NFPA 1072 (2017) HazMat Operations PDF
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Uploaded by AltruisticKrypton
Lambton College
2017
NFPA
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Summary
This document is a past paper from an examination about hazmat operations. It contains multiple-choice questions covering topics such as hazard identification, emergency response, and safety procedures. The questions cover various aspects of hazmat operations, from initial assessment to identifying appropriate protective gear. This test focuses on understanding the procedures of managing hazardous material incidents and would be suitable for professional certification examination.
Full Transcript
# NFPA 1072 (2017) HazMat Operations (The OFM test is 50 multiple choice questions. A pass is 70%) ## Multiple Choice Questions 1. What reference book aids emergency responders to initially identify specific hazards during the initial phase? - First Responder Manual - Handbook of Hazard...
# NFPA 1072 (2017) HazMat Operations (The OFM test is 50 multiple choice questions. A pass is 70%) ## Multiple Choice Questions 1. What reference book aids emergency responders to initially identify specific hazards during the initial phase? - First Responder Manual - Handbook of Hazardous Materials - Emergency Response Guidebook - Fire Protection Handbook 2. Form the list below, which occupancy or locations would be a possible target for terrorism? - Strip malls - Nursing homes - Hospitals - Infrastructures 3. Emergency centres such as ____ are agencies that provide immediate technical assistance to emergency responders during hazardous materials incidents. - Office of the Fire Marshal - National Fire Protection Association - National Centre for Disease Control - CANUTEC 4. Permeation: - Is the physical damage from a chemical - Is the time for chemical to move through suit - occurs on a molecular level - Is the movement of material through closures 5. What is the initial part of assessment? - Calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident - Recognizing the presence of hazardous materials - Determining the appropriate actions to be taken recommended by the Emergency Response Guidebook - Securing the area of the emergency 6. CANUTEC is available ____ hours per day to provide information about ____. - 24, certain chemicals - 24, many chemicals - During normal business, only liquid chemicals - During normal business, selected chemicals 7. Beta particles: - Have weight and mass - Are ionizing radiation like X-rays - Are deadly radiation - Are large particles that easily pass-through protective gear 8. A tank carrier designed to carry flammable liquids, combustible liquids and liquid food products with vapour pressures up to 28 KPa (4 psi), is an: - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331/DOT 407 9. What information should a responder provide during notification? - Cost estimate for cleanup - Name of supervisor - Container type - Name of the hospital receiving patients 10. At radiological incidents involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination? - lonizing radiation, non-iodizing radiation, half-life - Time, distance, half-life - Time, distance, shielding - Alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays 11. A substance that spontaneously releases ionizing radiation is labeled hazard classification ____. - 7 - 2 - 6 - 5 12. What type of material can be extremely toxic and is considered to be a hazardous material is? - Poison - Pressurized gas - Organic waste - Inert gas 13. When contacting CANUTEC, the caller should be prepared to provide the: - Name of the site manager at the facility - Type of container or vehicle - Names of the responders - Number of casualties 14. What type of radiation is least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous if ingested or inhaled? - Alpha - Ultraviolet - Electromagnetic - Gamma 15. What hazard class is represented by the placard illustration below is: - Radioactive - Poison gas - Biological - Corrosive 16. CHEMTREC and CANUTEC can usually provide: - Authorization for cleanup - Previous incidents and exposures - Technical information - Advice on remediation contractors 17. Cryogenic materials are carried in what road trailer? - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 331 - MC 338 18. Biological etiologic agents and toxins are designated as Hazard Class: - 3 - 6 - 7 - 1 19. What warning indicators should a responder be alerted to during a suspected terrorist event? - Several people with minor injuries - Public gathering - Placard containers - Secondary devices 20. The V-shaped road trailer pictures below is a ____ trailer. - Low-pressure - High-pressure - Dry bulk - Cryogenic 21. Which one of the following is a characteristic of a compressed gas tube trailer? - The manifold or valve control box is enclosed at the rear - It has temporary markings for the material or ownership - It carries liquefied gases - It carries only non-flammable gases 22. A hazardous materials first responder may obtain appropriate Safety Data Sheet information from: - Computer-Aided Management of Emergency Operations - The National Response Centre - Occupational Safety and Health Administration - The employer of the facility 23. Flammable range refers to: - Weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water - Percentage of gas or vapour concentration in air - Minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off vapours - Minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off enough vapours to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface 24. The area just outside the hot/exclusion zone is the: - Warm zone - Command zone - Support zone - Staging zone 25. What would be the major concern if you were to respond to a leaking tanker of the type pictured below? - Frost Bite - Ignition of vapours - Encountering corrosives - Encountering bulk solids 26. Neutron radiation is: - Highly penetrating - Commonly used in commercial and industrial operations - Easy to measure in the field - Usually found in common pharmacies 27. The temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas is called it's: - Flash point - Ignition temperature - Vapour density - Boiling point 28. With mass decontamination: - A minimum of 2 pumpers are required to perform mass decontamination - A nozzle flowing at least 662 L/min (175 GPM) is required - All victims must go through dry decontamination prior to wet decontamination - Each agency should adopt a Standard Operating Guideline for mass decontamination 29. Firefighters need to recognize that ____ rays are the most dangerous type of radiation. - Alpha - Beta - Electromagnetic - Gamma 30. Where would be the least likely location for terrorist activities to occur? - Public assembly - Mass transit systems 31. What must be done with contaminated evidence? - An investigator must retrieve it - Must document chain of custody - It must be quarantined of at least 24 hours - It must be immediately brought to the cold zone 32. What is heat exhaustion associated with? - Cold - Cold and clammy skin - Muscle cramps in legs and abdomen - State of unconsciousness 33. When a hazardous material incident involves a leaking flammable substance, the firefighter should immediately remove all: - Ignition sources - Upwind ignition sources - Large combustible tanks - Fire equipment and personnel 34. Non-insulated, single-shell road trailers pictured below, which carries gases that have been liquefied, are identified as: - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331 35. What type of reaction is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less? - Rapid relief - Boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion - Crack - Low pressure release 36. Citizens being sheltered in place should be directed to: - Close all heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning systems - Open windows for air exchange - Keep all heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning systems running - Periodically open the doors to relieve the pressure 37. What is required on a pipeline marker? - Pipeline owner's phone number - Size of pipeline - Pipeline depth underground - Name of emergency responder agency 38. What material may be transported in a carboy? - Radioactive substances - Corrosives - Hydrocarbons - Poison gases 39. ____ products may cause severe chemical burns and extensive tissue damage. - Corrosive - Radioactive - Carcinogenic - Etiologic 40. Contaminates that pose an immediate threat to life should be removed by: - Emergency decontamination - Secondary decontamination - Decontamination - Primary decontamination 41. What is the proper road trailer to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid? - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331 42. What type of event should raise the responders awareness about possible terrorism involvement? - Warehouse fire - Tanker truck accident - Ruptured drum - Mass casualty incident 43. ____ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration. - Explosives - Carcinogens - Irritants - Asphyxiants 44. Responders are protected from ____ with structural firefighting gear and self-contained breathing apparatus. - Gamma particles - Neutrons - Beta particles - Atom particles 45. Which are signs and symptoms of body irritants? - White vapour cloud - Unexplained skin, eye, or airway irritation - Metallic taste - Unequal pupils 46. Which of the following is considered a Hazard Class 4 product? - Flammable gas - Flammable solid - Oxidizing substances - Flammable liquid 47. ____ are identified by their single manhole assembly protected by a flash box and roll-over protection, as shown in the picture below. - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331 48. Which factor should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement? - Occupancy - Location of caller - Time of day - Day of week 49. What is a physical limitation of working in a positive pressure self- contained breathing apparatus? - Added weight of the unit - Noise - Contacts - Height and weight 50. What organization provides an emergency call centre for first responders at a hazmat emergency? - Product manufacturer - The Local Emergency Planning Committee - CANUTEC - OFMEM 51. ____ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapours to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface. - Combustion point - Ignition point - Flash point - Fire point 52. Who provides an emergency call center for Canadian first responders at a hazmat emergency? - CHEMTREC - CANFLOW - CANUTEC - Occupational Safety and Health Administration 53. What needs to be documented when completing decontamination? - Substances involved in the incident and level of personal protective equipment - The attorney firm for the accused offender - The age of the responders - The name of law enforcement present - The clean-up process utilized in recovery phase 54. What is a specialized intermodal tank container which transports gases in high-pressure cylinders called? - Tube module/trailer - Cryogenic intermodal tank - IM 101 - IM 102 55. What do you call cylindrical packages made of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids? - Carboys - Drums - Pressurized cylinders. - Bins 56. After extinguishing a small fire, in a vacant building, you discover chemicals and glass jars, this evidence may indicate: - Bomb making - Drug making - Warfare agent research - Terrorism agent production 57. Chemicals that can cause a severe allergic reaction are classified as: - Asphyxiants - Sensitizers - Irritants - Convulsants 58. Water solubility is defined as the: - Degree to which a substance will mix with water - Percentage of an acid or base dissolved in water - Measure of a substance's tendency to deteriorate another substance - Ratio of the weight of a volume of liquid or solid to the weight of an equal volume of water 59. Of the following, which is considered a biological agent? - Lewisite - Phosgene - V-agent - Anthrax 60. Hazard Classification 4 containers contain: - Explosives - Flammable gases - Flammable solids - Flammable liquid 61. Taking in hazardous materials through the skin or eyes is the process of ____. 62. When shipping radioactive materials, the placard: - Displays a number, the higher the number the more radiation is emitted - Has a red and white striped background - Lists the number for CANUTEC - Describes the level of personal protective equipment required to handle the materials 63. The acronym SLUDGEM describes the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the categories of warfare agents? - Nerve agents - Nuclear agents - Vaccines - Biological agents 64. The chemical action when chemicals, on a molecular level, move through intact materials is: - Degradation - Breakthrough time - Penetration - Permeation 65. What are materials such as benzene, asbestos, and arsenic? - Corrosives - Convulsants - Irritants - Carcinogens 66. Shown below and pictured from the rear, a liquid carrier has an elliptical shape. This shape indicates what type of carrier? - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 331 67. Which category of warfare agents do blister agents belong in? - Biological - Incendiary - Chemical - Explosive 68. When a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment the process is referred to as: - Degradation - Breakthrough time - Penetration - Permeation 69. Poisons that can be harmful if inhaled, swallowed, absorbed, or introduced into the body are called? - Asphyxiants - Corrosives - Toxic - Viruses 70. You are on scene of a gasoline tank truck that is leaking into a lake. The truck driver produces a Safety Data Sheet for gasoline, which gives a specific gravity of 0.8. You can predict that the product will: - Remain on top of the water - Sink to the bottom of the lake - Mix with the water and no longer be a hazard - React violently with water 71. Which of the following statements is most true regarding victims at chemical or biological incidents? - Victims have lost control of their bowels-you suspect a nerve agent - Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne whitepowder a few days earlier--you suspect a biological agent - Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses anddifficulty breathing--you suspect a biological agent - Victims have lost control of their bowels--you suspect a nerve agent. Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier-you suspect a biological agent 72. The remote shut off on a MC/DOT 306/406 is located at the: - Left front corner - Right front corner - Top right corner - Left rear corner 73. Which of the following are true? - Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agenWX. The most toxic, least volatile nerve agent is V agenWX - The least toxic, least volatile nerve agent is V agenWX - Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapour pressure. The most toxic, most volatile nerve agent is Anthrax - None of these are true 74. Reusable personal protective equipment must be: - Immediately disposed of - Bagged and tagged - Avoided - Inspected and tested at regular intervals 75. Ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident could include: - Chemical light sticks - Battery operated equipment - Natural fiber rope - Contaminated water 76. How would a responder determine the concentrations of a released hazardous material in an endangered area? - Concentrations can be estimated using the Emergency Response Guide - Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that Haz Mat technicians are needed to operate this equipment - It is impossible to determine concentrations of hazardous materials - Concentrations can be estimated by the odor of the leaking product 77. If a product with a vapour density of 1.3 escaped from its container, you would expect the product to: - Collect in low-lying areas - Float on water - Rapidly dissipate if outdoors - Sink in water 78. Evacuating means: - Allowing only first responders into the affected area - Having people remain inside a building rather than moving them to another area - Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area - Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area 79. Responders collecting hazardous information at an emergency incident, could contact: - The Department of Homeland Security - CANUTEC - The National Fire Protection Association - The Occupational Safety and Health Administration 80. On what type of transportation container would you expect to find a specification plate: - Cargo tank truck - Rail car - Aircraft transport container - Cargo ship 81. A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is a MC 312/DOT 412 road trailer. Most likely carrying a: - Flammable liquid - Corrosive liquid - Poison gas - Flammable solid 82. Which of the following should be documented when performing product control? - Documenting the incident - Size up report - Progress report - CANUTEC conversation 83. The cargo tank pictured below is a: - MC 331 - MC 338 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 306/DOT 406 84. Which statement is most accurate? - There are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship). Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers. - Cryogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are too unstable. Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers. - Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers. - None are true. 85. The road trailer in the photo below is a: - MC331 - MC 338 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 306/DOT 406 86. Packaging used for transport with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment is: - Not excepted - Excepted - Certified - Illegal 87. An asphyxiation hazard: - Includes poisons and corrosives - Includes exposure to a microorganism or its toxin - Can lead to suffocation - Incudes excessive heat or excessive cold 88. A road trailer that carries corrosive liquids, generally acids, and has a narrow diameter with external ribbing, as pictured below is a: - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331 89. Redirecting the flow of a hazardous liquid away from an area, is the process of ____. - Absorption - Dispersion - Diversion - Retention 90. Rail cars that have a cylindrical tank and a covered dome containing all the fittings and valves, are classified as ____ rail cars. - Non-pressure - Cryogenic liquid tank - Pressure tank - Dry bulk tank 91. What is defined by the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapours to form an ignitable mixture with air? - Ignition temperature - Autoignition temperature - Flash point - Reactivity point 92. What zone is the area of highest hazard? - Limited access - Hot/exclusion - Support - Cold 93. What types of large tanks have hemispherical heads on both ends? - Cryogenic liquid - Corrosive liquid - Dry bulk - High pressure 94. Chemicals that ignite when combined create ____ what type of reaction? - Hyperbolic - Exothermic - Congenial - Cryogenic 95. Upon arrival at a hazardous materials or suspected hazardous materials incident the first step or most important thing to accomplish is: - Identification of the spilled or released product - Victim recovery - Notification of the hazardous materials response team - Isolation of the area and prevention of entry 96. An MC 307/DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed ____ KPa (psi). - 14 (3.0) - 517 (75.0) - 241-275 (35-40) - 138-207 (20-30) 97. What tank car is designed to carry low-pressure, refrigerated liquids at -90°C (-130°F) and below? - Non-pressure or low-pressure tank car - Pressure or high-pressure tank car - Hopper tank car - Cryogenic liquid tank car 98. When sheltering in-place the responder must ensure ____. - All windows are closed - A water curtain is established - They use positive pressure to protect the structure - The heating, ventilation, air conditioning system remains operating. 99. Level A suits are designed to protect the responder from the effects of: - All hazardous materials - Any exposure to nuclear agents - Vapours and gases - Bomb explosions no closer than 10 meters (30 feet) 100. Where should you find a progress and incident status report? - Debriefing plan - Accountability report - Incident action plan - Claims from 101. What information must be included on a pipeline marker? - Destination of the product - CANUTEC phone number - Owner of the pipeline - Precautionary warnings 102. Hazardous materials that enter the body through undamaged skin and the eyes are a result of: - Absorption - Ingestion - Inhalation - Injection 103. Which mandatory information is found on a pesticide label? - Pest Control Products Act registration number - Flammability level - National Fire Protection Association 704 data - CANUTEC phone number 104. A hazmat scene should be approached: - By the most direct route to the scene - From downwind as this will allow you to detect any odors from a greater distance from the scene - From uphill and upwind even if it requires a longer response time - With vehicles staged downhill and upwind until the Hazmat team arrives 105. Heat ____ occurs when the circulatory system begins to fail, resulting in rapid, shallow breathing and cool, clammy skin. - Cramps - Exhaustion - Rash - Stroke 106. What information do pipeline markers contain? - Isolation perimeter recommendations - Owner/phone number/product - Emergency medical care - Recommended method of decontamination 107. Select the most correct answer. - Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is able to dissipate excessive heat - Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature-regulating capacity of the body - Both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions - Both A and B 108. What road trailer has an inner tank with an outer shell and is well insulated? - Flammable liquid - Cryogenic 109. On a pesticide label which is a required signal word? - Beware - Warning - Toxic - Harmful 110. Which type of PPE is most commonly used when dealing with a chemical liquid? - Level C - Structural firefighting clothing - Splash protective clothing - Proximity suit 111. At a bomb threat event, first responders implementing tactical activities should: - Stage in the line-of-sight path of the suspected device - Use only one radio when near the device - Be alert for secondary devices - Move the device away from primary exposures 112. The elapsed time between initial contact of a chemical with the outside surface of the chemical protective suit and detection at the inside surface of the material is: - Degradation - Breakthrough time - Penetration - Permeation 113. IBC stands for: - Intermodal bulk container - International bulk container - Intermediate bulk container - Intermediate biological container 114. The rail car pictured below is a: - Non-pressure tank car with expansion dome - Cryogenic tank car - Pressure tank car - Spec 51 Intermodal car 115. A road trailer designed to haul various chemicals whose pressures are less than 241 KPа (35 psi) would be a: - MC 306/DOT 406 - MC 307/DOT 407 - MC 312/DOT 412 - MC 331 116. With Level A suits, the self-contained breathing apparatus is ____. - Worn inside the personal protective equipment - Worn outside the personal protective equipment - Worn intermittently - Donned last 117. What type of packaging contains low-level commercial radioactive shipments in cardboard boxes, wooden crates, and metal drums. 118. Which is an operational component that should be considered prior to use when using air purifying respirators? - The supplied airline cannot exceed 100 meters (300 feet) - The appropriate cartridge/filter - The filters are only usable for less than 30 minutes - Ambient air must contain at least 18.5% oxygen 119. Road trailers that operate with working pressures of up to 34,474 KPa (5000 psi) piping are: - Compressed gas tube trailers - High pressure trailers - Cryogenic trailers - Corrosive liquid trailers 120. Which is a characteristic of cryogenic liquid intermodal, IMO type 7, containers: - Non-pressure tanks that are highly insulated - Atmospheric pressure non-insulated tanks - Very low-pressure highly insulated tanks - Diverse in pressure ratings as high as 4,137 KPa (600 psi) 121. In an oxygen deficient atmosphere ____ cannot be utilized. - A supplied-air respirator - Rebreather equipment - An air-purification respirator - Self-contained breathing apparatus 122. You have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. On one of the pesticide labels, you notice the statement "Keep away from children." This statement is the: - Signal Words - EPA Statement - Precautionary Statement - Danger Statement 123. What container type is used to ship materials of radioactivity by air? - 1 - A - Type C - 3 124. Requiring immediate medical attention ____ is a true life-threatening emergency. - Heat exhaustion - Heat stroke - Heat stress - Heat cramps 125. What does the term shelter-in-place mean? - Keeping everyone not directly involved in the emergency operation away from the affected area - Allowing only first responders into the affected area - Moving everyone from a threatened area to a safer area - Having people remain inside a building 126. You have arrived on the scene of a hazardous materials incident involving pesticides. On a pesticide bag the label reads, "Keep away from children." This statement is the: - Signal Words - EPA Statement - Precautionary Statement - Danger Statement 127. When responding to a terrorism incident, you should be aware that: - The incident may have taken place in a high crime area, so they should wait for the police before taking any action - The terrorist may be on the scene waiting for responders to arrive before striking again - The terrorist will not intentionally target responders, so they should consider the scene safe except for any hazardous materials present - Scene control at criminal incidents is solely the responsibility of law enforcement so they should focus on other activities 128. Which of the following is a type of drum that may be used to store hazardous materials? - Snare - Wood barrels - Open heads - Bulk Containers 129. Cryogenic liquid tanks have: 130. What could be considered potential ignition sources found at the scene of hazardous materials incidents? - Radios and flashlights - Contaminated water - Cylume sticks - Inert gas 131. What is the design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank? - 100 KPa - 175 KPa (14.5 psi - 25.4 psi) - 690 KPa - 3500 KPa (100 psi - 500 psi) - 175 KPa - 689 KPa (25.4psi - 100 psi) - 50 KPa - 100 KPa (6.89 - 14.5 psi) 132. Which of the following is true? - Vapour dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intentionally move vapours away from certain areas - Vapour dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem - Vapour dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble. - Both A and C 133. Firefighting standard structural ensembles including self-contained breathing apparatus is adequate for which chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high yield explosives incident? - Permeation - Gamma radiation - Beta radiation - Incendiaries 134. Rail cars with stenciled names on their sides are generally: - Coded cars - Pressurized cars - Dedicated cars - Gas-carrying cars 135. During an incident involving the release of a hazardous material, responders take ____ to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public. 136. What types of rail cars have exposed fittings? - Non-pressure or low-pressure tank - Hopper - Pressure or high-pressure tank - Cryogenic liquid tank 137. Repeated exposure to a chemical over a long period of time may cause: - Etiological changes - Chronic health problems - Acute health problems - Chemical asphyxia 138. When determining the type of dam to use to control a spill, you need to consider the: - Specific gravity of the material - Vapour density of the fluid - Vapour suppression of the liquid - Retention capabilities 139. The Emergency Response Plan (IAP) should identify: - Personal protective equipment and emergency response equipment - Legal liability limitations - Law enforcement responsibilities - Reimbursement procedures 140. Which statement is true with regard to the proper procedure for dilution of a spill? - Flush the material into a waterway - Fuels, oils, and other hydrocarbons are readily diluted with water - Dilution may be effective when combined with other containment tactics - Dilute aggressively for best results 141. What must be done with contaminated evidence? - An investigator must retrieve it - Must document chain of custody - It must be quarantined of at least 24 hours - It must be immediately brought to the cold zone 142. What must pipeline-vent markers include? - Poison control phone number - Dates and times of pipeline activation - Name and number for responding agency - Product name, and phone number of owners 143. What is the zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur and requires established entry and exit control points? - Warm/contamination reduction zone - Hot/exclusion zone - Safety/cold zone - Cold/support zone 144. An air-cooling system with small airlines providing blowing cool air over the body inside a suit or vest. - Radiant - Conductive - Recirculating - Convective 145. What hazard class are toxic gases? - 1.1 - 1.2 - 6.1 - 2.3 146. Evacuation at a Level III incident will include evacuating people: - For several square blocks - On a large scale - One Kilometer upwind - One block in each direction 147. The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, wear or temperature is: - Degradation - Penetration - Permeation - Diffusion 148. At Weapons of Mass Destruction events, you should: - Cordon all involved victims together with the responders - Avoid touching anything not critical to the operation - Personally, interview as many victims as possible - Be escorted by law enforcement to the decontamination corridor 149. Decontamination of firefighters or victims using water and soap is the process of: - Dilution - Adsorption - Absorption - Neutralization 150. Pesticide labels for materials originating in Canada, the product will have a ____ which is like the Environmental Protection Agency registration number in the United States. - Pest control product number - Poison control number - Department of Transportation (DOT) hazard class number - United Nations (UN) identification number 151. The general routes of entry into the body for a hazardous material are: - Inhalation, ingestion, radiation, and injection - Injection, infection, radiation, and adsorption - Inhalation, ingestion, absorption, and injection - Absorption, dilution, injection, and ingestion 152. When a hazardous material responder gives the hand signal of placing their hands across the throat, it indicates: - A vision problem - An air problem - They are okay - A hazardous atmosphere 153. Cracking, charring, and discoloration are examples of ____ to a chemical garment. - Penetration - Degradation - Discontinuation - Disintegration 154. What products do IM 101 intermodal portable tanks typically carry? - Molten sulfur - Flammable gases - Flammable liquids - Radioactive materials 155. The primary hazard to responders rescuing victims from a fire involving products of Hazard Class 1 is: - Inhalation - Ingestion - Injection - Explosion 1