, and interpersonal empowerment as they improve their life situation. C. No. This is true, and the client\'s skills and knowledge are acknowledged and used to empower the client during sessions. D. No. This is a true statement; if the client wishes to do so, they will be supporting in making not only individual behavioral changes but be empowered to make larger system-level changes. **32. C.** According to person-centered counseling, the therapist needs to be their genuine self (within their professional boundaries) and be integrated into a counseling relationship with the client. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a necessary condition according to person-centered therapy and to engage in the counseling process. B. No. According to the person-centered therapy, this is the reason why the client is engaged in the therapy. Usually, there is some level of psychological distress, and relief is sought by the counselor. D. No. These are the conditions according to PCT. **33. B.** This is a false statement as Gestalt is interested in unifying the whole person and the interrelationship between their perceptions, thoughts, feeling, sensations, and emotions. Incorrect **408** **Answers:** A. No. This is true about the assumption behind existential therapy. C. No. This is true as the main focusing technique is to focus on the present moment and the past is only visited if it helps the individual focus more on the present moment. D. No. This is true as behavioral therapy uses a set of rewards and punishment to increase or decrease adaptive or maladaptive behaviors. **34. D.** This is not the correct definition. Projection is a defense mechanism that externalizes our own unconscious, needs, or an unacceptable impulse and ascribes them onto another person. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is a term that accurately describes a technique used in behavioral therapy. B. No. This is an accurate definition of token economies, and the token can also be used to buy more desirable reinforcers and is often used in very structured environments and institutions of care. C. No. This is a good definition of the superego and is a true statement. **35. B.** This is true according to Erikson\'s theory and includes sexual identity, gender identity, and racial identity development. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is an important developmental task for all school-age children, and if the child\'s health condition or disability is impacting their ability to do well in school, we must address these difficulties by advocating for support and services in order to avoid further impact on the child\'s school self-efficacy and emotional development. C. No. This is one of the important psychosocial milestones along with the development of long-term romantic relationships. D. No. Mastery in their careers, personal satisfaction, economic stability, and family stability as well as thinking about future retirement are important psychosocial considerations for persons in middle adulthood. **36. B.** Working alliance or therapeutic alliance is a common factor that includes the counselor\'s ability to work collaboratively with the client to achieve their goals and the counselor\'s empathetic response to the client can lead to the accomplishment of tasks and goals in therapy. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. They are similar and include conditions coined by Rogers such as genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathetic understanding. C. No. Common factors account for up to 70% of the therapeutic effects of counseling and are considered the most important factor contributing to counseling efficacy. D. No. Treatment and interventions should be highly customized and attuned to the changing needs of the client. **37. D.** This is not considered a counseling microskill but is an intervention specific to behavioral therapy. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. This is a basic microskill used in counseling. B. No. This is a basic microskill used in counseling. C. No. This is a basic microskill used in counseling. **38. A.** This is a method of explicitly tracking verbal communication and what is being said. This is the exception. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. This is a form of nonverbal communication and what is being communicated through their eye contact, a lack of eye contact, or averting the eyes when speaking of difficult topics may provide additional information about the client\'s experience. Eye contact is also culturally informed and can be easily misinterpreted and must be careful to misinterpret a \"lack of eye contact\" as a psychological symptom when it could be a sign of respect in some cultures. C. No. This is considered nonverbal communication and the way the individual sits in a chair (e.g., with arms crossed, slumped in a chair, fidgeting in a chair, pacing a room, slumped shoulders) can provide some information about the client\'s affect or reaction to the counseling experience or topic at hand. D. No. The intonations in an individual\'s speech, the rate of speech, and how they may slow down to articulate a concept are nonverbal forms of communication. **39. B.** If a counselor is court-ordered to breach confidentiality, the counselor must share confidential information, including records in a legal proceeding. **Incorrect Answers: A.** No. The parent has to a parent of a minor and/or a parent of persons living with psychiatric or intellectual disability may obtain information about their child, but it is best practice to get a release of information. C. No. The client has a right to the details of their counseling to be kept private and confidential, and the counselor must follow their code of ethics when they feel they must breach the confidentiality and must be for good reason. D. No. The counselor is a mandated reporter, **409** and if the client is not willing to seek additional support/help, the counselor will need to report to authorities to ensure the safety of their client. **40. A.** This is false as the supervision should include activities and discussions that facilitate the professional and professional development in the supervisee and provide consultation on client cases. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. This is true as part of the supervision time may be spent helping the supervisee conceptualize client cases from a biopsychosocial perspective and then help them formulate a psychosocial intervention to increase the client\'s functioning through appropriate rehabilitation services. C. No. These are true and represent typical supervisory activities. D. No. This is an accurate description of a type of clinical supervision called group supervision. **41. A.** Carl Jung believed that all cultures have common themes and stories that compose a deeper, ancestral level of a person\'s psyche. **Incorrect Answers:** B. No. This is a term used by Kohut and self-psychology theory. C. No. This is associated with Adler\'s theory and refers to the unobtainable but desired goals that sometimes drive behavior. D. No. This is not a Jungian theory and refers to an internal image of a person or \"object\" that is the target of the person\'s feelings or intentions. **42. D.** This is an important component of CBT. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. Faulty thinking is thought to be the root cause of psychological distress in CBT. B. No. Psychoeducation is part of the intervention and is a precursor to skill development in CBT. C. No. Self-monitoring of negative thoughts or \"self-talk\" is an important component of CBT. **43. D.** This is false as D refers to the responsibility of the counselor to dispute the irrational beliefs and assist the client in developing new adaptive beliefs. E is the step during which the client develops new behavioral and emotional consequences. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is true and the first step of the intervention. B. No. This is true and is the second step in the intervention. C. No. This is true and is the third step in the intervention. **44. D.** This is the best description of EBP in rehabilitation counseling. **Incorrect Answers:** A. No. This is false and does not describe EBP as it moves away from anecdotal types of c

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