Isom questions.pdf

1. A set of activities, methods, best 4. Is the process of scoping, planning, practices, deliverables, and automated staffing, organizing, directing, and tools that stakeholders use to develop controlling a project to develop an and continuously improve information...

1. A set of activities, methods, best 4. Is the process of scoping, planning, practices, deliverables, and automated staffing, organizing, directing, and tools that stakeholders use to develop controlling a project to develop an and continuously improve information information system at a minimum cost, systems and software. within a specified time frame, and with acceptable quality. A. Capability Maturity Model A. Capability Maturity Model B. System development process B. Project management C. System life cycle C. System life cycle D. System development methodology D. System development methodology 1. A standardized framework for assessing the maturity level of an organization’s 5. Process management is concerned with information system development, phases, activities, deliverables, and management processes, and products. quality standards that should be It consists of five levels of maturity consistently applied to all projects. A. Capability Maturity Model A. Capability Maturity Model B. System development process B. Process management C. System life cycle C. System life cycle D. System development methodology D. System development methodology 2. Factoring an information system's 6. The result obtained by striking a lifetime into two stages, (1) systems balance between the lifetime costs of development and (2) systems operation developing, maintaining, and operating and maintenance. an information system and the benefits derived from that system. Cost- A. Capability Maturity Model effectiveness is measured by a cost- B. System development process benefit analysis. C. System life cycle A. Cost-effectiveness D. System development methodology B. Process management 3. Formalized approach to the systems C. System life cycle development process; a standardized D. System development methodology development process that defines (as in CMM Level 3) 7. A formal strategic plan (3-5 years) for building and improving an information A. Capability Maturity Model technology infrastructure and the B. System development process information system applications that use that infrastructure. C. System life cycle A. Cost-effectiveness D. System development methodology B. Process management B. Risk management C. System life cycle C. Creeping commitment D. Strategic information systems plan D. Strategic information systems plan 8. Usually, the strategic enterprise plan is 12. An undesirable situation that prevents complemented by strategic business the organization from fully achieving its unit plans that define how each purpose, goals, and/or objectives. business unit will contribute to the A. Problem enterprise plan. The information systems plan is one of those unit-level B. Opportunity plans. C. Directive A. Cost-effectiveness D. Strategic information systems plan B. Process management 13. A new requirement that is imposed by C. Strategic enterprise plan management, government, or some external influence. D. Strategic information systems plan A. Problem 9. A strategy in which feasibility and risks are continuously reevaluated B. Opportunity throughout a project. Project budgets and deadlines are adjusted accordingly. C. Directive A. Cost-effectiveness D. Strategic information systems plan B. Process management 14. A chance to improve the organization even in the absence of an identified C. Creeping commitment problem. D. Strategic information systems plan A. Problem 10. is drive by risk analysis or assessment. B. Opportunity A. Cost-effectiveness C. Directive B. Risk management D. Strategic information systems plan C. Creeping commitment 15. Determines and defines the exact nature of the problem or improvement. D. Strategic information systems plan A. Problem B. Preliminary investigation C. Directive 11. The project begins when the steering committee receives a project request D. Strategic information systems plan A. Planning phase 16. An information systems strategy plan has examined the business as a whole  to identify those system development B. data flow diagram projects that will return the greatest C. Entity-relationship diagram strategic (long-term) value to the business. D. Unplanned projects A. Problem 21. What tool is popular to use in planning and scheduling? B. Planned Projects A. Gantt chart C. Directive B. data flow diagram D. Unplanned projects C. Entity-relationship diagram D. Unplanned projects 17. Triggered by a specific problem, opportunity, or directive that occurs in 22. Measure of how suitable the the course of doing business. development of a system will be to the organization A. Problem A. Gantt chart B. Planned Projects B. data flow diagram C. Directive C. Entity-relationship diagram D. Unplanned projects D. Feasibility 18. An analysis and design technique that describes processes that transform inputs into outputs A. Process modeling 23. Determine the users’ wants, needs, and B. Planned Projects requirement C. Directive A. Perform detailed analysis D. Unplanned projects B. data flow diagram 19. A tool that graphically shows the C. Entity-relationship diagram relationship among entities in a system D. Feasibility A. Process modeling 24. An analysis and design technique that B. Planned Projects describes processes that transform inputs into outputs C. Entity-relationship diagram A. Process modeling D. Unplanned projects B. data flow diagram 20. A tool that graphically shows the flow of data in a system C. Entity-relationship diagram A. Process modeling D. Feasibility 25. Contains all the documentation and B. Class diagram deliverables of a project C. Identify technical specifications A. Process modeling D. Unified modeling language B. Project dictionary 30. Use research techniques such as e-zines C. Entity-relationship diagram A. Process modeling D. Feasibility B. Class diagram 26. Table that lists a variety of conditions C. Identify technical specifications and actions that correspond to each condition D. Unified modeling language A. Process modeling 31. A working model of the proposed system B. Decision table A. Process modeling C. Entity-relationship diagram B. Prototype D. Feasibility C. Identify technical specifications 27. Combines data with the processes that act on data into a single unit, called D. Unified modeling language what? 32. A procedure that works together to A. Process modeling produce quality information B. Decision table A. Information system C. Object B. Prototype D. Feasibility C. Identify technical specifications 28. Been adopted as a standard notation for D. Unified modeling language object and development 33. Conduct a preliminary investigation A. Process modeling A. Information system B. Decision table B. Analysis C. Object C. operation, support, and security D. Unified modeling language D. Implementation 34. Install and test new system A. Information system 29. Shows classes and subclasses in a system B. Analysis A. Process modeling C. operation, support, and security D. Implementation A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals B. computer-aided software engineering - CASE C. System test 35. Perform maintenance activities D. Unit test A. Information system 40. Check the new system to ensure that it B. Analysis works with actual data C. operation, support, and security A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals D. Implementation B. Acceptance test 36. Various techniques are used to C. System test determine the best proposal D. Unit test A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals B. computer-aided software engineering - CASE C. system test 41. Shows conditions and actions, but it shows them graphically D. unit test A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals 37. Verifies that all programs in an application work together properly B. Decision tree A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals C. System test B. computer-aided software engineering - D. Unit test CASE 42. A style of writing that describes the C. System test steps in a process D. unit test A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals 38. Tools are designed to support one or B. Decision tree more activities of system development C. Structured English A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals D. Unit test B. computer-aided software engineering - 43. A hypothetical methodology used CASE throughout this book to demonstrate a C. System test representative systems development process. D. unit test A. Test and evaluate vendor proposals 39. Verifies that each individual program or object works by itself B. Decision tree C. Structured English A. Problem statement D. Fast B. Project manager application 44. Any factor, limitation, or restraint that C. Scope creep may limit a solution or the problem- D. Process manager application solving process. 49. CASE tool capability that can generate A. Problem statement initial software or database code B. Constraint directly from the system. C. Scope creep A. Problem statement D. Statement of work B. Forward engineering 45. A common phenomenon wherein the C. Scope creep requirements and expectations of a D. Process manager application project increase, often without regard to the impact on budget and schedule. A. Problem statement B. Constraint C. Scope creep D. Statement of work 46. A statement and categorization of problems, opportunities, and directives. A. Problem statement B. Constraint C. Scope creep D. Statement of work 47. A contract with management and the user community to develop or enhance an information system A. Problem statement B. Constraint C. Scope creep D. Statement of work 48. An emerging synonym is methodware. MULTIPLE CHOICES QUESTIONNAIRE: WEEK 5- USING DESKTOP 1. What is the term used to describe the visual environment you see on your computer screen after the operating system loads a program? A. Program Window B. Desktop C. Start Menu D. Wallpaper 2. What is a key difference between desktops across different operating systems and versions? A. The color scheme of the desktop B. The size of the desktop icons C. The overall appearance and layout D. None of the above 3. What does GUI stand for? A. Graphical User Interface B. Graphic User Interface C. Graphical User Interaction D. Graphic User Interaction 4. What is the term used for the image displayed as the background on a desktop? A. Icon B. Wallpaper C. Theme D. Screensaver 5. What is a characteristic of operating systems like MS Windows and Macintosh? A. They use text-based interfaces. B. They use graphical user interfaces (GUIs). C. They are only compatible with specific hardware. D. They are open-source software. 6. What are the small pictures that appear on a desktop that are linked to actual programs? A. Micro systems B. Icons C. Theme D. Windows 7. What actions do you need to do to access the icons to run the program? A. Left Click B. Right Click C. Double Left Click D. Double Right Click 8. What actions do you need to do to access the icons to show options, actions and properties? A. Left Click B. Right Click C. Double Left Click D. Double Right Click 9. Which one of the following icons are not on permanent fixtures on the desktop? A. Recycle Bin B. My desktop C. Internet Explorer D. Adobe 10. Which of the following can be accessed by clicking on the Properties option in a Windows desktop? A. System's display properties B. Internet Settings C.. File Explorer Options D. Sound Preferences 11. Which tab in the Properties window allows you to adjust the screen resolution? A. Themes B. ScreenSaver C. Settings D. Appearance 12. What can you customize in the 'Desktop' tab of the Properties window? A. Desktop Background B. Sound Preferences C. Network Settings D. System Updates 13. Themes in Windows contain all of the following except: A. Sounds B. Animation C. Coordinated Icons D. Antivirus Software 14. What version of Windows first introduced themes? A. Window XP B. Windows 98 C. Windows 7 D. Windows 95 15. What is a key feature of themes in Windows 98? A. High-Resolution Games B. Hi-color Wallpaper and Animated Cursors C. Virtual Assistants D. Cloud Storage Integration 16. It is a feature on Windows operating systems that shows you all of the drives and devices connected to their computer. It allows you to easily access files and folders stored on their computer. A. My Computer B. My Documents C. My Network Places D. Internet Explorer 17. It is a component of a folder in the user's profile that is used as a default storage location for saved documents. A. My Computer B. My Documents C. My Network Places D. Internet Explorer 18. It replaces Network Neighborhood in Windows for browsing available network connections, computers, and devices. A. My Computer B. My Documents C. My Network Places D. Internet Explorer 19. This has been designed to view a broad range of web pages and provide certain features within the operating system, including Microsoft Update. A. My Computer B. My Documents C. My Network Places D. Internet Explorer 20. By clicking this button, the user can change the picture of the icon on the desktop to his/her choice of picture. A. Change Icon Button B. Start Button C. Restore Default Button D. Web Button 21. By clicking this button, it will set your desktop on a genuine Microsoft Operating system's setting. A. Change Icon Button B. Start Button C. Restore Default Button D. Web Button 22. By clicking this button, enable the user to set a particular webpage on the desktop. A. Change Icon Button B. Start Button C. Restore Default Button D. Web Button 23. The system automatically displays motion graphics or slideshows when the user is absent or unavailable from screen for a certain time. A. Screen Protector B. Screening C. Screensaver D. Screen Recording 24. Statement I. Users can’t set predefined Microsoft's Screen saver and also won’t browse other of his/her choice.  Statement II. Wait shows the period that after set time, screen saver should be implemented, and whether it is password protected or not once the user comes back on screen. A. Statement I: True, Statement II: False B. Statement I: False, Statement II: True C. Both statements are true D. Both statements are false 25. What is the main purpose of Screensaver? A. It was first used to prevent damage to older monitors but is now used as a way to prevent viewing of desktop contents while the user is away. B. It is the process of rearranging the data on a storage medium, such as a hard disk drive (HDD), for efficient storage and access. Defragmenting a hard drive can improve a computer's or laptop's performance and speed. C. It is a computer maintenance utility included in Microsoft Windows designed to free up disk space. D. Allows you to change settings that are not exposed in the user interface, including system policies, installed applications, and the types of files that certain applications can open. 26. It best describes Appearance in Windows Vista. A. It shows how MS windows updates its main updates and optional updates. B. It shows how MS windows conserve its energy and performance. C. It shows how MS windows perform applications and services. D. It shows how MS windows and its buttons, color and font size should be looked or visible. 27. ________ use large icons, show shadows under menus, show windows menus and hide underlined letters for the keyboard. A. Internet Explorer B. Start Button C. Effects D. Ethernet 28. ________ shows that users can apply settings on any one of the applications. i.e desktop, title bar and icons with choice of size. A. Advance Appearance B. Advance Features C. Advance Performance D. Advance Technology 29. Which of the following does not belong to the group? A. Sounds B. Screensaver C. Desktop D. Theme 30. How many categories in vista desktop personalize? A. 5 B. 6 C. 9 D. 7 31. Which of the following does not belong to the group? A. Computer B. Mouse pointers C. Display settings D. Windows color and Appearance 32. What is the primary function of the Desktop Window Manager? A. Managing hardware components B. Managing software applications C. Managing the GUI appearance D. Managing network connections 33. Which of the following is a feature of the Desktop Window Manager? A. Handling system updates B. Managing sound settings C. Managing visual effects D. Managing printer configurations 34. How does the Desktop Window Manager contribute to the computer's performance? A. Slows down the system B. Enhances the GUI appearance C. Increases memory usage D. Decreases screen resolution 35. Which of the following is a common type of Sidebar Gadgets? A. Calendar B. Media player C. Web browser D. Text editor 36. What is the primary visual feature of Windows Vista Aero? A. Solid color backgrounds B. Translucent glass-like window borders C. Text-only interface D. Monochrome color scheme 37. What is the purpose of the Windows Vista Sidebar? A. To display desktop icons B. To manage system updates C. To organize files and folders D. To provide quick access to mini-application 38. What does the "Add Home to Folder" feature in Windows Vista allow you to do? A. Add a custom home screen to your desktop B. Add a shortcut to your home folder in Windows Explorer C. Add a folder to your home network D. Add a link to your personal files on the start menu 39. Where can you find the option to "Add Home to Folder" in Windows Vista? A. Control Panel B. Start Menu settings C. Right-click context menu in Windows Explorer D. Taskbar properties 40. What type of folders can you add to the "Home" section in Windows Vista using the "Add Home to Folder" feature? A. Only system folders B. Only network-shared folders C. Any folder, including personal or system folders D. Only desktop shortcuts 41. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a desktop application? A. Microsoft Word B. Adobe Photoshop C. Google Chrome (web app) D. QuarkXPress 42. What are the programs that allow users to browse the internet, such as Google Chrome or Mozilla Firefox, classified as? A. Browsers B. Word Processors C. Desktop Publishing D. CD/DVD Writing Software 43. Which of the following desktop applications is widely used for desktop publishing? A. Microsoft Word B. Adobe InDesign C. Nero Burning ROM D. MATLAB 44. What does arranging desktop icons by "Type" do? A. Groups similar types of files or applications together B. Arranges icons in alphabetical order C. Sorts icons by the size of the files D. Sorts icons by the date they were last modified 45. Which of these is a valid option when right-clicking on the desktop to arrange icons? A. Arrange Icons by Date Created B. Arrange Icons by Resolution C. Arrange Icons by Name D. Arrange Icons by Frequency of Use 46. It is an area in Windows Vista that enables users to adjust their display’s resolution. A. Display Settings B. Display CSS C. Display Management D. Display and Sound 47. It is a Windows setting area that enables users to view and configure detected sound devices. A. Keyboard and Mouse B. Accessibility C. Windows Update D. Sounds 48. Which of the following is not part of the Windows Vista Themes? A. Windows Aero B. Windows Vista Basic C. Windows (light) D. Windows Standard 49. Which of the following is not part of the arrangement icon by? A. Name B. Size C. Date D. Modified 50. It will set your desktop on a genuine Microsoft Operating system's setting. A. Web button B. Customized Desktop C. Change Icon Button D. Restored Default Button GUIDE TO OPERATING SYSTEMS d. All of the above 1. It is a type of operating system installation on a computer that already has an earlier version 5. hardware component that's the core of the operating system. computational unit in a server a. upgrade installation a. Hard disk b. customize installation b. CPU c. clean installation c. Mouse d. Network interface card (NIC) d. complete installation 6. Your operating system automatically detects 2. It is a type of operating system installation on this information a computer that either has no operating system or that has an operating system that will be a. Keyboard overwritten by the installation b. Printer a. clean installation c. DVD/CD ROM Type b. complete installation d. Video Card c. upgrade installation d. customize installation 7. Drivers may come on a disk with the device but might not include drivers for all possible operating system 3. How many stages are in the process of installing a new Operating System? a. TRUE b. FALSE a. five b. three 8. The result of nonworking hardware can be a c. seven failed installation d. One a. TRUE b. FALSE 4. Which of the following is not needed to provide during the installation of an Operating 9. What does minimum hardware Sytem recommendation usually mean? a. Which components of the OS you want to a. It allows you to install the OS and use it install efficiently b. What type of apps you want to install b. It doesn’t allow you to install the OS at all c. It allows you to install the OS but will not c. What type of installation you wish to perform be able to use it d. It ensures maximum performance of the OS b. Upgrading Windows XP c. Backup 10. Which software is defined as an early d. Upgrading Windows Vista development version that is likely to have bugs? a. Alpha software 14. Before backing up your information: b. Beta software a.Choose a computer that represents the c. Pre-release software lowest d. Production Software memory, speed of CPU, size of hard disk, etc… b. Create a written checklist that documents the 11. Which of the following is an example of an operating system with specific hardware upgrade/migration process requirements? c. Use the option to check system compatibility a. Red hat linux before you start b. Mac OS d. Close all open windows, programs, and files c. Snow Leopard d. All of the above 15. Most operating systems have a? a.Back up utility 12. What is the benefit of performing a clean b. New Operating System upgrade when migrating into a new operating system? c. Windows PowerShell a. It enables disk problems to be found d. Hyper-V Tool and fixed b. It makes the disk problems less likely to 16. Which is not a step of Test Migration? be found a.Take notes describing the steps and any c. It retains all previous settings problems that arose and what you did to solve d. It saves time in configuring the OS those problems b. Once complete, test the computer for a few 13. Copying files from a computer to days another medium, such as tape, DVD, another c. Ensure that the upgrade did not change any hard drive, or a removable drive settings or move/remove files or programs a.Text Migration d. All of the above 17. What is recommended when migrating to a 21. Which Windows Vista edition provides new desktop OS and should be offered for essential file access support and limited support server administrators as well as end users? for different kinds of media and multimedia access? a. Installing and Upgrading Windows XP a. Home Premium Edition a. Conducting a Test Migration b. Enterprise Edition b. Training c. Home Basic Edition c. Migrating to a New Operating System d. Business Edition 18. It is a term used to refer to move from one operating system to another, which may or may 22. Which of the following is not a feature not involve implementing of a new computer? typically associated with Windows Vista Enterprise Edition? a. Migrating a. Support virtual PC capabilities b. Checking b. Extensive networking capabilities c. Training c. Tools to protect data d. Upgrading d. None of the above 19. Windows XP has a utility called ______ and ____________. 23. It is intended for users who need diverse network connectivity options, computer a. Files, Settings Transfer Wizard management tools, strong backup and security, b. Alpha, Beta software and workgroup tools. c. Beta, Gamma software a. Business Edition d. Home, Professional b. Home Basic Edition c. Enterprise Edition 20. Upgrade should take __ to __ minutes to d. Ultimate Edition complete a. 15 to 30 24. Which Windows Vista edition is targeted for b. 30 to 90 home entertainment and high-level user productivity? c. 60 to 90 a. Business Edition d. 15 to 90 b. Ultimate Edition c. Home Premium Edition d. Enterprise Edition d. Home premium edition 25. It is one of the windows vista editions where 29. Which of the following is not part of editions it combines the entertainment and productivity in Windows Server 2003? capabilities of both Home Premium and a. Standard Edition Business Editions and takes advantage of hardware features in high-end PCs? b. Web Edition a. Home Premium Edition c. Small Business Server b. Ultimate Edition d. Big Business Server c. Business Edition d. Enterprise Edition 30. In upgrading Windows 7, how many approaches does it need? a. Three approaches 26. How many editions does Windows 7 has? b. Two approaches a. 6 c. One approaches b. 5 d. Five approaches c. 7 d. 4 31. Which of the following are true if upgrading from Windows XP 27. What edition of the Windows 7 does not a. All of the choices have the 32- and 64- bit versions? b. Determine if the Windows XP computer can a. Home edition run Windows 7 b. Home basic Edition c. Backup applications and data files c. Starter pack edition d. Perform a clean install of Windows 7 d. Starter Edition 32. Which of these Windows 7 Upgrade Path 28. It is one of the editions of Windows 7 that options are in the Window 7 Starter? Intends for supporting professional activities on a. Home Premium a home or small office computers? b. Professional a. Home edition c. Ultimate Editions b. Home basic Edition d. All of the choices c. Professional Edition 33. It is a type of edition used most in 37. What does Windows PowerShell provides? businesses and educational institutions. a. Web hosting services a. Datacenter Edition b. Virtual server environment b. Standard Edition c. Command and shell-based c. Enterprise Edition environment d. Web Edition d. Security 34. Which of the following is not a Windows 38. It is designed for organizations that deploy Server 2003? networks with applications and web services requiring high-end servers and a high level of a. Standard Edition productivity. b. Small Business Server a. Enterprise edition c. Datacenter Edition b. Datacenter edition d. None of the above c. Web server 2008 edition d. Standard edition 35. Ensure that your hardware meets the requirements for 39. The following are the minimum and a. 2008 recommended hardware requirements for b. 2000 Windows Server 2008 R2, except; c. 2002 a. Disk Space d. 2003 b. Drive c. CPU 36. Windows Server 2000 will upgrade to d. Hyper-V a. Windows Server 2008 Web Edition b. Windows Server 2003 Standard 40. This recommends performing a clean Edition installation to ensure that applications and data are reinstituted from scratch. c. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition a. Linux d. None of the above b. Microsoft c. Windows XP d. Vista 41. What does Microsoft recommend for -The passage states that the hardware upgrading from an earlier version of Windows requirements for installing Windows Server Server to Windows Server 2008? 2008 R2 are provided but does not list the specific requirements. a) Perform an in-place upgrade b) Perform a clean installation 45.What is the primary purpose of installing c) Migrate to a new server Windows Server 2008 R2? d) Microsoft does not recommend upgrading a) To create a personal computer for everyday use. 42. Which of the following new server editions b) To provide a platform for running were added in Windows Server 2008 R2? applications and services. a) Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition c) To manage a home network with internet access. b) Windows Server 2008 R2 Foundation Edition and Windows High-Performance Computing d) To develop and test software applications. (HPC) Server c) Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter Edition 46. What is the main purpose of installing d) None of the above Linux? a) To replace your existing operating system completely. 43. Which of these new features were introduced in Windows Server 2008 R2? b) To run Linux alongside your existing operating system. a) Active Directory enhancements c) To experience a different operating system b) Action Center and its features. c) Ability to classify files d) All of the above. d) All of the above 47.What is the primary purpose of updating 44. Which of the following is NOT a hardware Linux? requirement for installing Windows Server 2008 a) To install new software applications. R2? b) To fix security vulnerabilities and improve a) 2 GHz or faster 64-bit processor system stability. b) 512 MB of RAM c) To customize the operating system's c) 32 GB of available hard disk space appearance. d) The passage does not provide hardware d) To increase the speed of the computer's requirements hardware. 48.What is the key difference between installing and upgrading Windows Server 2008/2008 R2? a) Installing creates a new system, while upgrading updates an existing one. b) Installing is for new servers, while upgrading is for existing servers. c) Installing requires more hardware resources than upgrading. d) Installing is a faster process than upgrading. 49. When installing a new macOS version, how much free storage space is required? a) 5 GB b) 10 GB c) 15 GB d) 20 GB 50. What is the primary tool used to install or upgrade macOS from the App Store? a) macOS Installer b) Software Update c) Disk Utility d) Migration Assistant GROUP 1 QUESTIONS MULTIPLE CHOICE. INSTRUCTION. Choose the letter of the correct answer. 1. What is a system in the context of System Analysis and Design (SAD)? A) A random collection of components working independently B) An organized collection of components or elements that interact to achieve specific objectives C) A group of components without any interaction D) A single component working to solve all problems ANSWER: B) An organized collection of components or elements that interact to achieve specific objectives 2. An organizational process of developing and maintaining systems. A) System and Design B) Preliminary Study C) System life cycle D) System Design ANSWER: C) System Life Cycle 3. Provides a brief investigation to understand the physical system. A) System analysis B) Feasibility study C) Preliminary study D) Implementation ANSWER: C) Preliminary study 4. It identifies the risk associated with the project that must be addressed if the project is approved. A) Preliminary Study B) Feasibility Study C) Detailed System Study D) System Analysis ANSWER: B) Feasibility Study 5. this involves a detailed study of various operation performed by a system and their relationships within and outside the system. A) Feasibility Study B) Detailed system study C) System Analysis D) System Design ANSWER: B) Detailed system study 6. It is the crucial part of system development where the result of system analysis is converted into system design A) Coding B) System Maintenance C) System Design D) System life cycle ANSWER: C) System Design 7. What is the process of turning a system design into a functional system called? A) Testing B) Deployment C) Coding D) Design ANSWER: C) Coding 8. Why is testing important? A) To make sure the system works correctly B) To finish the documentation C) To train users D) To write new code ANSWER: A) To make sure the system works correctly 9. It is a process of collecting factual data, understand the processes involved, identifying problems and recommending feasible suggestions for improving the system functioning. A) System Design B) System Analysis C) Detailed System Study D) Feasibility Study ANSWER: B) System Analysis 10. The stage of a project during which theory is turned into practice. A) Documentation B) Implementation C) Maintenance D) Testing ANSWER: B) Implementation 11. Which of the following is a key benefit of regular maintenance? A) Increased downtime B.) Reduced energy efficiency C) Prolonged equipment lifespan D) Higher maintenance costs ANSWER: C) Prolonged equipment lifespan 12. What is the primary goal of preventive maintenance? A) Increase production speed B) Prevent equipment failure before it occurs C) Reduce employee workload D) Eliminate the need for repairs ANSWER: B) Prevent equipment failure before it occurs 13. The process when the work has to shift from manual to computerized. A) Pilot run B) Implementation C) Conversion D) Changeover ANSWER: D) Changeover 14. A complete description of the system from the users point of view detailing how to use or operate the system. A) System documentation B) User Documentation C) Aquisition D) Installation ANSWER: B) User Documentation 15. In this type of run, the new system is run with the data from one or more of the previous periods for the whole or part of the system. A) Pilot run B) Parallel run C) Direct changeover D) Coding ANSWER: A) Pilot run 16. These are the tools for describing the system design except: A) Decision tree B) Agile C) Data Dictionary D) Flowchart ANSWER: B) Agile 17. Stage in System design which is more detailed in technical. A) Structured design B) Preliminary Design C) System Development D) Specific design ANSWER: A) Structured design 18. Stage in System design which include the cost and benefit of the system A) Preliminary Design B) Structured Design C) System Development D) Blueprint ANSWER: A) Preliminary Design 19. Which of the following is NOT a primary component of a system in SAD? A) Input B) Processing C) Output D) Feedback ANSWER: D) Feedback 20. What is the role of processing in a system? A) To collect raw data from the environment B) To transform input data into a more useful form C) To deliver the final output to the users D) To store data for future use ANSWER: B) To transform input data into a more useful form 21. How does System Analysis and Design (SAD) contribute to risk management? A) By eliminating all potential risks B) By identifying potential issues early to reduce project failures and costs C) By ignoring risks during the design process D) By only focusing on user needs, not risks ANSWER: B) By identifying potential issues early to reduce project failures and costs 22. What is one of the benefits of using SAD for developing information systems? A) It ensures that systems do not need to be updated. B) It avoids stakeholder communication to speed up the process. C) It improves system quality and aligns systems with organizational goals. D) It only focuses on the technical aspects, ignoring user needs. ANSWER: C) It improves system quality and aligns systems with organizational goals. 23. The system development life cycle is also meant as? A) System Cycle B) System Subject C) System Development Components D) Software Development Life Cycle ANSWER: D) Software Development Life Cycle 24. Which of the following is not included in the nine phases of the life cycle? A) Flowchart B) Coding C) Testing D) Maintenance ANSWER: A) Flowchart 25. Which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC) involves the project of feasibility in terms of technical, economic, and organizational aspects? A) Preliminary Study B) Feasibility Study C) System Analysis D) Implementation ANSWER: B) Feasibility Study 26. What is the primary purpose of the maintenance phase in the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? A) To test the system for errors B) To update and improve the system after it has been settled C) To gather initial system requirements D) To design the system ANSWER: B) To update and improve the system after it has been settled. 27. Who prepared the proposal system? A) Researcher B) System analyst C) User management D) Employee ANSWER: B) System analyst 28. Outlines the scope and boundaries of the study. A) Objectives of the Study B) Terms of Reference C) Constraints D) Expected Benefits ANSWER: B) Terms of Reference 29. What does program testing involve? A) Testing the entire system with real data B) Testing individual programs with prepared data C) Designing the user interface D) Writing the user manual ANSWER: B) Testing individual programs with prepared data 30. What happens during system testing? A) Only coding errors are fixed B) The whole system is tested with real data C) The system is launched immediately D) Only the user interface is checked ANSWER: B) The whole system is tested with real data 31. These are the data items which need to be held about each entity A) Data Flow Diagram B) Logical Data Structures C) List of attributes of the entities D) Functional Network ANSWER: C) List of attributes of the entities 32. These are the tools used for detailed system study, except: A) Interviews B) On-site observation C) Questionnaire D) Swot analysis ANSWER: D) Swot analysis 33. It is a major component of a feasibility that also known as cost-benefit analysis. A) Economic Feasibility B) Technical Feasibility C) Organizational Feasibility D) Feasibility ANSWER: A) Economic Feasibility 34. In essence, this feasibility is to answer the question “Will the users accept the system?” A) Economic Feasibility B) Technical Feasibility C) Organizational Feasibility D) Feasibility ANSWER: C) Organizational Feasibility 35. Major components that answer the question “Is the technology available?” A) Economic Feasibility B) Technical Feasibility C) Organizational Feasibility D) Feasibility ANSWER: B) Technical Feasibility 36. This major objective describes the methods or procedures used to carry out the tasks. A) What is being done B) Who is doing it C) When it is being done D) How it is being done ANSWER: D) How it is being done 37. This major objective explains the purpose or rationale behind performing the tasks. A) Why is it being done B) Who is doing it C) When it is being done D) How it is being done ANSWER: A) Why is it being done 38. This major objective specifies the individuals or roles responsible for performing tasks. A) Why is it being done B) Who is doing it C) When it is being done D) How it is being done ANSWER: B) Who is doing it 39. The result of this process is a ____________. A) Rational system design B) Coherent system design C) Logical system design D) Analytical system design ANSWER: C) Logical system design 40. During which phase is the theoretical design transformed into actual, functioning software? A) Deployment Phase B) Programming Phase C) Testing Phase D) Analysis Phase ANSWER: B) Programming Phase 41. What is the purpose of the programs written during the coding phase? A) To create system documentation B) To manage data movements and control the system’s operation C) To perform system testing D) To design the system architecture ANSWER: B) To manage data movements and control the system’s operation 42. What is the key benefit of modular programming? A) It increases the cost of development B) It complicates the system maintenance C) It aids in faster development, easier maintenance, and simpler implementation of future changes D) It reduces the efficiency of the system Correct Answer: C) It aids in faster development, easier maintenance, and simpler implementation of future changes 43. Which phase involves converting a system design into a form that a computer can execute? A) Implementation of Design B) Testing Phase C) Analysis Phase D) Maintenance ANSWER: A) Implementation of Design 44. Questions needed to be considered when it comes on system design except: A) WILL THE SYSTEM BE FLEXIBLE ENOUGH TO BE MODIFIED AS NEEDED IN THE FUTURE? B) WILL THE NEW SYSTEM FIT INTO AN OVERALL INFORMATION SYSTEM? C) WILL THE SYSTEM MEET THE REQUIREMENT OF THE SAID PROJECT? D) WILL THE SYSTEM BENEFITS EXCEED IT CONS? ANSWER: C) WILL THE SYSTEM MEET THE REQUIREMENT OF THE SAID PROJECT? 45. a detailed examination of the existing system is conducted. A) Background Analysis B) Problem Identification and Project Initiation C) Problem Definition D) Inference or Findings (System Proposal) ANSWER: A) Background Analysis 46. It lays the foundation for the study by outlining the main challenges and objectives. A) Background Analysis B) Problem Identification and Project Initiation C) Inference or Findings (System Proposal) D) Problem Definition ANSWER: B) Problem Identification and Project Initiation 47. This is similar to functional hierarchy but they high lights the functions which are common to more than one procedure. A) Flowchart B) Data Dictionary C) Data Flow Diagram D) Functional Network ANSWER: D) Functional Network 48. Why use test cases from the test plan? A) To check if all requirements are met B) To design the system C) To finalize the release date D) To evaluate the development team ANSWER: A) To check if all requirements are met 49. What should you do if system testing results are incorrect? A) Ignore the issues B) Fix the errors and retest C) Change the system design D) Document the results and deploy ANSWER: B) Fix the errors and retest 50. What is a common reason for initiating perfective maintenance on a software system? A) To address newly discovered bugs B) To improve software functionality based on user feedback C) To comply with new regulatory requirements D) To upgrade the software to a new version ANSWER: B) To improve software functionality based on user feedback