Intro to Criminal Justice Exam Fall 2023 LAST .pdf
Transcript
1. Who first recognized the value of trace forensic evidence in 1910? A. Einstein B. Locard C. Newton D. Edmund 2. According to Locard’s Exchange Principle, what will happen with contact between two items? A. There will be no exchange of materials B. There will be a change in color C. There will be...
1. Who first recognized the value of trace forensic evidence in 1910? A. Einstein B. Locard C. Newton D. Edmund 2. According to Locard’s Exchange Principle, what will happen with contact between two items? A. There will be no exchange of materials B. There will be a change in color C. There will be a chemical reaction D. There will be an exchange of materials 3. What is an example of a 'class' characteristic in paint analysis? A. Color B. Texture C. Brand logo D. Chemical composition 4. What are three characteristics of glass that could be used to match glass from a crime scene to a suspect? A. Density, weight, color B. Hardness, transparency, weight C. Refractive index, thickness, color D. Texture, brand, chemical composition 5. What does the abbreviation GSR represent in ballistics? A. Gun Safety Regulations B. Gunshot Residue C. Gun Sight Radius D. Gun Serial Number 6. What does the acronym AFIS stand for? A. Automated Fingerprint Identification System B. Advanced Forensic Identification System C. Association of Forensic Investigation Specialists D. Analysis of Forensic Impression Samples 7. What type of insects are helpful in a murder investigation? A. Ants B. Flies C. Butterflies D. Bees 8. What types of tissues might be used for DNA testing? A. Muscle tissue B. Nail clippings C. Saliva D. All of the above 9. What 4 things can be determined from skeletal remains? A. Age, ethnicity, occupation, cause of death B. Age, gender, cause of death, time of death C. Ethnicity, occupation, time of death, height D. Height, gender, cause of death, occupation 10. What type of clues could investigators get from body fluid samples? Give two examples. A. Presence of insects, weather conditions B. Type of clothing worn, location of the crime C. Time of death, type of weapon used D. Presence of drugs, alcohol consumption 11. What is the term for the original location of a crime or accident? A. Primary Evidence Scene B. Primary Crime Scene C. Incident Scene D. Secondary Crime Scene 12. What is the term for a person thought to be capable of committing a crime? A. Suspect B. Perpetrator C. Witness D. Accomplice 13. What type of evidence refers to material items present at the crime scene or on the victims? A. Testimonial Evidence B. Direct Evidence C. Circumstantial Evidence D. Physical Evidence 14. Who are typically the first to arrive at a crime scene? A. Forensic Scientists B. Police Officers C. First Responders D. Crime Scene Investigators 15. What role is responsible for documenting the crime scene and collecting physical evidence? A. Homicide detective B. Forensic photographer C. Crime scene investigator D. Entomologist 16. Who investigates the crime by following leads provided by witnesses and physical evidence? A. Forensic photographer B. Crime scene investigator C. Homicide detective D. Forensic entomologist 17. What is the forceful detention of a person known as? A. Custody B. Confinement C. Restraint D. Detainment 18. What is considered a necessary part of an arrest? A. Search B. Questioning C. Seizure or detention D. Interrogation 19. What gives police officers the authority to place citizens under custodial arrest? A. Municipal ordinances B. State laws C. Federal regulations D. Judicial orders 20. What is one of the four elements that must be present for an arrest to take place? A. The intent to arrest B. The intent to interrogate C. The intent to question D. The intent to search 21. What does the Miranda warning include? A. Right to a phone call and right to a trial B. Right to remain silent and right to an attorney C. Right to a fair hearing and right to a speedy trial D. Right to a public defender and right to a witness 22, When is Miranda warning required? A. When the suspect is in custody and subjected to custodial interrogation B. When the suspect is questioned by the police C. When the suspect is stopped and frisked D. When the suspect is a witness 23. What are the typical verdicts issued by the jury? A. Guilty, not guilty, or partially guilty B. Guilty, not guilty, or innocent C. Guilty or not guilty D. Guilty, not guilty, or undecided 24. What does a hung jury lead to? A. A retrial with a different jury B. A dismissal of charges C. A mistrial D. An acquittal 25. What does double jeopardy refer to? A. Risking a person's life or liberty twice B. Being sentenced twice for the same crime C. Being acquitted and then retried for the same crime D. Being tried for the same crime twice 26. What do good time and truth-in-sentencing laws aim to regulate? A. Access to parole B. Length of probation C. Time served by prisoners D. Inmate rehabilitation programs 27. What is the prosecution's task in a criminal trial? A. To prove innocence beyond a reasonable doubt B. To establish guilt beyond a reasonable doubt C. To establish the defendant's alibi D. To present circumstantial evidence only 28. What is the purpose of closing arguments in a criminal trial? A. To summarize and argue for each side's case B. To question the credibility of the witnesses C. To instruct the jury on the law D. To present new evidence 29. What is the purpose of the preliminary hearing? A. To issue an indictment for the defendant B. To inform the defendant of the charges and their rights C. To work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case D. To determine if there's enough evidence for the case to proceed to trial 30. What is the purpose of the arraignment hearing? A. To issue an indictment for the defendant B. To work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case C. Where the defendant pleads guilty or not guilty after the charges are announced D. To determine if there's enough evidence for the case to proceed to trial 31. What is the purpose of the grand jury's decision? A. To inform the defendant of the charges and their rights B. To work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case C. To decide if there's probable cause for the defendant to stand trial and issue an indictment if so D. To determine if there's enough evidence for the case to proceed to trial 32. What is the purpose of plea bargaining? A. To determine if there's enough evidence for the case to proceed to trial B. To work out a mutually satisfactory disposition of the case after arraignment C. To inform the defendant of the charges and their rights D. To issue an indictment for the defendant 33. Which voice should be used to refer to oneself in police reports? A. Passive voice B. First-person voice C. Active voice D. Third-person voice 34. What should be used to describe events in police reports? A. Third-person voice B. Active voice C. Passive voice D. Present tense 35. In military time, what does 1800 hours represent? A. 10 PM B. 6 PM C. 12 PM D. 8 AM 36. Several conditions must be present before someone’s behavior is considered criminal. What is one of these conditions? A. The behavior was a voluntary act B. The behavior was committed at night C. The behavior always results in the victim being physically injured D. The behavior is always caught on video 37. What is the correct military time for 11:30 PM? A. 2330 hours B. 1230 hours C. 1130 hours D. 2300 hours 38. Which of the following is an example of using active voice? A. The car was stolen by the juveniles B. The drugs were swallowed by the suspect C. The gun was thrown by the suspect into the bushes D. The suspect swallowed the drugs 39. What are the key questions that must be answered in a police report? A. Only Who B Only What C. Only Where D. Who, What, When, Where, How, How much 40. Who are the potential readers of police reports besides other officers? A. Jury, media, city officials, social workers, attorneys, judges, supervisors B. Only the media. C. Only the jury. D. Only the police officer who writes the report. 41. What should all police reports be written in? A. Reverse chronological order B. Alphabetical order C. Chronological order D. Random order 42. How can incomplete or inaccurate police reports impact cases? A. Cases can be won or lost based on the completeness of an officer’s report B. Incomplete reports have no impact on cases C. Inaccurate reports always lead to case dismissal D. Inaccurate reports only affect minor cases 43. What is redirect examination? A. A punishment for a crime B. An attorney’s questioning of their own witness after cross-examination C. The power of some appeals courts to accept or refuse to hear particular appeals D. A type of hearing in court 44. What is perjury? A. A court proceeding such as a trial B. A compensation payment made from a criminal to a victim C. A type of white-collar crime D. The crime of lying while testifying under oath 45. What is discretionary jurisdiction? A. A class of property crimes related to job-related offenses B. The power of some appeals courts to accept or refuse to hear particular appeals C. A formal request made to a court D. A type of inchoate crime 46. What is restitution? A. Direct payments made from a criminal to a victim as compensation B. A punishment for perjury C. A compensation for a crime D. A court officer who issues warrants 47. What is a prosecutor? A. A court officer who handles pretrial proceedings B. A class of property crimes that are usually job-related C. A type of inchoate crime D. Government’s attorney who presents the case against a criminal defendant 48. What is voir dire? A. A formal request made to a court B. A group of property crimes related to job-related offenses C. During jury selection, the questioning of prospective jurors D. A punishment for a crime 49. What is a motion? A. The power of some appeals courts to accept or refuse to hear particular appeals B. A type of white-collar crime C. A formal request made to a court D. An illegal act punishable upon conviction in a court 50. What is the crime of unlawfully entering a building with the intent to commit a crime, such as theft? A. Burglary B. Misdemeanor C. Robbery D. Larceny 51. What is the crime of two or more people agreeing to commit a crime, often requiring an overt act toward committing the crime? A. Robbery B. Conspiracy C. Misdemeanor D. Attempt 52. What is the judicial rule that prevents the government from introducing illegally obtained evidence at a criminal trial? A. Exclusionary Rule B. Affirmative Defense C. Probable Cause D. Deadly Force 53. What is the force that poses a high risk of death or serious injury to a human? A. Probable Cause B. Attempt C. Deadly Force D. Plea Bargain 54. What is the crime of taking substantial steps toward committing a crime, but not actually committing it? A. Conspiracy B. Attempt C. Robbery D. Misdemeanor 55. What is the crime of unlawfully taking another's property with the intention of permanently depriving the owner of possession? A. Robbery B. Larceny C. Burglary D. Felony 56. What is the defense that, if proven by the defendant, makes the defendant not guilty of the crime even if the prosecutor can prove the elements of the crime? A. Probable Cause B. Mens Rea C. Affirmative Defense D. Exclusionary Rule 57. What is the court order issued by a judge authorizing a search, an arrest, or a seizure of evidence of a crime? A. Motion to Suppress B. Warrant C. Contempt of Court D. Plea Bargain 58. What is the crime less serious than a felony, usually punished by a fine or imprisonment up to one year in a local jail? A. Attempt B. Larceny C. Felony D. Misdemeanor 59. What is the evidence that an independent, cautious person would have good reason to believe? A. Probable Cause B. Mens Rea C. Conspiracy D. Attempt 60. What is the unwritten law in England that evolved over centuries, and is the basis for U.S law? A. Civil Court B. Criminal Lawyer C. Common Law D. Appellate Court 61. What is the crime that punishes an offender for disrupting or attacking the integrity of the court? A. Criminal Contempt B. Contemporary C. Affirmative Defense D. Plea Bargain 62. What is redirect examination? A. A punishment for a crime B. An attorney’s questioning of their own witness after cross examination C. The power of some appeals courts to accept or refuse to hear particular appeals D. A type of hearing in court 63. What did the Supreme Court define as a search in Katz v. United States (1967)? A. Any government intrusion into something in which a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy B. Any action taken by law enforcement officials C. Any activity conducted in a public space D. Any government action involving a person's personal property 64. What is the idea behind deterrence? A. Criminals are not deterred by fear B. Fear of punishment will prevent crimes C. Fear of punishment encourages criminal behavior D. Punishment is not effective in preventing crimes 65. What is the purpose of probation? A. A punishment for criminal offenses B. A form of temporary release from custody C. An alternative to prison with specific conditions to follow D. A period of confinement for offenders 66. What occurs during booking? A. Setting bail for the accused B. Issuing a warrant for arrest C. Conducting a preliminary hearing D. Recording the arrest details and taking fingerprints and photographs 67. What is the role of a probation officer? A. To supervise offenders who are serving probation sentences B. To provide legal counsel to defendants C. To conduct pre-trial investigations D. To make arrest decisions for law enforcement 68. What does an acquittal mean in a criminal case? A. To charge the defendant with a crime B. To sentence the defendant to prison C. To place the defendant on probation D. To find the defendant not guilty 69. What is the definition of an arrestee? A. The prosecutor handling the arrest B. The person arrested C. The arresting officer D. The judge presiding over the arrest 70. What is the definition of an arrest? A. A temporary detention for questioning B. A citation for a minor offense C. Taking a person into custody for the purpose of charging the person with a crime D. A warning given by law enforcement 71. What is the responsibility of proving facts in a criminal trial? A. The prosecution B. The jury C. The judge D. The defense 72. What is the term for crimes, such as prostitution and possession of illegal drugs, in which everyone is involved by choice? A. Aggravated crimes B. Participatory crimes C. Victimless crimes D. Conscious crimes 73. What is the term describing juveniles who cannot be controlled by their parents? A. Defiant B. Incorrigible C. Unmanageable D. Stubborn 74. What is the age at which a person is considered an adult for legal purposes? A. Legal Age B. Age of Consent C. Age of Majority D. Age of Accountability 75. What is the study of crime called? A. Criminal Justice B. Forensic Science C. Criminalistics D. Criminology 76. What is the term for an act which, if done by an adult, would be a crime? A. Misconduct B. Delinquent C. Misdemeanor D. Infraction 77. What is the term for the responsibility of proving facts in a case? A. Proof Burden B. Onus of Proof C. Evidential Duty D. Burden of Proof 78. What is the term for a trial conducted without a jury? A. Solo Trial B. Judge Trial C. Bench Trial D. Non-jury Trial 79. What is the term for the questioning of the opponent’s witnesses in a trial? A. Cross-Examination B. Direct Examination C. Interrogation D. Inquiry 80. What is the term for a prison sentence of an indefinite period of time, where prisoners are released based on rehabilitation? A. Indeterminate Sentence B. Unspecified Sentence C. Infinite Sentence D. Indefinite Sentence 81. Which type of murder is taken very seriously under the law? A. All of the above B. Second-degree murder C. Voluntary manslaughter D. Felony murder 82. What is the term for force that poses a high risk of death or serious injury to a human? A. Deadly Force B. Seizure C. Search D. Attempt 83. What is a crime? A. An act that violates moral principles B. An unethical action that causes harm C. A socially unacceptable behavior D. An illegal action or activity punishable by law 84. Who decides what behaviors are criminal? A. Each state through their criminal code B. Local law enforcement agencies C. The Supreme Court D. The federal government through the U.S. Code 85. What does Actus Reus refer to? A. The coincidental act B. The guilty mind C. The harmful intent D. The guilty act 86. What is Mens Rea? A. The coincidental intent B. The wrongful act C. The guilty mind D. The harmful act 87. Why does the prosecutor have to prove all elements of a crime? A. To establish guilt beyond a reasonable doubt B. To avoid double jeopardy C. To guarantee the defendant's rights D. To ensure a fair trial 88. What is the main requirement for concurrence of actus reus and mens rea? A. They can occur separately B. Actus reus must precede mens rea C. Mens rea must precede actus reus D. They must occur at the same time 89. What is the term for an official group, staffed by ordinary citizens authorized to review complaints of police misconduct? A. Search B. Conspiracy C. Citizen, or civilian review board D. Accomplice 90. What is the definition of first-degree murder? A. A killing done with malice afterthought, but without deliberation and premeditation B. A deliberate and premeditated killing done with malice aforethought C. Intentional killing without malice aforethought D. A murder committed with criminal negligence 91. Which step in the crime scene protocol involves creating a pictorial record of the scene and a rough sketch? A. Document B. Interview C. Examine D. Process 92. Who is responsible for securing the crime scene so no evidence is destroyed and detaining persons of interest in the crime? A. District Attorney B. Crime Scene Investigation (CSI) UNIT C. Medical Examiner D. Police Officers 93. What happens to someone who plans a bank robbery or drives the getaway car? A. They can be punished as much as the person who robbed the bank B. They are only charged with a minor offense C. They are not considered guilty D. They are exempt from punishment 94. What is the term for an offense that would not be a crime if committed by an adult? A. Delinquent act B. Status offense C. Recidivism D. Incarceration rate 95. What is the study of crime called? A. Criminology B. Criminal law C. Jurisdiction D. Testify 96. What is the number of prisoners per 100,000 population called? A. Recidivism B. Parole C. Incarceration rate D. Incidence rate 97. What is the purpose of a motion to suppress? A. An agreement struck between a criminal defendant and a prosecutor B. To punish an offender for disrupting the integrity of the court C. A request to exclude evidence from the trial because it was illegally obtained D. To provide a defense such as insanity or self-defense 98. What is an illegal action or activity for which a person can be punished by law? A. Patrol B. A Crime C. Ballistics D. Report Writing 99. Which discipline involves the study of bullets and ammunition through the comparison of fired bullets, cartridges, guns, and gunpowder patterns? A. Toolmarks B. Trace Chemistry C. Latent Prints D. Ballistics (Firearms) 100. Which of the following is NOT an element required for an arrest to take place? A. The authority to arrest B. The permission of the arrestee C. The intent to arrest D. Seizure or detention
