Immunology PDF - Multiple Choice Questions

NOTE : MCQS Questions + MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTIONS+ MISMATCHED QUESTIONS= 409+ 45 + 16= 470 MCQ Questions + 107 FALSE Questions = 577 Questions MCQS Questions: 470 1. Question N1 A complement: A) Enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and...

NOTE : MCQS Questions + MULTIPLE ANSWER QUESTIONS+ MISMATCHED QUESTIONS= 409+ 45 + 16= 470 MCQ Questions + 107 FALSE Questions = 577 Questions MCQS Questions: 470 1. Question N1 A complement: A) Enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells B) Promotes inflammation C) Attacks the pathogen's cell membrane D) Is part of the innate immune system E) All of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 2. Question N2 An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is A. unbroken skin B. lysozyme in saliva C. cilia in the respiratory tract D. cytotoxic T cells E. mucous membranes Question N3 Normal flora help protect the body from pathogens A. By producing toxins that kill pathogens B. By competing with pathogenic bacteria C. By directly attacking pathogens D. By altering the body's immune response Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N4 Which type of lymphocyte is involved in nonspecific immune defense? A. B cells B. T cells C. NK cells D. Plasma cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 5.Which of the following white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Lymphocyte D. Neutrophil E. Dendritic cell 6. Antibodies clear out antigens by b. Neutralization b. Agglutination C. Precipitation 1 d. None of them Question N7 Antibodies are A) Opsonins B) Antigens C) Cytokines D) Hormones Point: 0.34999999999999998 8. Any substance that promotes phagocytosis of antigens by binding to them are: A. a.Opsonins B. b.Phagocytes C. C.Interferons D. d.Interleukins 9-The phenomenon of selective proliferation of b cells in response to their interaction with the antigen is a. Clonal differentiation b. Clonal expression c. Monoclonal selection d. bClonal proliferation Question N10 The second most abundant antibody is A. IgG B. IgM C. Ig A D. IgE E. IgD 11.Cytokines always act: A. in an autocrine fashion B. by binding to specific receptors C. in an autocrine fashion D. at long range E. antagonistically with other cytokines 12. Which of the following is characteristically produced by the Th2 CD4 cells which provide help for antibody production, but not by Th1 cells? A. IFNy B. Lymphotoxin (TNFB) C. Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) D. IL-4 E. IL-1 13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity? A. The cells originate in bone marrow B. Cells are processed in the thymus gland C. It can inhibit the immune response D. B cells make antibodies E. T cells react with antigens 14. Which of the following are NOT lymphocytes? A. Cytotoxic T cells 2 B. Helper T cells C. NK cells D. M cells E. B cells 15. Treg cell deficiency could result in a. Increased number of viral infections b. Increased number of bacterial infections c. Autoimmunity d. Increased severity of bacterial infections e. Transplant rejection 16.Which of the following diseases has been completely eradicated worldwide? A. Measles B. Smallpox C. Tuberculosis D. Cowpox E. Psittacosis 17.BCG is used to protect against: A. Rabies B. Tuberculosis C. Hepatitis B D. Influenza E. Pertussis 18. To which one of the following groups would it be acceptable to give a live attenuated viral vaccine? A. Pregnant mothers B. Patients treated with steroids C. Children under 8 years of age D. Patients with leukemia E. Patients treated with radiotherapy 19.The ability of an organism to resist infections by the pathogens is called___________ A. Infection B. Hypersensitivity C. Immunity D. Allergy 20. Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination A. Vaccination is a method of active immunisation B. Vaccination is a method of passive immunisation C. Vaccination is a method of artificial passive immunisation D. Vaccination is a method of natural passe 21. Leukotrienes cause A. neutrophils to migrate to an area of inflammation 3  B. dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area C. apoptosis of cells D. the release of digestive enzymes outside the cell 22.Which of the following option is the mechanism for induction of immune tolerance A. positive selection B. Negative selection C. clonal selection D. clonal expansion 23. The inability to distinguish between self-cells and non-self-cells may lead to: A. Hypersensitivity B. Auto-immune diseases C. Immunodeficiency D. Tolerance Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N24 An autoimmune disorder occurs when a person’s immune system: A. Fails to respond to infections B. Overproduces antibodies C. Attacks healthy body tissue D. Ignores harmful pathogens Point: 0.34999999999999998 25.How many autoimmune disorders are there? A. under 20 B. under 40 C. under 60 D. over 80 26.Which of the following is a diagnostic marker for tumors of the colon? A. Alpha-fetoprotein B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) C. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells D. EBV-related antigens 27.Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also sometimes found on tumors are known as: A. Oncofetal antigens B. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) C. Maternal D. Neonatal 28.The normal immunological control of tumors is referred to as A. immunological tolerance B. immune surveillance C. type II hypersensitivity 4  D. immunological silence E. superantigen recognition 29.The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to A. increased use of antibiotics B. improved handwashing C. vaccinations D. antibiotic resistant microorganisms E. none of the answers is correct 30. Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called? A) bacteremia B) focal infection C) local infection D) septicemia E) systemic infection 31.Which one of the following contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections? A. antibiotic resistance B. lapse in aseptic techniques C. lack of handwashing D. lack of insect control E. All of those contribute 32.Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota A. cause diseases. B. are found in a certain location on the host. C. are always acquired by direct contact. D. are present for a relatively short time. E. never cause disease. Question N33 Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE? A) They occur in compromised patients. B) They may be caused by opportunists. C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria. D) They may be caused by normal microbiota. E) The patient can be infected before hospitalization. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N34 Which of the following is the causative agent of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis? a. Naegleria fowleri b. Entameba histolyticum c. Amoeba proteus d. Aranthamoeba nolynhaga E. Acanthamoeba polyphaga Point: 0.34999999999999998 35.What is ringworm of the groin called? 5  A. tinea capitis B. tineacruris C. tinea pedis D. taenia saginatat E. taenia solium Question N36 What is the name of the disease that is characterized by a localized toxin that causes bullae? A. Bullous pemphigoid B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Dermatitis herpetiformis D. Bullous impedigo Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N37 What condition is characterized by fever, vomiting, sunburnt like rash followed by shock and sometimes organ failure (also may lead to scaled skin syndrome)? What is the organism responsible? A. Scarlet fever B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Toxic epidermal necrolysis D. Toxic shock syndrome- Streptococcus pyogenes Point: 0.34999999999999998 38. What is another term for shingles? What is the causative agent? A. Variola-orthopoxvirus B. Varicella-zoster -HHV-3 C. Herpes-zoster - HHV-3 D. Roseola - HHV-7 Question N39 A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Mycobacterium leprae c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Haemophilus influenzae Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N40 Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent? A. Inactivated polio vaccine B. Oral polio vaccine C. Tetanus toxoid vaccine D. Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine E. Meningococcal capsule vaccine Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N41 Hansen’s disease is the more formal name for 6 A. Tuberculosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Malaria E. Neisseria meningitis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N42 What is the biological vector for African sleeping sickness? A. Mosquito B. tsetse fly (Glossina species) C. deer tick D. sand fly Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N43 Causative agent of fulminant meningitis is A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Haemophilus inluenzae type B D. Listeria monocytogenes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N44 Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Chagas' disease C) Plague D) Bartonella E) None of these diseases is transmitted by cats. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N45 Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics? A) tularemia B) anthrax C) plague D) ebola E) lyme disease Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N46 Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection? A) Borrelia B) cytomegalovirus C) Spirillum D) Toxoplasma E) Yersinia Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N47 Epstein-Barr virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT A) endocarditis. B) infectious mononucleosis. C) Burkitt's lymphoma. D) nasopharyngeal carcinoma. E) Hodgkin's disease. 7 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N48 Which of the following is the predominant pathogen associated with recurrent acute otitis media? a) Haemophilus influenzae b) Chlamydia trachomatis c) Moraxella catarrhalis d) Staphylococcus aureus e) Streptococcus pneumoniae Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N49 In a 45-year-old patient presenting with a sore throat, fever of 100ºF, swollen anterior cervical nodes, no cough, and tonsillar exudates, the suggested actions would be A. Prescribe antiviral medication B. Perform a throat culture, and treat with an antibiotic if culture is positive C. Prescribe over-the-counter pain relievers and rest D. Perform a chest X-ray to rule out pneumonia Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N50 Symptoms and signs of acute sinusitis include all the following except A. facial pain or pressure B. nasal congestion C. purulent nasal discharge D. epistaxis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N51 What is the most common invader of the nasopharynx? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Viruses D. Parasites Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N52 ____ and _____ make up more than 50% of colds A. Adenovirus and enterovirus B. Rhinovirus and coronavirus C. Influenza virus and parainfluenza virus D. Respiratory syncytial virus and metapneumovirus E. coronavirus and cytomegalovirus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N53 Several serious fungal infections affect the lower respiratory system mainly because fungi a. are dimorphic b. are opportunistic C. produce spores d. produce toxic proteins Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N54 Which fungus commonly causes cutaneous ulcers and can cause extensive abscess formation and tissue destruction? 8 A. Candida albicans B. Aspergillus fumigatus C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Blastomyces dermatitidis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N55 The mycolic acids of the cell wall are an important factor in the pathogenicity of the organisms that cause a) influenza b) diphtheria c) pertussis d) tuberculosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N56 Which of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE? A) The causative agent is a virus. B) The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia. C) The causative agent cannot be cultured. D) Treatment is tetracyclines. E) Annual vaccination can prevent infection Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N57 Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza? A) fever B) chills C) headache D) diarrhea E) muscle aches Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N58 Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE? A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin. B) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food. C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes. D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes. E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms. D. It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N59 The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is A. Shigella spp. B. Salmonella enterica. C. Giardia lamblia. D. Escherichia coli. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N60 Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and commonly affects children is probably caused by A. Giardia B. Rotavirus C. Salmonella 9 D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Trichinella Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N61 Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT A) trichinellosis. B) beef tapeworm. C) staphylococcal food poisoning. D) salmonellosis. E) shigellosis. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N62 Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the A. stomach and small intestine B. stomach C. mouth D. small intestine and large intestine e. accessory structures Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N63 All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) Syphilis B) Gonorrhea C) nongonococcal urethritis D) genital herpes E) lymphogranuloma vanereum Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N64 Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) gonorrhea B) syphilis C) genital herpes D) chancroid E) LGV Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N65 Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) gonorrhea B) lymphogranuloma venereum C) nongonococcal urethritis D) candidiasis E) syphilis D) lymphogranuloma venereum Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N66 Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. 10 C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) streptococci. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N67 Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) Trichomoniasis B) gential herpes C) candidiasis D) gonorrhea E) chancroid Point: 0.34999999999999998 N70 T cells are made in the_____ A. Bone marrow B. Spleen C. Thymus D.Tonsils E MALT Question Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N68 Mucus-secreting membranes are found in the A. urinary system. B. digestive cavity. C. respiratory passages. D. all of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N69 Immune system of humans consists of: A. Organs B.Cells c. Molecules D. All of them E.None of them Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N70 Cell drinking is referred to as A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Endocytosis Point: 0.34999999999999998’ Question N71 Engulfing of bacteria by white blood cells is called as A. Phagocytosis 11 B. Pinocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Endocytosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N72 The specificity of an antibody is due to A) Its valence B) The H chains C) The L chains. D) The constant portions of the H and L chains. E) The variable portions of the H and L chains Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N73 Large size antibodies that agglutinate antigens are A) Ig G B) Ig M C) Ig E D) Ig A E) Ig D Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N74 Antigens can be A) Proteins B) Polysaccharides C) Lipids D) Nucleic acids E) All of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N75 An antibody has a) 2 Fab regions and an Fc region b) an Fab region and an Fc region c) 2 Fab regions and 2 Fc regions d) many Fab regions and many Fc regions Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N76 Each Y-shaped antibody is made up of: A. Four heavy and two light chains B. Two heavy and four light chains C. Two heavy and three light chains D. Two heavy and two light chains Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N77 Which of the following is expressed in T cells that interact with antigen epitope? A. T-cell receptor (TCR) B. B cell receptor (BCR) C. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) D. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) Point: 0.34999999999999998 12 Question N78 Which of the following immune cells are not derived from lymphoid progenitor cells? A. T cells B. B cells C. Natural killer (NK) cells D. Neutrophils Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N79 The different lineage of the lymphocytes can be distinguished by characterizing the expression of their membrane molecules called the cluster of differentiation (CD). Which of the following CD is only found in B-cells? A) CD4 B) CD8 C) CD40 D) CD 19, 20 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N80 Which of the following cell plays a crucial role in antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity A. T cells B. Neutrophils C. B cells D. Natural killer (NK) cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N81 Immunogens are the antigens that can evoke an immune response. Which of the following is not an immunogen? a) Protein b) Lipopolysaccharides c) Polysaccharides d) Hapten Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N82 The hybridomas are made by : A) fusinf T cells with myloma cells B) fusing B cells with myeloma cells C) fusing T helper cells with with myeloma cells D) fusing B memory cells with myeloma cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N83 The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies is : A) Massculture technology B) Hybridoma technology C) Suspension culture D) none of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N84 What is a radioimmunoassay intended to measure? A) The amount of a specific antigen in a blood sample B) The amount of a nonspecific PAMP in a blood sample 13  C) The number of white blood cells in a blood sample D) How well a person's immune system is functioning Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N85 Direct Fluorescent Antibody Technique detects the presence of what immune-related protein? A) This technique tests for the presence of antibodies. B) This technique tests for the presence of transport proteins C) This technique tests for the presence of non-specific proteoglycans. D) This technique tests for the presence of ligand binding proteins. E) This technique tests for the presence of antigens. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N86 Another term for Western blotting is A) Southern analysis B) Northern analysis C) immunostaining D) Immunoblotting E) Immunoprecipitation Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N87 What type of cells are generally found in lower concentration in autoimmune disease? A) T cells B) B cells C) Treg D) Macrophages E) CTL Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N88 Which of these is an autoimmune disease? A) Type 1 diabetes B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Psoriasis D) AIDS E) A, B and C Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N89 In severe combine immune deficiency (SCID) the patients are deficient in A) B cells B) T cells C) Both A and B cells D) IgA Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N90 HIV virus has a protein coat and a genetic material, which is A) double stranded DNA B) single stranded RNA C) double stranded RNA D) single stranded DNA 14 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N91 HIV belongs to which of the following families of the virus? A) Retrovirus B) Lentivirus C) Togavirus D) Adenovirus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N92 The causative agent for AIDS was first of all identified in 1984 and was named as: a. HIV-1 b. HIV-2 c. HTLV-III d. LAV Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N93 In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? A) prodromal B) decline C) convalescence D) incubation E) incubation and convalescence Point: 0.35 Question N94 Normal microbiota can benefit the host by preventing the overgrowth of harmful microorganisms. This is called A) Microbial antagonism B) Symbiosis C) Parasitism D) Opportunistic infection Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N95 Elimination of the normal microbiota (by antibiotics, for example) can result in a. Fewer diseases b. Immediate return of the normal microbiota c. Increased susceptibility to disease d. Absence of bacterial growth Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N96 A disease acquired by many people in a given area in a relatively short period of time is called A) pandemic B) epidemic. C) sporadic. D) endemic. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N97 A period of illness is typically followed by a(n) A) period of decline B) incubation period C) prodromal period D) period of convalescence 15 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N98 An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have? A. Chikenpox B. Measels C. Fever blisters D. Scabies E. Rubella Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N99 Which of the following is NOT true of acne? A) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet. B) It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium. C) Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne. D) Mild cases are treated with topical agents. E) Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N100 Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of : A) rubella B) smallpox C) fifth disease D) chickenpox E) measles Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N101 All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT : A) Rubella B) Measles C) Smallpox D) Tinea E) Chicken Pox Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N102 Thrush and vaginitis are caused by : A) herpesvirus. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Candida albicans. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N103 Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by A) exposure to bird droppings. B) mosquito bites. C) swimming in warm ponds or streams. D) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material. E) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual Point: 0.34999999999999998 16 Question N104 Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by A. Gram stain. B. direct fluorescent-antibody test. C. passive agglutination. D. patient's symptoms. E. patient's death. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N105 Which of the following is treated with antibiotics? A. Botulism B. Polio C. streptococcal pneumonia D. Tetanus E. All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N106 Which of the following is a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis? A) Acanthamoeba B) Naegleria C) Entamoeba D) Naegleria and acanthamoeba E) Entamoeba and naegleria Point: 0.35 Question N107 Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism? A. Haemophilus B. Listeria C. Naegleria D. Neisseria E. Streptococcus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N108 A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having A) Streptococcal pharyngitis B) Scarlet fever C) Viral pharyngitis D) Tonsillitis E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided F) Mononucleosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N109 _____ is a common cause of sore throat and often infects the conjunctiva as well as the pharynx to cause pharyngoconjunctival fever. A) Adenovirus B) Epstein-Barr virus C) Cytomegalovirus D) Herpes simplex virus 17  E) Streptococcus pyogenes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N110 What is the medical term for the common cold? A) Upper respiratory infection B) Acute bronchitis C) Pharyngitis D) Sinusitis E) Laryngitis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N111 What is the cure for the common cold? A) Antibiotics B) Antiviral medications C) Immunization D) There is no cure for the common cold E) Surgery Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N112 What is the proper medical term for a nosebleed? A) Nasopharyngitis B) Sinusitis C) Rhinorrhea D) Epistaxis E) Pharyngitis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N113 Which disease is seldom transmitted from one human to another but is usually spread by contact with bird droppings and exudates? A) Psittacosis B) Pontiac fever C) Melioidosis D) Q fever Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N114 Typical pneumoni is caused by which bacterium? a a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Legionella pneumophila e. Chlamydophila pneumoniae Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N115 What is the reservoir for Q fever? A. Large mammals B. Humans C. Small mammals D. Rodents Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N116 Currently, the influenza viruses used for manufacturing vaccines are grown in a. Bacterial cultures 18 b. Mammalian cell lines c. Embryonated egg cultures d. Yeast cultures e. Plant-based systems Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N117 Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by A) biological vectors. B) contaminated food and water. C) unpasteurized milk. D) the respiratory route. E) exposure to contaminated soil. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N118 Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with A) antitoxin. B) penicillin. C) water and electrolytes. D) quinacrine. E) thorough cooking. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N119 The most common mode of HAV transmission is A. Contamination of food during preparation B. Blood transfusion C. Contaminated hypodermic needles D. Airborne Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N120 Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus A) Campylobacter jejuni. B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi. D) Shigella spp. E) Vibrio cholerae. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N121 All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT A) Clostridium perfringens; B) Escherichia coli. C) Salmonella typhi; D) Shigella spp; E) Yersinia enterocolitica Point: 0.35 Question N122 Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) Genital herpes 19  C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis E) Lymphogranuloma venereum Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N123 Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of A) gardnerella vaginosis B) genital herpes C) candidiasis D) trichomoniasis E) lymphogranuloma venereum Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N124 A positive LE text and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) Cystitis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Urethritis. D) Pyelonephritis. E) Genital herpes. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N125 The classical and alternative pathways meet at complement component: A. C4 B. C4b C. factor D D. C5 E. C3 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N126 Which of these is not a clinical feature of inflammation? A) Redness B) Swelling C) Pain D) Necrosis E) Heat Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N127 Which of these processes is NOT one of the cellular events involved in the inflammatory process? A) Vasodilation B) Clonal selection C) Leukocyte migration D) Phagocytosis E) Release of inflammatory mediators Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N128 What is the main effect of histamine? A) Constriction of bronchioles 20  B) Dilation of arterioles C) Decrease in gastric acid secretion D) Increase in blood glucose levels E) Inhibition of leukocyte migration Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N129 The membrane attack complex in the complement pathway consists of: A) C3b, C4b, C5a B) C5a, C6, C7, C8, C9 C) C1, C2, C3 D) C3a, C4a, C5b E) C1q, C2, C3b Answer: B. C5b,6,7,8,9 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N130 Humoral immunity is also called as: A) Antibody mediated immunity B) Non-specific immune response C) Antigen mediated immunity D) All of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N131 Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding plasma cells a. Plasma cells are the effector cells b. plasma cells secretes antibodies c. the precursor of plasma cell is B cell d. plasma cell has surface receptors (BCR) Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N132 Origin and maturation of the B cells take place in a. Thymus b. Bone marrow c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes e. Peripheral blood Point: 0.34999999999999998 N133 Helper T cells recognize antigen on antigen-presenting cells as antigen a. with MHC class I product b. with MHC class III product c. with MHC class II product d. with MHC class IV product e. with MHC class V product Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N134 Following a single intravenous injection of antigen, antibody formation primarily occurs in the a. Peyer's patches b. lymph nodes c. spleen d. thymus 21 e. bone marrow Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N135 2.CTL Cells a. Produce antibodies b. Release histamine and cytokines c. Release perforin and granzymes d. Phagocytize pathogens e. Present antigens to helper T cells Note : CTL Cells :Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) Cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N136 HLAs corresponding to MHC class I present peptides A) from inside the cell to CD8+ cells B) from inside the cell to CD4+ celle C) from outside of the cell to M cell D) from outside of the cell to B cell E) from outside of the cell to TH Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N137 T cells respond to Ag by A) BCR B) Toll like receptor C) Nod like receptor D) KIR and KAR receptor E) TCR Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N138 Vaccines against viruses are usually a) Given at birth b) Expensive c) Either live-attenuated or killed d) Mainly polysaccharide Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N139 From this list, the most effective vaccine is against a) Staphylococci b) HIV c) Tetanus d) Adenovirus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N146 Successful immunisation can be impaired by a) Adjuvants b) Cytokines c) Cloning the vaccine d) Maternal antibody Point: 0.34999999999999998 22 Question N140 Vaccinating against which disease has been shown to prevent the occurrence of cervical cancer in women? Answer: a. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) c. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) d. Human papillomavirus (HPV) e. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) d. HPV Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N141 What is the most successful and most widely used 'travel' vaccine for international visitors? A) Hepatitis A B) Typhoid C) Yellow Fever D) Cholera E) Meningococcal Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N142 Which of the following is not an example of Type I hypersensitivity reaction? A) Asthma B) Allergic Rhinitis C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus D) Atopic Dermatitis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N143 The type I early response occur within minutes of allergic response. Which of the following is the early mediator of type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Histamine B. Leukotrienes C. Prostaglandins D. All of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N144 The type I late response occurs hours later and involves the following mediators. A. 1L4 B. IL-5 C. TNF-a D. All of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N145 Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by: A. Erythrocytes B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. T cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 23 Question N146 The principal antibodies involved in type II hypersensitivity are: A. IgA and IgG B. IgA and IgD C. IgG and IgM D. IgD and IgB E. IgG and IgE Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N147 Which of the following is a way to reduce your risk of getting cancer? A. Don't smoke or use tobacco B. Exercise C. Use sunscreen to protect your skin while outside D. Eat fruits and vegetables E. All of the Above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N148 Which of the viruses below causes cancer resulting from chronic infection? A. Herpes simplex viruses ( HSV) B. Human papilloma virus C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) D. Answer B and C Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N149 Cancer of the blood cells is referred to as A. Kaposi sarcoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Mesothelioma D. Leukemia Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N150 Which of the following cancers is only found in men? A. Breast Cancer B. Leukemia C. Lung cancer D. Ovarian cancer E. Prostate cancer F. Pancreatic cancer Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N151 Which of the following cancers is often caused by smoking? a. Breast cancer b. Colorectal cancer c. Lung cancer d. Prostate cancer e. Ovarian cancer Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N152 Which of the following statements regarding symbiosis is TRUE? 24  A. Membranes of symbiotic relationship cannot be differentiated. B. Membranes of symbiotic relationship cannot C. A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host D. Symbiosis refers to different E. At least one membrane must benefit in a symbiotic relationship organisms living together and benefiting Point: 0.34999999999999998 from each other Question N153 A nosocomial infection is A. acquired during the course of hospitalization B. always caused by medical personnel C. only result of surgery D. always caused by pathogenic bacteria Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N154 The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. C) microorganisms can be cultured D) microorganisms cause disease. E) microorganisms are the result of disease. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N155 Which of the following is a verified exception in the use of Koch’s postulates? A. Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies B. Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions C. Some human diseases have no other known animal host D. Some diseases are not caused by microbes E. All these are exceptions Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N156 Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection? A. botulism B. tuberculosis C. measles D. the common cold E. diphtheria Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N157 Warts are caused by A. Human papillomavirus. B. Parvovirus. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Poxvirus. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N158 Which of these viruses can spread to the eye to causing a Keratoconjunctivitis ? A. Human papillomavirus b. Herpes simplex virus 1 25 c. Parvovirus 19 d. Circoviruses Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N159 Adenoviruses can cause: a. Viral conjunctivitis b. Tuberculosis c. Herpes simplex d. Lyme disease e. Chickenpox Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N160 Which of the following diseases can NOT be prevented with a vaccine? A. Tetanus B. Pneumococcal meningitis C. Meningococcal meningitis D. Listeriosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N161 All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT A. It is also know as sleeping sickness B. All subspecies of typanosoma brucei have multiple hosts C. It is transmitted by the teste fly D. Death ultimately occurs without proper treatment E. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N162 Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because A. No medications exist for treatment of these infections B. Antibiotics damage nervous tissue C. Many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier D. The infections move along peripheral nerves E. It is very difficult to determine the causative microbe Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N163 Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE? A. A healthy carrier state can exist. B. It is encapsulated. C. It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions. D. Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash. E. It is a gram-positive anaerobe Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N164 All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) Neisseria meningitidis. B) Haemophilus influenzae. 26 C) Listeria monocytogenes. D) Cryptococcus neoformans. E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N165 Select the correct answer about the following statements related to rabies A. Rabies is caused by a virus. B. Rabies can be prevented with a vaccine. C. Rabies is typically transmitted through the bite of an infected animal. D. Once symptoms appear, rabies is almost always fatal. E. All of the answers are correct Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N166 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis? A) Aerobic B) Gram-positive C) Forms endospores D) Found in soil E) Produces endotoxins Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N167 The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT A. Necrotizing exotoxins. B. Proteolytic enzymes. C. Microbial fermentation. D. Hyaluronidase. E. Endocarditis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N168 Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites? A) Pasteurella multocida B) Streptobacillus C) Bartonella henselae D) Fusobacterium E) None of the answers is correct, all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog or cat bites Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N169 Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE? A) It is caused by a protozoan. B) The reservoir is cats. C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route. D) It is a severe illness in adults. E) It can be congenital. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N170 The most threatening infectious disease of the upper respiratory tract is a) epiglottitis. b) pharyngitis. c) laryngitis. 27 d) sinusitis. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N171 Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT A) strep throat; B) scarlet fever; C) rheumatic fever. D) pharyngitis; E) epiglottitis. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N172 Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins? A) diphtheria B) tuberculosis C) whooping cough D) scarlet fever E) psittacosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N173 All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT A) ethambutol B) isoniazid C) fluoroquinolones D) rifampin E) pyrazinamide Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N174 Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) None of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N175 Soil is a reservoir for all of the following EXCEPT A) Q fever B) melioidosis C) blastomycosis D) histoplasmosis E) coccidioidomycosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N176 All of the following are classified as fungi EXCEPT A) Blastomyces. B) Coccidioides. C) Histoplasma. D) Mycobacterium. E) Pneumocystis 28 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N177 Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by A. Eating contaminated food (false answer) B. A blood transfusion C. Extended use of antibiotics D. Improper food storage E. Travel to an underdeveloped country Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N178 Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? A. it is a bacterial infection B. severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested C. a healthy carrier state exists D. the mortality rate is high E. it is often associated with Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N179 Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Vibrio cholerae. C) Shigella dysenteriae. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Clostridium botulinum. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N180 Which of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route? A) Staphylococcal enterotoxicosis B) Mumps C) Vibrio gastroenteritis D) Bacillary dysentery E) Traveler's diarrhea Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N181 Poultry products are a likely source of infection by A. Helicobacter pylori B. Salmonella enterica C. Vibrio cholerae D. Shigella spp E. Clostridium perfringens Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N182 Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli B) Leptospira interrogans C) Candida albicans D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 29 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N183 Pyelonephritis may result from A. urethritis B. cystitis C. ureteritis D. systemic infections E. All of the answers are correct Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N184 Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Proteus spp C) Escherichia coli D) Enterobacter aerogenes E) Streptococcus pyogenes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N185 Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) Chancroid E) Trichomoniasis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N186 Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A. Genital herpes B. Genital warts C. Candidiasis D. Syphilis E. Trichomoniasis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N187 IgM is structurally characterized as: A. Monomeric B. Dimeric C. Trimeric D. Tetrameric E. Pentameric Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N188 Gamma globulin serum fraction contains predominantly which immunoglobulin? A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgG E. IgD Point: 0.34999999999999998 30 Question N189 one of the immunoglobulin molecules found as a dimer in secretions is A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgE E. IgM Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N190 Each antibody that is produced by a plasma cell is: A. Able to bind to bacteria, but not viruses B. Identical to antibodies produced by all other plasma cells C. Non-specific to any antigen D. Unique to a specific antigen E. Universal in its binding to all pathogens Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N191 Humoral immunity is mediated by: A. B cells B. Macrophages C. both a and b D. phagocytes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N192 Cytotoxic T cells which kill their targets A. Are mostly CD4+ B. Act via perforin and granzyme B C. Recognise glycolipids in the context of MHC class-I molecules D. Also secrete IL-4 and IL-5 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N193 CD4 T cells differentiate into different functional subsets including a) Th1 cells secreting IL-4 to activate macrophages b) Th2 cells making IL-5 and IL-13 to kill viruses c) Th17 cells to promote recruitment of neutrophils d) Polyfunctional T cells that secrete IFNY, IL-4 and IL-17 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N194 Which of the following are the characteristics of acquired immunity? a. Specificity b. Memory c. Ability to distinguish self from non-self d. All of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N195 TH17 produces A. IL-4 B. IL-10 C. IL-2 D. IL-17 31  E. IFN-γ Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N196 CD8 is a receptor for: a. MHC class II molecules b. Antibodies c. Cytokines d. Complement proteins e. MHC class I molecules Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N197 Agglutination A. Occurs with particulate antigen B. Occurs with a free solube antigen uses an enzyme for the indicator C. Uses an enzyme fot the indicator D. Uses antihuman immune serum globulin Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N198 Mabs are used in a) the screening of recombinants b) diagnostic kits c) the treatment of many cancers d) all of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N199 All are Mabs except a) Rituximab b) Transtuzumab c) Infliximab d) tamoxifen Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N200 Mabs are; A. specific towards a paratope B. specific towards an epitope C. specific towards an PAMP D. none of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N201 The concept of vaccination was first developed by a. Jenner b. Pasteur c. Koch d. Lister e. Fleming Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N202 The name of the treatment regimen commonly used to treat HIV/AIDS is ____. a. Antibiotic therapy b. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) c. Corticosteroids 32 d. Immunotherapy e. Chemotherapy Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N203 What is the type of immune cell attacked by HIV? A. CD4 B. CD8 C. CD4, CD25 D. CD19, CD20 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N204 What’s the difference between HIV and AIDS? A. HIV can lead to AIDS. B. AIDS is a virus, while HIV is a syndrome. C. HIV and AIDS are the same condition. D. AIDS is less severe than HIV. E. HIV is curable, while AIDS is not. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N205 Congenital or acquired conditions where the production or function of immune cells phagocytes or complement is abnormal. a. Autoimmune disorders b. Allergic reactions c. Immunodeficiency d. Inflammatory diseases e. Neoplastic disorders Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N206 Which of the following best describes cancer as a disease? A. Transmitted by insects B. Caused by infected water C. Uncontrolled cell growth D. Treated with antibiotics Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N207 The spread of disease agents via contaminated water is an example of ___ transmission A. mechanical B. direct contact C. vehicle D. biological Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N208 A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as A) zoonotic B)acute C) latent D)subclinical 33 E)subacute Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N209 In Figure 1 when is the prevalence the highest? a. March b. July c. February d. January e. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N210 A commensal bacterium A) does not infect its host B) is beneficial to its host C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen D) does not receive any benefit from its host E) is beneficial to, and does not infect, its host Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N211 A 30 year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? A. Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid B. CT scan of the head C. Complete blood count (CBC) D. Blood culture E. Urinalysis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N212 Arboviruses cause ___ and are transmitted by ___. A. Meningitis; bee stings B. Meningitis; mosquitoes C. Encephalitis; dog bites D. Encephalitis; mosquitoes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N213 Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium? A. epidemic typhus B. tickborne typhus C. malaria D. plague E. relapsing fever Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N214 Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is FALSE? A. the cercariae penetrate human skin B. a parasite of birds cause swimmer’s itch in human C. the intermediate hose is an aquatic snail D. it is caused by a roundworm Point: 0.34999999999999998 34 Question N215 Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta? A) Borrelia B) cytomegalovirus C) Yersinia D) Toxoplasma E) Spirillum Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N216 The erythrogenic toxin produced by a strain of Streptococcus pyogenes that was lysogenized causes a. Scarlet fever b. Rheumatic fever c. Impetigo d. Necrotizing fasciitis e. Pharyngitis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N217 One of the most common causes of viral respiratory disease in infants is a. Adenovirus b. Influenza virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) d. Parainfluenza virus e. Rhinovirus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N218 The pathogenicity of group A streptococci is enhanced by their resistance to phagocytosis and their ability to produce a. Streptokinase b. Hyaluronidase c. M-protein d. Streptolysin e. Exotoxin A Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N219 Rhinoviruses thrive at a. body temperature b. slightly above body temperature C. slightly below body temperature d. 10 degrees below body temperature Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N220 Which antibodies in tears, saliva, and mucus help protect mucosal surfaces from many pathogens? A. IgD B. IgA C. IgG D. IgM Point: 0.34999999999999998 35 Question N221 What is the etiological agent for the disease that has catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescence stages? A. Pertussis B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Burkholderia pseudomallei D. Bordetella pertussis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N222 “Walking pneumonia” is caused by a. Legionella pneumophila b. Chlamydophila pneumoniae c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N223 Which intracellular bacterium is resistant enough to survive airborne transmission? a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Legionella pneumophila d. Coxiella burnetii e. Brucella species Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N224 The population of microorganisms in the large intestine is composed mostly of A. Aerobes and strict aerobes B. Strict anaerobes and facultative anaerobes C. Microaerophiles and obligate aerobes D. Facultative aerobes and pathogens E. Yeasts and molds Answer: B) Anaerobes and facultative anaerobes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N225 Paneth cells, which are capable of phagocytizing bacteria, are found in the A. Small intestine. B. Large intestine. C. Stomach. D. Pancreas. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N226 When microbes are allowed to incubate in food, the situation is called A. Temperature abuse B. Food intoxication C. Food infection D. Food poisoning Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N227 Bacillary dysentery is caused by A. Escherichia coli 36  B. Shigella C. Vibrio cholerae D. Campylobacter jejuni E. Salmonella enterica Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N228 Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries? A) sucrose B) lysozyme C) lactic acid D) crevicular fluid E) dentin Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N229 A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms? A. Nesseria B. HPV C. HSV-2 D. Candida E. Treponema Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N230 A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in? A) NGU B) primary C) secondary D) tertiary Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N231 A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with A) miconazole B) metronidazole C) surgery D) penicillin E) acyclovir Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N232 A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? a. Candidiasis b. Genital herpes c. Gonorrhea d. Bacterial vaginosis 37  e. Syphilis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N233 Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A. Lactobacillus B. Streptococcus C. Mycobacterium D. Neisseria E. Candida Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N234 Complement component C3b: A. Forms the membrane attack complex B. Cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b C. Acts as a chemotactic factor D. Inhibits the activity of C1 E. Opsonizes bacteria Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N235 Identify the pathogen: cause of skin infection, Gram-positive cocci, and forming clusters, coagulase-positive. Produces Leukocidin, Exfoliative toxin and TSST-1. A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Enterococcus faecalis D. Staphylococcus aureus S.aureus E. Clostridium perfringens Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N236 The prodromal symptom(s) of bacterial meningitis is/are A) mild cold symptoms. B) fever and headache. C) stiff neck and back pains. D) convulsions. E) fever, headache, and stiff neck Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N254 Legionella is transmitted by A. airborne transmission B. foodborne transmission C. person-to-person contact D. fomites E. vectors Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N237 The function of memory B cell is: a. Immediate antibody production b. Immunologic memory c. Phagocytosis of pathogens 38 d. Production of cytokines e. Activation of T cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N238 Generally antibodies produced against a pathogen is a. Monoclonal b. Homogenous C. Polyclonal d. All of same specificities Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N239 Which of the following are NOT APC? A. DC (dendritic cells) B. B Cells C. Neutrofills D. Macrophages Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N240 Which of the following statements is TRUE of CD4? A. CD4 binds to MHC class II on antigen-presenting cells B. CD4 bind to MHC class II on eosinophil C. CD4 binds processed peptide in its outer groove D. CD4 binds to MHC class II on NK cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N241 What does the term variolation refer to? A. The generation of antibody variable regions B. The attenuation of virulent orgnasims C. Inoculation of scab material into small skin wounds D. The removal of scab material form an individual with smallpox E. A type of gene therapy Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N242 The circulation of a 2-month-old breast-fed baby will contain maternal: A. complement proteins B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N243 Which of the following cancers is most common in women? A. Breast Cancer B. Leukemia C. Lung cancer D. Melanoma 39 E. Prostate cancer Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N244 Which of the following cancers is often caused by too much exposure to the Sun? A. Kaposi's sarcoma B. epidermal nevus C. sebaceous nevus D. malignant melanoma Answer: D. Melanoma Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N245 Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A. endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population B. epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world C. pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time D. sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally E. incidence: number of new cases of a disease NOTE : Epidemic: Refers to an increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a specific geographical area. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N246 Focal infections initially start out as A) sepsis. B) bacteremia. C) local infections. D) septicemia. E) systemic infections. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N247 Which of the following does NOT cause otitis media? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Coxiella burnetii Point: 0.35 Question N248 Which of the following is not a risk factor for otitis media? a. Attending daycare b. Exposure to tobacco smoke c. Bottle-feeding d. Recent upper respiratory infection e. Breastfeeding Point: 0.35 Question N249 All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT A) giardiasis. B) cholera. C) Cyclospora infection. 40 D) trichinellosis. E) cryptosporidiosis. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N250 In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting A) the eggs of Taenia saginata. B) segments of Taenia solium tapeworms. C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum eggs. D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat. E) cysticerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N251 One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Candida albicans. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N252 Acute inflammation can be initiated by: A. Mast cell activation B. Fibroblast proliferation C. Collagen synthesis D. Scar tissue formation E. Adipocyte differentiation Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N253 Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is a result of massive deposition of immune complex in various tissues? Answer: a. Type I hypersensitivity (Immediate Hypersensitivity) b. Type II hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity) c. Type III hypersensitivity (Immune Complex Hypersensitivity) d. Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity) e. Type V hypersensitivity (Stimulatory Hypersensitivity) Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N254 Which species is frequently associated with nosocomial infections transmitted via medical devices inserted into the body? A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Proproniobacterium acnes D. Bacillus anthracis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N255 The symptoms of tetanus are due to A. Endospore formation. B. Systemic infection. C. Sustained relaxation of muscles. 41  D. Toxin tetanospasmin. E. Inflammation. Answer: D. Tetanospasmin Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N256 Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE? A) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N257 which of the following is present at birth: a. Adaptive immunity b. Memory B cells c. Innate immunity d. Acquired immunity e. Antibody diversity Point: 0.35 Question N258 Contact with poison ivy would elicit which type of hypersensitivity reaction? A. type III B. type I C. type II D. type IV E. type V Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N259 An example of a type III immune complex disease is: A. contact dermatitis B. diabetes C. serum sickness D. atopy E. allergies Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N260 identify the disease with following characteristics caused by Orthopoxvirus; Variola major (20% mortality); Variola minor (~lt;1% mortality) A. chickenpox B. measles C. smallpox D. rubella Point: 0.35 Question N261 A characteristic symptom of plague is A) small red spots on the skin. B) swollen lymph nodes. C) rose-colored spots. D) recurrent fever. 42 E) nausea and vomiting. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N262 Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis? A) puerperal sepsis B) Hantavirus infection C) anthrax D) brucellosis E) tularemia Point: 0.35 Question N263 Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for all of the following diseases EXCEPT A. brucellosis B. malaria. C. epidemic typhus D. yellow fever E. plague Point: 0.35 Question N264 What is the reservoir for Legionella pneumophila? a. Soil b. Animals c. Water d. Human carriers e. Air Point: 0.35 Question N265 What allows the influenza virus to recognize and attach to body cells before infecting them? A. NA spikes B. HA spikes C. The lipid bilayer D. The protein coat Point: 0.35 Question N266 Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months D) primary infection: an initial illness E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness Point: 0.35 Question N267 Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash? A) Blastomyces B) Coccidioides C) Mycoplasma D) Streptococcus E) RSV Point: 0.34999999999999998 43 Question N268 All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT A) vaccination; B) current tuberculosis infection; C) previous tuberculosis infection; D) immunity to tuberculosis E) being near someone with tuberculosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N269 Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? Answer: A. Candida albicans B. Pneumocystis jirovecii C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) E. All of the answers are correct Question N269 Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients? A. Pneumocystis B. Aspergillus C. Coccidiodes D. Histoplasmosis E. All of the answers are correct Point: 0.35 Question N270 Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________. A. Mycotoxin; peanuts B. Enterotoxin; peanuts C. Endotoxin; peanuts D. Enterotoxin; rye or other cereal grains E. Mycotoxin; rye or other cereal grains Point: 0.35 Question N271 Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver? Answer: A. Escherichia coli B. Salmonella enterica C. Hepatitis A virus D. Vibrio cholerae E. Shigella spp Point: 0.35 Question N272 Which of the following indicates an active infection? a. Negative for leukocyte esterase b. Positive for leukocyte esterase c. Low C-reactive protein (CRP) levels d. Normal white blood cell (WBC) count e. Negative for nitrites 44 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N273 Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) arthritis B) endocarditis C) meningitis D) pelvic inflammatory disease E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea Point: 0.35 Question N274 Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) genital herpes B) gonorrhea C) syphilis D) trichomoniasis E) leptospirosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N275 The mucociliary apparatus is found in: A. The gastrointestinal tract B. The urinary tract C. The cardiovascular system D. The respiratory tract E. The skeletal system Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N276 Activation of C3a results in A) acute inflammation. B) increased blood vessel permeability. C) opsonization. D) attraction of phagocytes. E) cell lysis. Point: 0.35 Question N277 What is the term used to describe white blood cells migrating toward bacteria? a. Phagocytosis b. Opsonization c. Chemotaxis d. Diapedesis e. Endocytosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 45 Question N278 Innate immunity: A. Is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens B. Is nonspecific and present at birth C. Involves a memory component D. Involves t cells and b cells E. Provides increased susceptibility disease Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N279 Which of the following immunoglobulin is the most abundant immunoglobulin in newborns? A. IgA B. IgD C. IgG D. IgM E. IgE Point: 0.35 Question N280 Which chemical compounds rank top in terms of their antigenicity for the humoral immunity responce? A. Proteins and large polysaccharides B. Polysaccharides and nucleic acids C. Proteins and nucleic acids D. Haptens and phospholipids Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N281 The antigen presenting cells (APCs) plays a crucial role in antibody-mediated and cell-mediated immune response. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of APCs? a. Presentation of antigen peptides on MHC class II molecules b. Activation of T cells by providing necessary co-stimulatory signals c. Phagocytosis and processing of antigens d. Excess co-stimulatory signals from APCs lead to hyperactivation of an immune response e. Expression of surface molecules like CD80/86 that interact with T cell receptors Point: 0.35 Question N282 Which of the following is not the class of T cells? a. Helper T cells b. Cytotoxic T cells c. Regulatory T cells d. T-activator cells e. Memory T cells Point: 0.35 46 Question N283 The process of introduction of weakened pathogen into human body is called a. Immunotherapy b. Vaccination c. Serum therapy d. Antiviral therapy e. Chemotherapy Point: 0.35 Question N284 It is believed that the early forms of vaccination was first developed in a. 200 BC in China b. 1000 AD in India c. 1500 AD in Europe d. 1600 AD in the Middle East e. 1800 AD in the Americas Point: 0.35 Question N285 A tissue graft between two people who are not genetically identical is termed a: A) Autograft B) Isograft C) Xenograft D) Hemograft E) Allograft Point: 0.35 Question N286 The transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals is calld: A. Autograft B. kenogratt C. Allogracraft D. Syngeneic graft Point: 0.35 Question N287 The process of removal and replacement of damaged tissues or organs with healthy ones from a donor is called as A) Transplantation B) Regeneration C) Grafting D) Cloning E) Biopsy Point: 0.34999999999999998 47 Question N288 The major molecules responsible for rejection of transplant is A. B cells B. T cells C. MHC molecules D. antibodies Point: 0.35 Question N289 MHC class I is a cell surface molecule present on A) Red blood cells B) All nucleated cells C) Antigen-presenting cells D) B cells only E) Macrophages F)Non-nucleated cells G)Nucleated bodies' antigens E)Platelets Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N290 Name the therapy used to control the spread of the HIV Virus. A) Chemotherapy B) Radiation therapy C) Immunotherapy D) Anti-Retroviral therapy E) Gene therapy Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N291 AIDS is not transmitted by which of the following: A) Touching infected individuals B) Blood transfusion C) Sharing needles D) Unprotected sexual contact E) From mother to child during childbirth Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N292 A possible complication of chickenpox is A. Encephalitis. B. Macular rash. C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. 48 D. Congenital rubella syndrome. E. Fever blisters. Point: 0.35 Question N293 All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT : A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) herpes simplex. C) adenovirus. D) Streptococcus pneumoniae E) Staphylococcus aureus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N75 In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)? A. They have a similar type of rash B. They are caused by the same virus C. Encephalitis is a possible complication D. Congenital complications may occur E. They can be controlled by vaccine Point: 0.35 Question N294 Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax? A. Cutaneous B. Inhalational C. Septic D. Gastrointestinal E. none if the answers are correct: all of these are recognized forms of anthrax Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N295 Which of the following statements about tularemia is FALSE? A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis. B) The reservoir is rabbits. C) It may be transmitted by arthropods. D) It may be transmitted by direct contact. E) It occurs only in California. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N296 Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis? A. Gastroenteritis B. Relapsing fever C. Undulant fever D. Pneumonia 49  E. Jaundice Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N297 Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk? A) toxoplasmosis B) anthrax C) brucellosis D) listeriosis E) All of these can be transmitted in raw milk Point: 0.35 Question N298 The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Corynebacterium B) Haemophilus C) Bordetella D) Mycobacterium E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided Point: 0.35 Question N299 "Rice water stools" are characteristic of A. Salmonellosis B. Cholera C. Bacillary dysentery D. Amebic dysentery E. Tapeworm infestation Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N300 The Ig that mediates allergic reaction is a. Ig G b. Ig M C. Ig E d. Ig A Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N301 The order of percent of total immunoglobulin in serum is GAMED A.IgG > IgA > IgM > IgD > IgE B. IgE > IgM > IgA > IgG > IgD C.IgG > IgA > IgM > IgE > IgD D.IgD > IgE > IgG > IgM > IgA 50 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N302 Complement fixation is one of the most important host defense against infections. The complement is activated by; MG A) IgA B) IgE C) Both IgM and IgG D) IgD E) IgG alone Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N303 Which of the following antibody directly take part in opsonization process? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) IgE E) IgD Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N304 Cytokines released by TH1 cells are : A. IL- 5 B. IL- 10 C. IL-4 D. INF- gamma E. Il 17 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N305 TH cells are classified as : A. CD8+ B. CD4+ C. CD4+CD25 D. CD19.20,21 E. CD16,56 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N306 Which one of the following sets of cells can present antigen to helper T cells? A. B cells and dendritic cells B. B cells and cytotoxic T cells C. Macrophages and eosinophils D. Neutrophils and cytotoxic T cells E. Neutrophils and plasma cells 51 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N307 HLAs corresponding to MHC class II present antigens A. From outside of the cell to CD8+ T Cell B. From outside of the cell to CD4+ T Cell C. From inside the cell to NK Cell D. from inside the cell to B Cell E. From inside the cell to DC (Dendritic Cell) Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N308 Interleukins (IL) are cytokines that serve as: A. Cell growth B. Inductors of migration of leukocytes into areas of infection or tissue damage C. Strong factor in inflammatory reactions D. An antiviral agents Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N309 The first vaccine developed by Louis Pasteur was against : A. Pox virus B. Hepatitis virus C. Rabies virus D. None of these Point: 0.349999999999999998 Question N310 A vaccine can be A. An antigenic protein B. Weakened pathogen C. Live attenuated pathogen D. All of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N311 Passive immunization include A) Administration of pre-formed antibodies B) Maternal antibodies passed to the fetus C) Antibodies given through breast milk D) All of these E) None of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N312 Active immunity may be gained by A) Natural infection B) Vaccination C) Exposure to antigens 52 D) All of these E) None of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N313 Plasmids encoding antigenic protein from a pathogen that is directly injected into the cells where it express constitute A) Live attenuated vaccines B) Inactivated vaccines C) DNA vaccines D) Subunit vaccines E) Toxoid vaccines Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N314 Which of the following is a type of tumor that is NOT derived from hematopoietic cells? A. Thymoma B. Myeloma C. Leukemia D. Lymphoma E. Hodgkin's diseas Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N315 Which of the following is an example of tumor antigen associated with liver cancer? A. EBV B. PSA C. MUC-1 D. HER2 E. Alpha-Fetoprotein Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N316 Which of the following is NOT a cause of secondary immunodeficiency A) Lack of T cells due to mutations which arrest development of the thymic epithelium B) HIV infection C) Chemotherapy D) Malnutrition E) Prolonged steroid use 53 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N317 HIV initially infects cells expressing A. CD1 B. CCR5 C. CD8 D. CD36 E. CD4 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N318 Where did HIV originate? A. chimpanzee B. All of the above C. Mad cow disease D. A strain of the hepatitis virus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N319 Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection? A. a healthy person B. a sick animal C. a sick person D. a hospital E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N320 Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases? A. Malaria B. AIDS C. Tuberculosis D. Diabetis E. Typhoid Fever Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N321 Which of the following is a fomite? A) water B) droplets from a sneeze C) pus D) insects E) a surgical instrument Point: 0.34999999999999998 54 Question N322 Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE? A. The pathogen reproduces in the vector. B. The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces. C. Houseflies, as biological vectors, can transmit important diseases. D. The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector. E. The pathogen may require the vector as a host. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N323 How is the common cold diagnosed? A) Blood tests B) Chest X-ray C) Clinical presentation of symptoms D) Sputum culture E) Nasal swab for virus detection F) MRI scans G) Biopsy Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N325 All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses. B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact. C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms. D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media. E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N326 Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod? A) Bordetella pertussis B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae C) Burkholderia pseudomallei D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Pneumocystis jirovecii Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N327 The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were A) Young Adults B) Infants And The Elderly C) Residents Of Spain; Therefore, It Was Known As The Spanish Flu D) Members Of The Military E) Residents Of The U.S 55 Point: 0.35 Question N328 Gums bleeding while brushing one’s teeth is most commonly associated with A) Halitosis B) Cavities C) Gingivitis D) Periodontitis E) Trench Mouth Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N329 Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Giardia lamblia C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Trichinella spiralis E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. Clostridium perfringens Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N330 Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse? A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Trichinella spiralis D. Shigella spp. E. Salmonella enterica Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N331 A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from A) viruses grown in tissue culture. B) genetically modified yeast. C) pooled gamma globulin. D) viruses grown in embryonated eggs. E) viral particles in patients Point: 0.35 Question N332 The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) Glucose; ethanol B) Protein; acetic acid C) Glycogen; lactic acid D) Mucosal cells; lactic acid E) Urine; lactic acid Point: 0.34999999999999998 56 Question N333 A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder A) is sterile; B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) has leukocyte esterase. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N334 Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system? A) physiological valves found in the ureter B) pH of the urine C) flushing action of urine D) the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are antimicrobial features of the urinary system. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N335 Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? A) the proximity of the anus to the urethra B) the length of the urethra C) sexual intercourse D) poor personal hygiene E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are predisposing factors Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N336 TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT A) AMP's B) Flagellin C) LPS D) PAMPs E) Peptidoglycan Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N337 Which of the following is NOT a part of the inflammatory response? A) Formation of membrane attack complexes B) Increased blood flow to the affected area C) Release of histamines D) Migration of white blood cells to the site of infection E) Swelling and redness 57 Point: 0.35 Question N338 Physical barriers in the innate immune system's first line of defence include: A) A continuous barrier formed by skin and mucous membranes—several layers of densely packed cells and other materials protecting against invasion by foreign cells B) Production of antibodies C) Activation of T cells D) Release of cytokines E) Phagocytosis by macrophages Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N339 Chemical barriers in the innate immune system's first line of defence include: A) Stomach acid B) Enzymes in saliva C) Antimicrobial peptides in sweat D) Lysozymes in tears E) All of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N340 The two identical light chains of antibody belongs to A) Alpha and beta B) Gamma and delta C) Lambda and kappa D) Mu and delta E) Epsilon and zeta Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N341 Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of antibodies? A.They kill pathogens b. They bind to foreign antigens, which attract macrophages C.They bind to antibiotics so the antibiotics know which pathogen to kill D) They disrupt bacterial cell membranes directly E) They inhibit viral replication by directly interfering with viral DNA F) They neutralize toxins produced by pathogens Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N342 Which of the following antibodies are involved in causing basophils to release histamine? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE 58  D. IgD Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N343 The specific targeted responses constitute the third line of defence in response to an infectious agent and is called as A) Innate immunity B) Humoral immunity C) Cell-mediated immunity D) All of these E) None of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N344 The Major Histocompatibility Complex is a... a. set of genes b. set of proteins C. antigen presenting cell d. antigenic determinant Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N345 Macrophage activation to kill intracellular pathogens is primarily mediated by A) IL-4 B) IFN-γ C) GM-CSF D) IL-10 E) TNF-α F) IL-12 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N346 ELISA A) Uses radioactive isotopes for detection B) Uses an enzyme for the indicator C) Measures electrical conductivity D) Utilizes fluorescent markers for detection E) Detects nucleic acids directly NOTE : ELISA: (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) technique Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N347 Monoclonal antibodies used as drugs or diagnostic reagents are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Single antigen specificity 59  B. Production by a B cell hybridoma C. Single isotype D. Monovalent, with one antigen-binding site E. Known antigen specificity Point: 0.35 Question N348 ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) allows for rapid screening and quantification of the presence of _______ in a sample. A. amino acid B. DNA C. Antigens D. Protein E. RNA Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N349 Anaphylaxis can be triggerred by cross-linking of IgE receptors on: A.B cells B. Mast cells C. Dendritic cells D.Monocytes E.Tcells Point: 0.35 Question N350 Immune disorders include: A) Autoimmune diseases B) Immunodeficiency diseases C) Allergic reactions D) All of these E) None of these Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N351 There is no vaccine against HIV because of which of the following? A. The virus is so antigenically variable B. Such a vaccine would be too expensive C. The virus can be controlled by a change in sexual habits D. Latency can abrogate any vaccine effect 60 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N352 The most widespread and important retrovirus is HIV-1; which of the following is true? Answer: c) Infecting every country in the world Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N353 HIV is _________________. A. a virus that attacks the immune system B. a sexually transmitted virus C. the virus that causes AIDS D. all of the above Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N354 Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms A)are changes felt by the patient B) are changes observed by the physician C) are specific for a particular disease D) always occur as part of a syndrome E) None of the answers is correct Point: 0.35 Question N355 The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called Answer: A.ecology B.epidemiology C.communicable disease D.morbidity and mortality Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N356 The stage of disease that is characterized by early and mild symptoms is called the Answer: a. Period of illness b. Incubation period c. Prodromal period d. Period of convalescence Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N357 Skin lesions, raised, contain pus are called A) Papules B) Pustules C) Macules D) Vesicles E) Nodules 61 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N358 ___________ is a superficial fungal infection found on the head. A) Tinea cruris B) Tinea capitis C) Tinea pedis D) Tinea corporis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N359 Which of the following is most likely to cause an Acanthamoeba infection? A. Swimming in a lake while wearing contact lenses B. Being bitten by deerflies in Central Africa C. Living environments in a college dormitory with communal showers D. Participating in a contact sport such as wrestling Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N360 ___________ is a major cause of preventable blindness that can be reduced through improved sanitation. A. Ophthalmianeonatorum B. Keratitis C. Trachoma D. Cutaneous anthrax Point: 0.35 Question N361 The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is A) Treatment of infected humans. B) Treatment of infected wild animals. C) Elimination of the mosquito population. D) Avoidance of endemic areas. E) Treatment of uninfected humans. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N362 Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is Answer: A) tetanus toxoid. B) tetanus immune globulin. C) penicillin. 62 D) none; no action is necessary. E) debridement Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N363 Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely A) Lyme disease B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Relapsing fever D) Swimmer's itch E) Chagas' disease Point: 0.35 Question N364 You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because she could contract Answer: A) plague B) tularemia. C) toxoplasmosis. D) listeriosis. E) You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N365 Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program? A) chikungunya fever B) yellow fever C) dengue fever D) schistosomiasis E) malaria Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N366 Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is FALSE? A) They are present in healthy carriers B) They cause neonatal sepsis C) They cause strep throat D) They cause gram-positive sepsis E) They are classified as Streptococcus agalactiae Point: 0.35 Question N367 Which of the following is not true about Bioweapons Answer: A) Are all respiratory pathogens Have been used for centuries 63  B) Are not susceptible to antibiotics C) are all viruses D) Are impossible to detect Point: 0.35 Question N368 What is the name for the medical condition that includes the development of a thick membrane that covers the back of the throat? A) Tonsillitis B) Pharyngitis C) Laryngitis D) Epiglottitis E) Diphtheria Point: 0.35 Question N369 Each of the following statements concerning Corynebacterium diphtheriae is correct EXCEPT A) Diphtheria toxoid should not be given to children younger than 3 years because the incidence of complications is too high B)diphtheriae is a gram-positive rod that does not form spores C)Antitoxin should be used to treat patients with diphtheria D)Toxin production is dependent on the organism's being lysogenized by a bacteriophage Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N370 Which one is not included in upper the respiratory tract? A. Oral cavity B. Nasopharynx C. Paranasal D. Pharynx E. Larynx Make sure in UG correction is be D. Pharynx but is should be E. Point: 0.35 Question N371 A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? A) Bordetella B) Corynebcterium C) Burkholderia D) Mycobacterium E) mycoplasma 64 Point: 0.35 Question N372 A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has A) tuberculosis B) influenza C) pneumococcal pneumonia D) mycoplasmal pneumonia E) the common cold Point: 0.35 Question N373 Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract? A) Chlamydophila B) Legionella C) Mycobacterium D) Mycoplasma E) Streptococcus Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N374 Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it A) hides in macrophages. B) makes a capsule. C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl. D) makes HCl. E) invades epithelial cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N375 All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT Answer: A) Cryptosporidium B) Cyclospora C) Entamoeba D) Giardia E) Campylobacter Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N376 Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE? A) It is always precancerous. B) It is treated by removing them. C) It is transmitted by direct contact D) It is caused by papillomaviruses. E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women. D) It is treated by removing them 65 Point: 0.35 Question N377 Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE? A) It can be caused by C. trachomatis B) It can cause sterility and chronic pain C) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae D) It can be transmitted sexually E) It can be caused by T. pallidum Point: 0.35 Question N378 A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A) metronidazole B) cephalosporins C) acyclovir D) miconazole E) No treatment is available Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N379 A complement component which is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is: A) C9 B) C5a C) C3 D) C3b E) C5b Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N380 Acute inflammation can be initiated by: A. Mast cell activation B. Influx of neutrophils C. An increase in vascular permeability D. C3 E. Lysozyme Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N381 Which of the following cell plays a crucial role in antibody-dependent cell cyt otoxicity A) Macrophages B) Natural Killer cells c) B-cells D) Dendritic cells E) Natural Killer (NK) cells F) T cells G) cells 66 Answer: c) B-cells OR in UG Options Also APCs internalize and degrade antigens. Point: 0.35 Question N382 Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by sensitized T helper-1 cells? A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type Il hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N383 Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions is a result of massive deposition of immune complex in various tissues? A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity E) Type V hypersensitivity Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N384 M protein is produced by A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Propionibacterium acnes D. Streptococcus pyogenes Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N385 Fatal neurodegenerative diseases, caused by prions are following except A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B) Kuru C) Fatal familial insomnia D) Gerstmann-Sträussler-Scheinker syndrome E) Tetanus F)Mad cow G)Scrapoa Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N386 Which of these diseases results in meningitis caused by an encapsulated yeast? A. cryptococcosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Candidiasis D. Aspergillosis E. Blastomycosis F. Penumocystis pneumonia 67  G. coccidioidomycosis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N387 A transplant between individuals of different animal species is termed as: A) Autograft B) Isograft C) Allograft D) Homograft E) Xenograft Point: 0.35 Question N388 What type of cancer treatment uses chemicals to target cells that divide rapidly? A. Surgery B. Chemotherapy C. Radiation D. X-ray Point: 0.35 Question N389 All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT Answer: C. Most cases result in muscle paralysis Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N390 Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE? Answer: B. They develop from neutrophils Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N391 Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells? Answer: C. Natural killer cells Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N392 All about the action of Lysozyme is true except Answer: C. Breaks down cell walls of gram negative bacteria and, to a lesser extent, gram-positive Point: 0.34999999999999998 68 Question N393 MHC class II is a cell surface molecule present on not sure answers A) All nucleated cells B) Red blood cells C) Platelets D) T cells E) Antigen-presenting cells Point: 0.35 Question N394 Desensitization to prevent an allergic response can be accomplished by injecting small, repeated doses of : A. IgE antibodies. B. the antigen (allergen). C. histamine. D. IgG antibodies. E. antihistamine. Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N395 Hypersensitivity reactions are broadly classified into four different types. Which of the following hypersensitivity occurs via IgE antibody? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type Il hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N396 Why is vaccination for rubella recommended? A. Death from secondary infections is common. B. It has a high mortality rate in school-age children. C. There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects D. Health care workers have a high incidence of infection. E. It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question n397 staphylococcus aureus is most often associated with being a. Coagulase-positive b. Coagulase-negative c. Catalase-negative d. Gram-negative 69 Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N398 Which of the following is the causative agent of African trypanosomiasis, causes over 98% of reported cases and can become chronic? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma vivax C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodanese D. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense Point: 0.34999999999999998 Question N399 Which of the following animals is NOT a typical reservoir for the spread of rabies? A. Bats B. Foxes C. Raccoons D. Skunks E. Hamster F. dog G. crypt