II PUC Chemistry Question Bank PDF

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The dissolution of gas is in a liquid is governed a) Raoult’s law b) Henry's law c) Dalton’s law of pressure d) van’t Hoff factor 4. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is a) 0.009 b) 0.018 c) 0.027 d) 0.036 5. Out of following which one is not an example of a solution. a) Air b) Brass c) amalgam d) benzene in water 6. If one mole of a substance is present in one kg of solvent, then a) It shows molar concentration b) It shows molal concentration c) It shows normality d) It shows strength g/g 7. Statement I: On adding NaCl to water its vapour pressure increases Statement II: Addition of non-volatile solute increases the vapour pressure. a) Both statement I and II are correct b) Both statement I and statement II are wrong c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct 8. PA and PB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution will be a) PA+ XA(PB–PA) b) PA+ XA(PA–PB) c) PB+XA(PB–PA) d) PB+XA(PA–PB) 9. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mol of Q would be a) 72 torr b) 140 torr c) 68 torr d) 20 torr 10. The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is a) ethanol + acetone b) benzene + toluene c) acetone + chloroform d) chloroethane + bromoethane. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 2 Solutions 11. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is a) heptane + octane b) water nitric acid c) ethanol + water d) acetone + carbon disulphide. 12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding a solution of two components A and B exhibiting positive deviation from ideal behaviour? a) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are stronger than those between A-B. b) ΔVmixH = 0 at constant T and P. c) ΔVmixV = 0 at constant T and P. d) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and B-B are equal to those between A-B. 13. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25°C. (Given, vapour pressure data at 25°C, benzene 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa). a) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene. b) Not enough information is given to make a prediction. c) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene. d) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene. 14. A solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's law. a) A-B attraction force is greater than A - A and B-B b) A-B attraction force is less than A - A and B – B c) A-B attraction force remains same as A - A and B-B d) volume of solution is different from sum of volume of solute and solvent. 15. All form ideal solution except a) C6H6 and C6H5,CH3 b) C2H6 and C₂H5I c) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br d) C2H5I and C₂H5OH 16. An ideal solution is formed when its components a) have no volume change on mixing. b) have no enthalpy change on mixing. c) have both the above characteristics. d) have high solubility. 17. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be a) halved b) tripled c) unchanged d) doubled. 18. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is a) from solution having lower concentration only b) from solution having higher concentration only c) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates d) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates. 19. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by a) centrifugation b) plasmolysis c) reverse osmosis d) sedimentation. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 3 20. From the colligative properties of solution, which one is the best method for the determination of molecular weight of proteins and polymers? a) Osmotic pressure b) Lowering in vapour pressure c) Lowering in freezing point d) Elevation in boiling point 21. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (p₁), 10 g urea (p2), and 10 g sucrose (p3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is. a) P₂ > P₁> P3 b) P2>P3 > P1 c) P₁> P2> P3 d) P3> P₁> P2 22. Blood cells retain their normal shape in solution which are a) hypotonic to blood b) isotonic to blood c) hypertonic to blood d) equinormal to blood. 23. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression? a) KCl b) C6H12O6 c) Al2(SO4)3 d) K2SO4 24. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase? a) Addition of NaCl b) Addition of Na2SO4 c) Addition of 1.00 molal KI d) Addition of water 25. Which of the following salts has the same value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]? a) Na2SO4 b) Al(NO3)3 c) Al2(SO4)3 d) NaCl 26. At 25°C the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of a) Glucose b) urea c) CaCl2 d) KCl 27. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point? a) 0.01 NaCl b) 0.005m C2H5OH c) 0.005m MgI2 d) 0.005m MgSO4 28. For 0.1 M solution , the colligative property will follow the order a) NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 b) NaCl < Na2SO4 < Na3PO4 c) NaCl > Na2SO4 ≈ Na3PO4 d) NaCl < Na2SO4 = Na3PO4 29. Statement I : If red blood cells were removed from the body and placed in pure water, pressure inside the cells increases Statement II : The concentration of salt content in the cells increases. a) Both statements I and II are correct b) Both statements I and II are incorrect c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct 30. During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in equilibrium a) Liquid solvent, solid solvent b) Liquid solvent, solid solute c) Liquid solute, solid solute d) Liquid solute, solid solvent Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 4 Solutions Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: Set-1 (Plasmolysis, mole fraction, Reverse osmosis, Solid, Liquid, Molarity) 1. Desalination of water is based on reverse osmosis. 2. The shrinking of a plant cell due to overflow of water is called plasmolysis or crenation. 3. Hydrated salts are solutions of liquid in solid. 4. 22 carat gold is an example of solid in solid solution. 5. According to Henry's law the plot of equilibrium pressure versus mole fraction is linear with slope equal to H. K Set-2 (1, 0.9, lower, saturated solution, higher, unsaturated solution) 1. Red blood cells are isotonic with 0.9 % NaCl solution 2. For non-electrolytes, the van't Hoff factor (i) is 1. 3. Greater the value of Henry's constant of a gas lower is its solubility at the same partial pressure and temperature. 4. An ionic compound dissolves in water if hydration energy is higher than lattice energy. 5. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved at the same temperature and pressure is called saturated solution. Set-3 (N2, Isotonic, O2, hypotonic, Cellulose acetate, CO2) 1. In deep sea diving the disease called Bends is caused due to the dissolution of N2 in the blood. 2. At Altitude, concentration of O2 in the blood is low. people feel weak and unable to think properly this disease is called anoxia. 3. Solutions having the same osmotic pressure are called isotonic. 4. A solution with lower osmotic pressure is called hypotonic with respect to a more concentrated solution. 5. The semipermeable membrane generally used in the reverse osmosis is made up of cellulose acetate. Set-4 (Azeotrope, solvent, association, solution, dissociation, solute) 1. Osmotic pressure is the minimum pressure that must be applied on the solution side to prevent the entry of solvent from solvent to solution. 2. In osmosis, there is a net flow of solvent from solvent to solution. 3. If van’t Hoff factor is less than unity this shows that the solute undergoes association in the solution 4. If van’t Hoff factor is more than unity this shows that the solute undergoes dissociation in the solution. 5. The constant boiling mixture of two miscible liquids of a definite mole fraction is called Azeotrope. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 5 Set-5 (Helium, solvent, Xenon, increase, decrease, solute ) 1. Molal elevation constant Kb depend upon the nature of the solvent. 2. Colligative properties depend on the number of solute particles dissolved in solution. 3. Value of Henry's constant KH increases with increase in temperature. 4. As dissolution is an exothermic process the solubility should decrease with increase of temperature. 5. See diverse for breathing inside see use a mixture of O2 and inert gas Helium. Set-6 (Anoxia, Edema, More, Non-ideal, Osmotic pressure, less) 1. People taking a lot of salt develop swelling or puffiness of their tissues. This disease is called Edema. 2. At the same temperature nitrogen gas is less soluble in water than oxygen 3. The best colligative property to determine the molecular mass of polymers is osmatic pressure. 4. A Non-ideal solution showing negative deviations forman azeotrope with highest boiling point. 5. Less is the colligative property, more is the Molecular mass. Two marks questions: 1. What is saturated and unsaturated solution? What is the effect of temperature and pressure on the solubility? 2. Define the following terms i) Solution ii) Mole fraction iii) Molarity iv) Molality 3. Which of the two molarity or molality, does vary with temperature? and how? 4. State Henry’s law. Write its mathematical statement. What is the significance of Henry’s Constant? 5. Mention any two applications of Henry’s law. 6. Why do gases always tend to be less soluble in liquids as the temperature increases ? Explain. 7. What is Vapour pressure of liquids? Name a law which helps us to determine partial vapor pressure of a volatile component in solution. 8. State Raoult’s law as applied to a binary solution of Non‐volatile solute in a volatile solvent. 9. What are ideal and non‐ideal solutions? 10. Give an example of Ideal solution and non‐ideal solutions. 11. What causes deviations from ideal behavior of solutions? Why do the vapour pressures of certain solutions show negative or positive deviations from the Raoult’s law? 12. Derive the relation between molar mass of solute and relative lowering vapour pressure. 13. What is azeotropic mixture? Give example. 14. What are the different types of azeotropic mixtures? Explain with example. 15. What are colligative properties? Give examples. 16. Write the mathematical relation between molality and elevation in boiling point. What happens to boiling point of water when salt is dissolved in it? Which one will have greater boiling point: 0.1M NaCl, 0.1 M BaCl2 ? 17. Write the mathematical relation between molality and depression in freezing point. Why is sodium chloride used to clear snow on roads? 18. Write a note on osmotic pressure. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 6 Solutions 19. Define osmosis and semi permeable membrane. 20. Give reasons: i) Cutting onions taken from the fridge is more comfortable than cutting onions lying at room temperature I would rather do that ii) When fruits and vegetables that have dried are placed in water they slowly swell and return to the original form Three mark questions: 1. Define the following terms i) Mass percentage ii) volume percentage iii) Parts per million (ppm). 2. Give any three differences between ideal and non-ideal solutions. 3. Give any three differences between solutions showing positive and negative deviation from ideal behaviour. 4. Define the term molal elevation constant and Molal depression constant. Give their SI unit. 5. What is an isotonic, hypertonic and hypotonic solution? 6. What is abnormal molar mass? Define Van’t‐ Hoff’s factor. What would be the value of Van’t Hoff factor for a dilute solution of K2SO4 in water if it undergoes complete dissociation.? 7. With the help of vapour pressure – temperature diagram, explain the depression of freezing point of a solution of a non‐volatile solute in a volatile solvent. How would you determine the molar masses of solute using the above properties ? 8. What is reverse osmosis? Mention one of its practical uses and give an example for artificial semipermeable membrane. 9. Why do electrolytes show abnormal molecular masses? Name the factors responsible for abnormality. 10. Non-ideal solutions exhibit either positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law. What are these deviations and why they caused ? Explain with suitable example of each type. Problems: 1. Calculate the molality and mole fraction of the solute containing 3g of urea (molar mass = 60 gmol–1) per 250 g of water. [Ans: m = 0.2, X2 = 0.0039] 2. If 22 g of benzene is dissolved in 122 g of carbon tetrachloride, determine the mass percentage of carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) and benzene (C6H6). [Ans: mass% of benzene= 15.28, mass% of Chloroform = 84.72] 3. The mole fraction of He in a saturated solution at 20°C is 1.2 x10 - 6. Find the pressure of helium above the solution. Given Henry's constant at 20°C = 144.97 Kbar. 4. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm Hg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in solution with liquid B is mm Hg. Calculate the mole fraction of A in the solution if the mixture obeys Raoult’s law. [Ans: XA = 0.8] 5. Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 g mol–1) which should be dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%. [Ans: w2 = 8g] 6. The vapor pressure of 5% aqueous solution of a non-volatile organic substance at 373 Kelvin is 745 mm. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. [Ans: M2 = 0.8 gMol–1] 7. The vapor pressure of water is 92 mm at 323 K. 18.1g of urea are dissolved in 100 g of water the vapor pressure is reduced by 5 mm. Calculate the molar mass of urea.[ Ans: 56.7 gMol–1] 8. Calculate the boiling point of a solution containing 25 g of urea [NH2CONH2] and 25 g of thiourea [NH2CSNH2]in 500-gram chloroform [CHCl3] the boiling point of pure chloroform is 61.2°C and Kb is equal to 3.63 Km–1[Ans: 66.616°C] Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 7 9. Calculate the osmotic pressure in Pascals excreted by a solution prepared by dissolving 1.0g of polymer of molar mass 185,000 in 450 ml of water is 370 C. [Ans: 30.9 Pa] 10. Calculate the concentration of that solution of sugar which has osmotic pressure of 2.46 atmosphere at 300 K. [Ans: 34.42g/L]. 11. Calculate the molar elevation constant of water, it being given that 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a substance boiled at 100.052°C. [Ans: Kb= 0.520C]. 12. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.80g of a non-volatile solute was dissolved in 90 gram of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Calculate the molar mass of the solute. Kb for benzene is 2.53 KKg/mol. [Ans:58 gMol–1] 13. A solution containing 34.2g of cane Sugar (C12H22O11)dissolved in 500 cm3of water froze at –0.374°C. Calculate the freezing point depression constant of water. [Ans: Kf = 1.87Km–1] 14. The solution of urea in water has a boiling point of 100.128°C.Calculate the freezing point of the same solution. Molal constants for water Kf and Kb are 1.86°C and 0.512°C respectively. [Tf = –0.4650C]. 15. Two elements A and B form compounds having formulas AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20 g of benzene (C6H6), 1 g of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K, whereas 1.0 g of AB4 lowers it by 1.3 K. The molar depression constant for benzene is 5.1 K kg mol–1. Calculate the atomic masses of A and B. [Ans: Atomic masses of A and B are 25.59 u and 42.64]    Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 8 Electrochemistry Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. Which of the following statements associated with electrochemical cells is incorrect? a) The function of a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell is to complete the circuit. b) Cell potential is the potential difference in a voltaic cell. c) A Bronsted-Lowry acid-base reaction can be the basis of the net reaction in a chemical cell. d) A half-reaction corresponds to one electrode in a voltaic cell. 2. The standard electrode potential (E°) values of Al3+/Al, Ag+/Ag, K+/K and Cr3+/Cr are –1.66 V, 0.80 V, –2.93 V and –0.74 V, respectively. The correct decreasing order of reducing power of the metal is a) Ag > Cr > Al > K b) K> Al > Ag > Cr c) K > Al > Cr > Ag d) Al > K > Ag > Cr 3. A button cell used in watches function as following: Zn(s) + Ag₂O(s) + H₂O  2Ag(s) + Zn2+ + 2OH–(aq) If half-cell potentials are Zn2+(aq) + 2e¯ → Zn(s) E° = –0.76 V Ag₂O(s) + H₂O (l) + 2e¯→ 2Ag(s) + 2OH–(aq); E° = 0.34 V The cell potential will be a) 0.84 V c) 1.10 V b) 1.34 V d) 0.42 V 4. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions given below: F2(g) + 2e– →2F–(aq); E° = + 2.85 V Cl2 (g) +2e– → 2Cl–(aq) ; E° = + 1.36 V Br2 (g) +2e– → 2Br–(aq) ; E° = + 1.06 V I2 (g) +2e– → 2I–(aq) ; E° = + 0.53 V, the strongest oxidizing and reducing agents respectively are a) F₂ and I¯ b) Br₂ and Cl– c) Cl₂ and Br– d) Cl₂ and I₂ 4+ 2+ 5. Standard electrode potential for Sn /Sn is +0.15 V and that for the Cr/Cr is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be a) + 1.19 V b) + 0.18 V c) + 0.89 V d) +1.83 V 6. Consider the following relations for emf of an electrochemical cell. (i) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) - (Reduction potential of cathode) (ii) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode) (iii) EMF of cell = (Reductional potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode) (iv) EMF of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) - (Oxidation potential of cathode) Which of the above relations are correct? a) (iii) and (i) b) (i) and (ii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv) Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 9 7. Based on the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is [Fe(CN)6] → [Fe(CN)6]³¯ + e¯; E° = −0.35 V Fe2+→ Fe3+ + e¯; E° = −0.77 V 3+ a) Fe b) [Fe(CN)6]3– c) [Fe(CN)6]4– d) Fe2+ 8. Which of these statements about a galvanic cell are not true? i. the cathode carries a positive sign ii. the anions migrate toward the cathode iii. the electrons are released through the anode iv. reduction occurs at the anode a) i and iii b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) ii and iv 9. A solution of potassium bromide is treated with each of the following. Which one would liberate bromine? a) Hydrogen iodide b) Sulphur dioxide c) Chlorine d) Iodine 10. Electrolytic cells are electrochemical cells in which ______ reactions are forced to occur by the input of electrical energy. a) spontaneous b) non-spontaneous c) exothermic d) endothermic 11. If theE°cellfor a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ΔG° and Keq? a) ΔG° > 0; Keq < 1 b) ΔG°> 0; Keq > 1 c) ΔG° 1 d) ΔG° < 0; Keq < 1 12. The name of equation showing the relation between electrode potential (E), standard electrode potential (E0) and concentration of ions in solution is, a) Kohlrausch’s equation b) Nernst’s equation. c) Ohm’s equation d) Faraday’s equation. 13. What occurs when an atom is oxidized in a chemical reaction? a) a loss of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number. b) a loss of electrons and an increase in oxidation number. c) a gain of electrons and a decrease in oxidation number. d) a gain of electrons and an increase in oxidation number. 14. Standard cell potential is a) measured at a temperature of 25°C. b) measured when ion concentrations of aqueous reactants are 1.00 M. c) measured under the conditions of 1.00 atm for gaseous reactants. d) All of the above. 15. Which of the following statements associated with corrosion is incorrect? a) Iron corrodes more readily than aluminium because iron is more active than aluminium Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 10 Electrochemistry b) Cathodic protection prevents corrosion by using a sacrificial anode c) A corroding metal has both anodic and cathodic areas d) Corrosion involves both oxidation and reduction 16. In the lead storage battery, a) a reversible reaction can occur to recharge the battery b) lead is oxidized to create a flow of electrons c) lead forms the cathode when it is being reduced d) all the above 17. A voltaic cell has an E° value of –1.00 V. The reaction _____. a) is spontaneous b) has a positive ΔG° c) has a negative ΔG° d) has K = 1 18. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the salt bridge used in voltaic cells? The salt bridge _____. a) allows for the two half-cells to be kept separated b) maintains the electrical neutrality in each half cell c) allows mixing of the two electrode solutions d) is made of a medium through which ions can slowly pass 19. The advantages of fuel cells include : a) they can be recharged by the addition of more material to be oxidized and/or reduced b) they can be made to produce little or no harmful pollutants c) they can be made to run very quietly d) all of the above. 20. An aqueous solution of NaCl on electrolysis gives: a) H2 and Cl2 b) H2 and O2 c) H2, Cl2 and NaCl d) H2, Cl2 and NaOH 21. Limiting molar conductivity NH4OH is equal to a) Λ0m(NH4Cl) + Λ0m (NaCl) – Λ0m (NaOH) b) Λ0m (NaOH) + Λ0m (NaCl) – Λ0m (NH4Cl) c) Λ0m (NH4OH) + Λ0m (NH4Cl) – Λ0m (HCI) d) Λ0m (NH4Cl) + Λ0m (NaOH) – Λ0m (NaCl) 22. Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3? Given that λ0Al3+ and λ0SO42– are the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of the respective ions. a) 2 λ0Al3++ 3 λ0SO42– b) λ0Al3++ λ0SO42– c) (λ0Al3++ λ0SO42-) x 6 d) 1/3 λ0Al3++ 1/2 λ0SO42– 23. Kohlrausch's law states that at a) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte b) infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte c) finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 11 d) infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte. 24. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be. a) hydrogen gas b) oxygen gas c) H₂S gas d) SO2 g 25. When 0.1 mol MnO4–2 is oxidized, the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize MnO4–2 to MnO4–1 is a) 96500 C b) 2 × 96500 C c) 9650 C d) 96.50 C 26. A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as a) dynamo b) Ni-Cd cell c) fuel cell d) electrolytic cell. 27. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because a) zinc is lighter than iron b) zinc has lower melting point than iron c) zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron d) zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron. 28. The most convenient method to protect the bottom of ship made of iron is a) coating it with red lead oxide b) white tin plating c) connecting it with Mg block d) connecting it with Pb block. 29. To protect iron against corrosion, the most durable metal plating on it, is a) copper plating b) zinc plating c) nickel plating d) tin plating 30. In a dry cell, a) the graphite rod is a negative terminal b) the ammonia gas accumulates in the cell during its working c) the zinc vessel is a negative terminal d) the cellular reaction involves the complex formation of Zn with MnO2 Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: Set-1 (Galvanisation, negative, Electrolytic cell, PbO2, depolarizer, Galvanic cell) 1. In galvanic cell, the electrode which acts as anode is a negative pole. 2. In lead storage battery, the cathode consists of PbO2 3. In Leclanche cell, MnO2acts as a depolarizer. 4. Protection of iron by coating with zinc is called galvanisation. 5. The arrangements in which electrical energy supplied brings about a redox reaction is called galvanic cell. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 12 Electrochemistry Set-2 ( less, equal, hydrogen, positive, sodium, negative ) 1. Zinc replaces copper from copper sulphate solution because the standard reduction potential of zinc is less than that of copper. 2. If the value of standard electromotive force E0 Cell of a galvanic cell is positive then the cell reaction will be spontaneous. 3. The cation and anion of the electrolyte used in salt bridge have equal mobility. 4. During electrolysis of an aqueous sodium chloride solution hydrogen is produced at the cathode. 5. During electrolysis of a fused sodium chloride Na is produced at that cathode. Set-3 (Ohm , non-electrolyte, electrochemical, weak electrolyte, automobiles, Cm–1) –1 1. NaCl solution conduct electricity but urea cannot conduct electricity because it is a non-electrolyte compound 2. The unit of cell constant of a conductivity cell is cm-1 3. Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte. 4. Rusting of iron is an electrochemical process. 5. Lead storage battery is used in automobiles. Set-4 ( Anode, Hg-button cell, Zinc, Electrochemical equivalent, Copper, cathode) 1. In any electrochemical cell, the cathode is always the electrode at which some species gain electrons 2. The site of oxidation in an electrochemical cell is anode. 3. Hg-button cell is used in pacemakers, electronic watches and hearing aids. 4. Electrochemical equivalent is defined as the amount of substance deposited or liberated at the electrode by a charge of 1 coulomb. 5. Metal used as a coating on steel to limit corrosion is Zinc. Set-5 ( three, spontaneous, oxygen, nonspontaneous, Zero, hydrogen) 1. The positive E0 value shows that the reactions are spontaneous. 2. Electrolysis is a process in which electrical energy is used to cause a non-spontaneous chemical reaction 3. The reference electrode SHE has EMF of exactly zero Volt 4. When diluted sulfuric acid is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes the gas liberated at the anode will be hydrogen. 5. The amount of charge carried by 1 gram Al+3 ion is 3 Faraday. Set-6 (Siemen, platinum, palladium, increases, Siemen/metre, decreases) 1. Conductivity always decreases with decrease in concentration. 2. Molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 13 3. The SI unit of conductance is Siemen. 4. The SI unit of conductivity is Siemen/metre. 5. The standard hydrogen electrode consists of a Pt electrode coated with platinum black. Two marks questions: 1. What are electrochemical cells? Mention the types of electrochemical cells 2. Write a short note on Galvanic cells. 3. How do you represent a Daniel cell symbolically? Write the electrode reactions and the cell reaction? 4. What are the functions of salt bridge? 5. i) Define electrode potential? ii) Define standard hydrogen electrode potential? Mention the uses of standard hydrogen electrode? 6. i) Write the relation between E°cell and equilibrium constant (K) of cell reaction. ii) Write down the Nernst equation for electrode potential. 7. What are the factors that electrode potential depends on? 8. Write the Nernst equation for the following cell Zn/Zn2+(aq)//Cu2+(aq)/Cu. 9. Name the factors on which emf of a cell depends. 10. What is conductivity? What are units of conductivity? 11. Write an expression for cell constant. What is SI unit of specific resistance? 12. Write the SI units for i) Specific conductance. (ii) Molar conductance. 13. Define molar conductivity ? How does it vary with increase in concentration of solution? 14. What is an electrolyte? Give an example for strong and weak electrolytes. 15. Define limiting molar conductivity and how it is related to molar conductivity of strong electrolyte? 16. Write Debye - Onsager equation and mention the various terms. 17. What is the effect of temperature on molar conductivity? 18. What is the effect of dilution on conductivity and molar conductivity? 19. How much electricity is required in coulomb for the oxidation of (i) 1mol of H2O to O2? (ii) 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3? 20. Difference between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell. 21. What are batteries? Mention the types of batteries with examples. 22. Write the overall reaction of Ni-Cd battery and mention the cathode and anode of Ni-Cd battery. 23. What is corrosion? Mention the Factors which affect corrosion. Three Marks questions: 1. How much charge is required for the following reductions? (i) 1 mol of Al3+ to Al (ii) 1 mol of Cu2+ to Cu (iii) 1 mol of MnO4– to Mn2+ 2. Describe the construction and working of SHE or standard hydrogen electrode. 3. What is electrochemical series? What are the applications of electrochemical series? 4. Give reasons: Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 14 Electrochemistry i) Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. ii) Zinc displaces hydrogen from HCl, but copper does not. iii) Iron displace copper from copper sulphate solution, but copper cannot displace iron from ferrous sulphate solution. 5. Write a neat diagram of H2-O2 Fuel cell and express its cathodic and anodic reactions. 6. Explain: corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon. 7. Write a cathodic and anodic reaction of lead storage battery at both discharge and recharge process. 8. State Kohlrausch’s law. What are its application? 9. Give the products obtained at each electrode respectively when molten NaCl, aqueous NaCl and acidulated H2O undergoes electrolysis. 10. State Faraday’s first and second law of electrolysis? Give its mathematical expression. 11. Write a note on dry cells and mercury cell? 12. Write the Nernst equation and emf of the following cells at 298 K. (i) Mg(s)|Mg2+(0.001M)||Cu2+(0.0001M)|Cu(s) (ii) Fe(s)|Fe2+(0.001M)||H+(1M)|H2(g)(1bar)|Pt(s) (iii) Sn(s)|Sn2+(0.050M)||H+(0.020M)|H2(g)(1bar)|Pt(s) Problems 1. The resistance of a 0.01 N solution of an electrolyte is 100 ohms. Calculate its (a) conductance, (b) Conductivity and (c) resistivity. The cell constant of the cell is 1 cm. [Ans: a) 0.01 S b) 0.01 Scm-1 c) 100-ohm cm] 2. For the standard cell Cu (s) / Cu2+(aq) || Ag+ (aq) / Ag (s) E 0 Cu2+/ Cu = +0.34 V E0 Ag+ / Ag = + 0.80 V i. identify the cathode and the anode as the current is drawn from the cell. ii. Write the reaction taking place at the electrodes. iii. Calculate the standard cell potential. [Ans: 0.46 V] 3. Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10. [Ans: –0.591 V] 4. Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.002M) →Ni2+ + (0.160M) + 2Ag(s) Given that E0 cell=1.05 V [Ans: 0.91V] 5. The cell in which of the following reaction occurs 2Fe3+(aq)+2I– (aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s) has E0 cell = 0.236V at 298K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change and the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.[Ans: Gibbs energy: –45.55 KJ, equilibrium constant: 9.6 × 107] 6. The molar conductivity of 0.025 molL-1 methanoic acid is 46.1 Scm2mol-1 Calculate its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ0 (H+) =349.6 Scm2mol-1 and λ0 (HCOO–) = 54.6 Scm2mol–1. [Ans: α = 0.114, k = 3.67×10–4] 7. If a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2hrs, then how many electrons flow through the wire? [Ans: no of electrons = 2.246 × 1022]. 8. The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the cell constant if the conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10–3 S cm–1 [Ans: 0.219cm-1] Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 15 9. How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce (i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl2? [Ans: 1F] (ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al2O3? [Ans: 4.44] 10. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode? [Ans:1.825 g] 11. An electric current of 100 ampere is passed through a molten liquid of sodium chloride for 5 hours. Calculate the volume of chlorine gas liberated at the electrode at NTP. [Ans: 208.91L] 12. In an electrolysis experiment, a current was passed for 5 hours through two cells connected in series. The first cell contains a solution gold salt, and the second cell contains copper sulphate solution. 9.85 g of gold was deposited in the first cell. If the oxidation number of gold is +3, find the amount of copper deposited on the cathode in the second cell. [Ans: 4.76 g]. 13. How long has a current of 3 amperes to be applied through a solution of silver nitrate to coat a metal surface of 80 cm2 with 0.005 cm thick layer? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3. [Ans:125.09 s] 14. A saturated solution of silver chloride at 20°C has a conductivity of 3.41× 10–6 Scm–1. The conductivity of water used was 1.60×10–6 Scm–1. Determine the solubility of silver chloride moles per liter. [Ans: 1.31× 10–5mol/L] 15. Calculate the quantity of electricity that would be required to reduce 12.3g of nitrobenzene into Aniline if the current efficiency for the process is 50%. If the potential drop across the cell is 3 volts how much energy will be consumed? [Ans: Q = 5,79,000 C, Energy consumed = EMFX Qty of electricity = 347400J]. 16. Two students use same stock solution of zinc sulphate and a solution of copper sulphate the EMF of one cell is 0.03 Volt higher than the other. The concentration of copper sulphate in the cell with higher EMF value is 0.5M. Find out the concentration of copper sulphate in the other cell (2.303 RT/F = 0.06) [Ans: 0.05M] 17. Show that 0.08 molar solution having conductivity equal to 2x10–2 Ω–1cm–1has higher molar conductance than 0.10 molar solution having resistivity equal to 58 cm. 18. The molar conductivity of acetic acid solution at infinite dilution is 390.7 Ω–1cm–2mol–1Calculate the molar conductivity of 0.01 molar acetic acid solution given that the dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.8×10–5. [Ans: 16.57 Ω–1cm–2] 19. How many grams of chlorine can be produced by the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride the current of 1 amp for 15 min? Also calculate the number of chlorine molecules liberated. [Ans: w = 0.331 g, nA= 2.80 × 1021molecule] 20. The Λ0m values for NaCl and KCl are 126.5 and 149.9 Ω–1cm–2mol–1 respectively. The ionic conductance’s of Na+ at infinite dilution is 50.1 Ω–1cm–2mol–1. Calculate the ionic conductance at infinite dilution for k+ ion. [Ans: 73.5 Ω–1cm–2mol–1]  Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 16 Chemical kinetics Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. The reactions which occurs very fast are a) mixing aqueous solutions of silver nitrate and sodium chloride b) Rusting of iron. c) Inversion of cane sugar d) hydrolysis of starch. 2. In the rate equation, when the conc. of reactants is unity then rate is equal to a) specific rate constant b) average rate constant c) instantaneous rate constant d) None of above 3. The rate of reaction between two specific time intervals is called a) instantaneous rate b) average rate c) specific rate d) ordinary rate 4. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect ? a) Order can be determined only experimentally. b) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants. c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction. d) Order of reaction is always whole number. 5. Units of rate constant of first and zero order reactions interms of molarity M unit are respectively a) sec–1, M sec–1 b) sec–1, M c) M sec–1, sec–1 d) M, sec–1. 6. In a 1st order reaction, reactant concentration C varies with time t as : a) 1/C increases linearly with t b) log C decreases linearly with t c) C decreases with 1/t d) log C decreases with 1/t 7. For a first order reaction, a plot of log (a – x) against time is a straight line with a slope equal to k a) b) 2.303k 2.303 2.303 Ea c) d)  k 2.303R 8. In a reaction, when the concentration of reactant is increased two times, the increase in rate of reaction was four times. Order of reaction is : a) zero b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 9. The plot that represents the zero order reaction is : (a) [R] (b) [R] (c) [R] (d) [R] t t t t Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 17 10. Which of the following is correct for a first order reaction? t1/ 2  1 a) b) t 1/ 2   c) –1 d) t1/2 2 11. Point out the wrong statement: For a first order reaction a) time for half-change (t1/2) is independent of initial concentration b) change in the concentration unit does not change the rate constant (k) c) time for half-change × rate constant = 0.693 d) the unit of k is mole–1min–1 12. The slope for the plot of concentration of products Vs time will be equal to a) Rate b) molecularity c) order d) half life 13. The unit of rate of gaseous reaction when the concentration is expressed in partial pressure is a) mol L–1s–1 b) M s–1 c) atm s–1 d) atm L–1 s–1 14. The representation of rate of reaction in terms of concentration of the reactants is known as a) rate law b) law of kinetics c) Arrhenius law d) Van’t Hoff law 15. The order of the reaction KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4  KCl + 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O is a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 10 16. Determination of instantaneous rate is not always convenient because. a) measures rate at given instant of time. b) it is measured always by determination of slope of the tangent at point ‘t’ c) easier to determine rate law and order of the reaction. d) It involves differential rate equation. 17. For a zero order reaction, the intercept for the plot of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to a) –k b) log k c) [R0] d) log [R0] 18. For a zero order reaction, the slope for the plot of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to a) –k b) log k c) [R0] d) log [R0] 19. For a first order reaction, the slope for the plot of log of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to a) –2. 303 k b) –k / 2.303 c) –2.303 / k d) k / 2.303 20. For a first order reaction, the intercept for the plot of log of concentration of reactants Vs time is equal to a) –2. 303 k b) –k / 2.303 c) [R0] d) log [R0] Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 18 Chemical kinetics 21. For a first order reaction, the plot of log {[R0] / [R]} Vs time ‘t’ will be a) straight line with negative slope and positive intercept b) straight line with positive slope and positive intercept c) straight line with positive slope and zero intercept d) straight line with zero slope and zero intercept 22. The thermal decomposition of HI in presence of gold is an example for a reaction of a) first order b) zero order c) half order d) second order 23. Decomposition of N2O5 and N2O are some examples for reaction with a) first order kinetics b) zero order kinetics c) half order kinetics d) second order kinetics 24. Half life of zero order reaction is inversely proportional to a) initial concentration b) finial concentration c) rate constant c) rate of a reaction. 25. Select the incorrect statement with respect to pre exponential factor. a) It is also called frequency factor. b) It is constant for a particular reaction. c) Its value is specific for a particular reaction d) It is represented by Ea in Arrhenius equation. 26. Kinetic energy possessed by maximum fraction of molecules is called a) average kinetic energy b) most probable kinetic energy. c) maximum kinetic energy. d) root mean square kinetic energy. 27. The area under the Maxwell Boltzmann distribution curve is a) fraction of molecules reacting at time ‘t’ and is constant. b) total energy of a reaction c) activation energy of a reaction. d) enthalpy of a reaction. 28. In the Arrhenius equation the factor e -Ea /RT corresponds to a) the fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy equal to or greater than Ea b) the fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy lesser than A c) the fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy equal to A d) the fraction of molecules that have kinetic energy greater than A 29. Statement I: Catalyst alters the Gibbs energy Statement II: Catalyst catalyses the forward as well as the backward reactions to the same extent Identify the correct statement a) Both Statement I and II are correct b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is correct. 30. When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is : a) First b) Second c) More than zero but less than first d) Zero Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 19 Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: Set-1 (instantaneous, decreases, balanced equation, increases, rate expression, mol L–1) 1. Unit of rate is mol L-1 2. The rate at a particular moment of time is instantaneous rate. 3. With the passage of time rate of a reaction decreases. 4. The equation that relates rate of reaction and concentration of reactants is rate expression. 5. Rate law for any reaction cannot be predicted by balanced equation. Set-2 (molecularity, order, zero, elementary, rate constant, complex) 1. Sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression is called order. 2. The order of reaction, if the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants is zero. 3. The reactions taking place in one step are called elementary reactions. 4. 5. The S.I. units of _____ Oxidation of ethane to CO2 and H2O is an example of complex reaction. rate constant for depends on order of reaction. Set-3 (zero, three, order, slowest step, zero order, molecularity) 1. The number of species taking part in an elementary reaction, which collide to bring about a chemical reaction is called molecularity of a reaction. 2. Reactions with the molecularity three are slow to proceed. 3. Molecularity of the slowest step is same as the order of the overall reaction. 4. Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity. 5. Reactions which occur on metal surfaces are a few examples of zero order reactions Set-4 (pseudo first, sec , half-life period, mol sec–1, Joules mol–1, first) –1 1. Hydrogenation of ethene is an example of first order reaction. 2. For a first order reaction, half-life period is constant. 3. Inversion of cane sugar is a pseudo first order reaction. 4. S.I unit of rate constant of first order reaction is sec-1. 5. S.I unit of activation energy is Joules mol-1. Set-5 (increases, decreases, internal energy, Gibbs energy, activation energy, Pre-exponential factor) 1. Pre-exponential factor is constant specific to a particular reaction. 2. Rate of reaction increases with raise in temperature. 3. As activation energy decreases rate of reaction increases. 4. Catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy. 5. Catalyst reduces activation energy. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 20 Chemical kinetics Set-6 : (kinetic gas, steric, Arrhenius, collision frequency, effective collision, equilibrium constant) 1. Collision theory is based on kinetic gas theory. 2. Catalyst does not change the equilibrium constant of a reaction. 3. The number of collisions per second per unit volume of the reaction mixture is known as collision frequency. 4. The collisions in which molecules collide with sufficient kinetic energy and proper orientation is called effective collisions. 5. Steric factor accounts for effective collision and proper orientation. Two marks questions: 1. According to collision theory give any two criteria for effective collision. 2. Give any two drawbacks of collision theory. 3. Write Arrhenius equation. Explain the terms involved in it. 4. What is collision Frequency? Give equation that represent relation between collision frequency and steric factor. 5. Write any two properties of catalyst. 6. What is activation energy? How does its value effects rate of reaction? 7. What is catalyst? Whether catalyst catalyse non spontaneous reaction? 8. Graphically represent Arrhenius equation and how do you calculate activation energy from it? 9. Plot Maxwell Boltzmann distribution curve. Mark the position of Ea 10. What is most probable kinetic energy? How does it is affected by increase in temperature? 11. With the help of graph explain the effect of temperature on rate of reaction. 12. With the help of graph explain the effect of catalyst on rate of reaction. 13. What is first order reaction? Write the expression for the relation between partial pressure and rate constant of first order gas phase reaction. 14. Define a) Instantaneous rate b) half life period. 15. Define a) order b) Molecularity 16. State Rate Law. What is S.I unit of rate. 17. What are Elementary reaction and complex reaction? 18. For a first order reaction, plot a graph of log {[R0] / [R]}Vs time ‘t and write the value of slope for this graph. 19. What is Pseudo first order reaction? Give an example. 20. Give two example for first order reaction. Three marks questions : 1. Derive integrated rate equation for zero order reaction. 2. Derive integrated rate equation for first order reaction. 3. Derive integrated rate equation for first order gas phase reaction A(g)  B(g)  C(g) 4. Show that half life of zero order reaction depends on initial concentration of reactant. 5. Show that half life of first order reaction is independent on initial concentration of reactant. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 21 6. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% reaction is 10 times of half-life (t1/2) of the reaction. 7. Differentiate between order and molecularity. 8. Write any three factors effecting rate of reaction. 9. Plot a graph of potential energy vs reaction coordinate. Indicate activation energy and enthalpy 10. Explain the effects of following on rate of reaction a) Temperature b) catalyst c) concentration. Problems: 1. The decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 at 318K was studied. Initially the concentration of N2O5 is 2.33 mol L–1 and after 184 minutes, it was reduced to 2.08 mol L–1. The reaction takes place according to the equation 2N 2 O5 (g)  4NO2 (g)  O 2 (g) , Calculate the average rate of this reaction in terms of seconds. What is the rate of production of NO2 during this period? 2. For the reaction R  P, the concentration of a reactant changes from 0.03M to 0.02M in 25 minutes. Calculate the average rate of reaction using units of time both in seconds. What is the rate of production of P during this period? 3. In a reaction, 2A  R, Products, the concentration of A decreases from 0.5 mol L–1 to 0.4 mol L–1 in 10 minutes. Calculate the rate during this interval? 1 4. The initial concentration of N2O5 in the following first order reaction N 2O5 (g)  2NO 2 (g)  O2 (g) was 2 –2 –1 –2 –1 1.24 × 10 mol L at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 60 minutes was 0.20 × 10 mol L. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K. 5. The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of N2O5(g) at constant volume: 2N 2O5 (g)  2N 2O4 (g)  O 2 (g). Calculate the rate constant. S.No. Time/s Total Pressure/(atm) 1 0 0.5 2 100 0.512 6. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant, k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. Find the half-life of the reaction. 7. A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 × 10-3 s–1. How long will 5g of this reactant take to reduce to 3g? 8. Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes. If the decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the reaction. 9. The rate constants of a reaction at 500K and 700K are 0.02s–1 and 0.07s–1 respectively. Calculate the values of Ea and A. 10. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of ethyl iodide by the reaction C2 H 4 (g)  HI(g) at 600K is 1.60 × 10–5 s–1. Its energy of activation is 209 kJ/mol. Calculate C2H5I(g)  the rate constant of the reaction at 700K. 11. The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10K in absolute temperature from 298K. Calculate Ea. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 22 Chemical kinetics 12. H 2  I2 is 209.5 kJ mol–1 at 581K.Calculate the fraction The activation energy for the reaction 2HI(g)  of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation energy? 13. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation: log k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104K/T. Calculate Ea for this reaction and at what temperature will its half-period be 256 minutes? 14. Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours? 15. The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures is given below: 1/T0C 0 20 40 60 80 105 × k/s-1 0.0787 1.70 25.7 178 2140 Draw a graph between ln k and 1/T and calculate the values of A and Ea.   Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 23 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1. According to IUPAC transition metals are defined as a) Metals which have incomplete d subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions. b) Metals which have complete d subshell in neutral only atom. c) Metals with chemical properties were transitional between those of s and p-block elements. d) Metals with chemical properties were transitional between those of p and f- block elements 2. The d-block element not having general electronic configuration of (n-1)d1– 10ns1–2 is a) Pt b) Pd c) Zn d) Cr 3. The electronic configuration of Cr is 3d54s1instead of 3d44s2is due to a) The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is big enough to prevent electron entering the 3d orbitals. b) The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is small enough to prevent electron entering the 4sorbital. c) The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is big enough to prevent electron entering the 4sorbital. d) The energy gap between the two sets (3d and 4s) of orbitals is small enough to prevent electron entering the 3d orbitals. 4. Among Cu, Hg, Cd and Cn which is/are not regarded as transition elements a) Cu only b) Hg and Cd only c) Hg, Cd and Cn only d) Hg, Cu and Cn only 5. The orbitals of the transition elements that protrude to the periphery of an atom more than the other orbitals is a) s- orbitals b) p- orbitals c) d- orbitals d) f-orbitals 6. The element having minimum volatility among the following is a) Cr b) W c) Os d) Zn 7. The correct statement among the following is a) Metals with very high enthalpy of atomisation tend to be noble in their reactions. b) Metals with very low enthalpy of atomisation tend to be noble in their reactions. c) Metals with very low enthalpy of ionisation tend to be noble in their reactions. d) Metals with very high enthalpy of atomisation tend to be highly reactive in their reactions. 8. Statement 1: Metals of the 4d and 5d series have greater enthalpies of atomisation than the corresponding elements of the 3d series Statement 2: More frequent metal – metal bonding are found in compounds of the heavy transition metals Identify the correct statement a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect c) Both Statement I and II are correct d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is correct Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 24 d- and f- Block Elements 9. In transition elements, a regular decrease in atomic radii is a result of a) The filling of (n-1)f before nd orbital b) The filling of nf before (n-1)d orbital c) The filling of (n-1) f aftern d orbital d) The filling of nf after (n-1)d orbital 10. The element with least density is a) Cr b) Ni c) Zn d) Sc 11. Exchange energy is approximately proportional to the a) total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the generate orbitals. b) total number of possible pairs of antiparallel spins in the degenerate orbitals. c) total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the degenerate orbitals. d) total number of possible pairs of parallel spins in the generate orbitals 12. The element having stable minimum oxidation of state (+1) is a) Cr b) Cu c) Zn d) Sc 13. Which of the following transition metals cannot displace H2 from acids? a) Sc b) Ti c) Zn d) Cu 14. The ability of fluorine to stabilise the highest oxidation state of transition elements is due to a) low lattice energy and high bond enthalpy. b) high lattice energy and high bond enthalpy c) high lattice energy and low bond enthalpy. d) low lattice energy and low bond enthalpy. 15. The stability of Cu2+ rather than Cu+ in aqueous solution is due to a) more positive ∆hyd Ho of Cu1+ (aq) compensates 2nd ionisation enthalpy of Cu. b) more negative ∆hyd Ho of Cu1+ (aq) compensates 2nd ionisation enthalpy of Cu c) more positive ∆hyd Ho of Cu2+ (aq) compensates 2nd ionisation enthalpy of Cu. d) more negative ∆hyd Ho of Cu2+ (aq) compensates 2nd ionisation enthalpy of Cu. 16. The correct increasing order of oxidising power is a) VO2+ Cr2O72-> MnO4– c) Cr2O72–< VO2+< MnO4–. d) MnO4–< Cr2O72–< VO2+ 17. Statement1: Fe+3 ions show paramagnetic and magnetic moment of 5.92 BM Statement 2: Fe+3 ions have d3 electronic configuration Identify the correct statement a) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect c) Both Statement I and II are correct d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is incorrect 18. The element having maximum magnetic moment in its divalent ion form is/are a) Cr b) Mn c) Zn d) Fe Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 25 19. Transition metal A forms highest oxidation state only with oxygen, which is acidic and covalent and its divalent ion has a maximum magnetic moment. Its oxide oxidises iodide ion to Iodate ions in neutral medium, the metal is a) Sc b) Mn c) Ag d) Cr 20. The basic oxide among the following is a) CrO3 b) Cr2O3 c) CrO d) CrO4 21. The composition of chromite ore is a) FeCr2O3 b) FeCrO3 c) FeCrO4 d) FeCr2O4 22. Which of the following is not correctly matched? Compound of Use transition metal 1) TiO Pigment industry 2) MnO2 Dry battery cell 3) V2O5 Manufacture of H2SO4 4) PdCl2 Manufacture of polyethylene 3+ 23. The radius of La (Z = 57) is 106 pm. Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Z = 71)? a) 160 pm b) 140 pm c) 106 pm d) 85 pm 24. Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids? a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5 25. What is the percentage of lanthanoid metal in mischmetall? a) 90% b) 20% c) 5% d) 95% 26. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows + 4 oxidation state because of a) Cerium+ 4 has less stable half filled 4f7-orbital. b) Cerium+ 4 has more stable half filled 4f7-orbital c) Cerium + 4 has noble gas configuration 4f0 5d0 6s0. d) Cerium + 4 has more stable completely filled 4f14-orbital. 27. In chemical behaviour, lower members of lanthanoids is similar to metal ‘X’ and higher members resembles metal ‘Y’. Metal X and Y are a) Ca and Al b) Al and Ca c) Ca and Mg d) Mg and Al 28. Trivalent lanthanoid ions to be colourless is/are a) Eu b) La c) Er d) Ce Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 26 d- and f- Block Elements 29. Lanthanoids on heating with carbon produces a) mixtures of Ln3C, Ln2C3 and LnC2 b) mixtures of Ln2C, LnC3 and LnC c) mixtures of LnC4 and LnC d) only LnC 30. Actinoids to show maximum oxidation states is a) Ac b) No c) Np d) U Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: Set-1 (exchange energy, increase, chromium, oxidation number, scandium ) 1. Ionization energies increases only slightly along the 3 d series. 2. The loss of exchange energy increases the stability. 3. All the transition metals except scandium form ionic metal oxides. 4. As the oxidation number of a metal increases, ionic character decreases. 5. Element with more unpaired electron in 3d series is chromium. Set-2 (chromate, KClO4, K2Cr2O7, Zr, Ln, melting point) th 1. The high melting point of 6 group elements is due to more unpaired electrons. 2. The chromate ion is tetrahedral. 3. K2Cr2O7 is the primary standard in volumetric analysis. 4. Potassium permanganate crystals are isostructural with KClO. 4 5. Hf and Zr have almost identical radii. Set-3 (Carbon dioxide, sodium chromate, zinc, tin, Ln, +3) 1. Some Ln oxides are used as phosphors in television screens. 2. Actinoids generally show +3 oxidation state. 3. Acidified permanganate solution oxidises oxalates to CO2. 4. Sodium chromate when acidified with sulphuric acid gives sodium chromate. 5. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc. Set-4 (Cu, Zero, Interstitial, Cr2+, catalytic, Mn+2) 1. Spin only magnetic moment of Mn+2 is 5.9 BM. 2. The element of 3d series to have positive standard electrode potential is Cu. 3. The oxidation state of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is zero. 4. The ion Cr+2 is strong reducing agents and will liberate hydrogen from a dilute acid. 5. Interstitial compounds are usually non stoichiometric. Set-5 2+ (zinc sulphate,Zn , increases, Interstitial, unpaired electrons, decrease) 1. Lanthanoid contraction is a overall decreases in atomic radii from La to Lu. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 27 2. Manganous salt is oxidised to MnO2in the presence of zinc sulphate. 3. Interstitial compounds chemically inert. 4. The magnetic moment increases with the increasing number of unpaired electrons. 5. Zn+2 forms colourless compounds. Set-6 (Ag, high, Ti, low, +3, Hf) 1. Zr and Hf have similar atomic radii. 2. Ag salts show light sensitive properties. 3. Mn has high 3rd ionisation properties. 4. Oxide of Ti used in pigment industry 5. The common oxidation states of lanthanoids is +3. Two marks questions: 1. What is the common oxidation state shown by Lanthanoids? Mention any one consequence of Lanthanoid contraction. 2. Name the 3d series elements having a) maximum melting point b) Minimum melting point 3. Give any two examples for amphoteric oxides of 3d series. 4. Give any two examples for acidic oxides of 3d series. 5. Tungsten metal is used as a filament in bulb but zinc metal cannot be used in bulb. Why? 6. Why Manganese exhibit maximum oxidation of +7 only with oxide? 7. Give reasons: i) Cu+2 (aq) is more stable than Cu+ ii) Ionisation enthalpy increases along transition elements from left to right. 8. Why do the transition elements exhibit higher enthalpies of atomisation? 9. Why is Cr2+ reducing and Mn3+ oxidising when both have d4 configuration? 10. The Eo(M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34V). Give reason for this? 11. Why is the Eo value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple much more positive than that for Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+? Explain. 12. Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why? 13. Calculate the magnetic moment of Ti3+? 14. Transition elements forms colour compounds, Give two reason? 15. The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity. Give two reason. 16. What is lanthanoid contraction? How Lanthanoid contraction influence on covalent nature of d block elements. 17. Write any two difference between Lanthanoids and actinoids? 18. Draw the structure of dichromite ion ? what is the value of bond angle of Cr-O-Cr in it. 19. What are the compositions of alloy a) Brass b) Bronze 20. What is the composition of Mischmetall? Write one use of it. Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 28 d- and f- Block Elements Three marks questions: 1. Write the balanced chemical equations for the reactions involved in preparation of potassium permanganate from MnO2. Write the structure of manganate ion 2. Write the balanced chemical equations for the reactions involved in preparation of potassium dichromite from chromite ore. 3. Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following a) Reaction between potassium dichromate and iodide ion in acidic medium. b) Reaction between potassium dichromate and sulphide ion in acidic medium. c) Reaction between potassium dichromate and stannous ion in acidic medium. 4. Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following a) Reaction between potassium permanganate and iodide ion in acidic medium. b) Reaction between potassium permanganate and iodide ion in neutral medium. c) Reaction between potassium permanganate and oxolate ion in acidic medium. 5. What are interstitial compounds? Write any two properties of it. 6. Write the composition for the following a) UK copper b) Silver Uk coins c) Ziegler catalyst. 7. Name the catalyst used in the following. a) Haber process b) Wacker process c) Hydrogenation of fats. 8. Write the products formed when lanthanoids reacts with a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) acids 9. Give reasons for the following a) Actinoids show higher oxidation states. b) Actinoids contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. c) Chemical properties of actinoids is less known. 10. The transition metals form a large number of complex compounds. Give three reasons.  Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 29 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs): 1. A purple compound ‘M’ has a formula Co(NH3)6Cl3, on adding excess AgNO3 to one mole of ‘M’ produces 2 moles of AgCl. If secondary valence of Co is 6 then correct formula of the complex will be? a) [CoCl3(NH3)6] b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 c) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2.NH3 d) [Co(NH3)6Cl]Cl2 2. Which among the following is not a double salt a) Mohr’s Salt b) Potash Alum c) Carnallite d) Potassium ferrocyanide. 3. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl3.4NH3respectively is (coordination valency is 6): a) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl b) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl c) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl d) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl 4. Which among the following has highest molar conductivity a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 c) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 d) [Ni(CO)4] 3– 5. The primary and secondary valencies of [Fe(C2O4)3] complexes are a) 3 and 3 b) 3 and 6 c) 6 and 3 d) 0 and 3 6. Coordination number of the central atom/ion is determined by a) only by the number of pi bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion. b) both by the number of sigma and pi bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion. c) only by the number of sigma bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom/ion. d) by the total number of electrons present in ligand. 7. The correct IUPAC name of K3[Cr(C2O4)3] is a) Potassiumtrioxalatochromium(III) b) Potassiumtrioxalatochromate(III) c) Potassiumtrisoxalatochromate(III) d) Potassium oxalatochromate(III) 8. [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] Br2complex can show : a) Hydrated as well as ionization isomerism b) Ionization as well as geometrical isomerism c) Linkage as well as geometrical isomerism d) Ionization as well as optical isomerism 9. Possible isomerism in complexes[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] and [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2,respectively are: a) Linkage and optical b) Geometrical and linkage c) Optical and ionization d) Linkage and geometrical 10. In the reactions[CoCl2 (NH3)4 ]++ Cl– [CoCl3(NH3)3] +NH3 two isomers of the product are obtained. The initial complex is a) cis isomer b) trans isomer c) cis or trans isomers d) None of these Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 30 Coordination Compounds 11. Which type of complexes shows geometrical isomerism a) [MX4] Tetrahedral. b) [MX4] Square planar c) [MX2L2] Square planar d) [MX2L2] Tetrahedral 12. Which type of complexes doesn’t shows geometrical isomerism a) [MX2L2] Tetrahedral. b) [MABXL] Square planar c) [MX2L2] Square planar d) [MX4L2] Octahedral 13. The optical active complex is a) trans -[PtCl2(en)2]2+ b) Cis -[PtCl2(en)2]2+ c) trans- [CrCl2(ox)2]3- d) both a) and c) 14. Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing a) ambidentate ligand b) neutral ligand c) bidentate ligand d) Chelate ligand 15. The type of isomerism arises from the interchange of ligands between cationic and anionic entities of different metal ions present in a complex is a) Linkage isomerism b) ionisation isomerism c) Solvate isomerism d) co-ordination isomerism 16. The inner orbital complex is a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) [CoF6]3+ c) [Co(H2O)6]3+ d) [CoCl6]3+ 17. The high spin complex is a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) [Co(CN)6]3+ c) [Co(en)3]3+ d) [CoF6]3+ 18. The tetrahedral complex is a) [Ni(CN)4]2– b) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ c) [NiCl4]2– d) [Ni(en)2]2+ 19. Square complex is a) [Ni(CN)4]2– b) [NiF4]2– c) [NiCl4]2– d) [Ni(CO)4]2+ 20. Complex with maximum magnetic moment is a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) K3[Fe(CN)6] 3– c) [CoF6] d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 21. The incorrect statement about Valence Bond theory i. It involves a number of assumptions. ii. It gives quantitative interpretation of magnetic data. iii. It does not explain the colour exhibited by coordination compounds. iv. It gives a quantitative interpretation of the thermodynamic or kinetic stabilities of coordination compounds. a) i only b) i and iv c) ii and iv d) iii and iv Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 31 22. Statement 1: The crystal field theory (CFT) is an electrostatic model which considers the metal-ligand bond to be ionic. Statement 2: The crystal field theory (CFT) considers ligands as point dipoles in case of neutral molecules Identify the correct statement a) Both Statement I and II are correct b) Both Statement I and II are incorrect c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. d) Statement I is in correct and Statement II is correct. 23. The degeneracy of d orbitals of isolated gaseous metal is maintained when a) Negative charges of dipole molecules surround the central metal. b) Spherically symmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal. c) Spherically unsymmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal. d) Non spherical unsymmetrical field of negative charges surrounds the metal. 24. In a complex with secondary valence six, the set of d-orbitals which experience more repulsion with electrons of ligands are a) dx2-y2 & dz2 b) dxy dyz & dzx c) dxy dyz & dx2-y2 d) dyzdzx & dz2 25. According to spectral chemical series, the strongest field ligand is a) CO b) NH3 c) H2O d) F– 26. The correct electronic configuration of d4coordination entities in a weak field ligand is a) t32g e1g b) a) t42g e0g c) a) t22g e2g d) a) e32gt1g 27. The relation between crystal field splitting energy of octahedral and tetrahedral complexes. a) ∆t= (4/9) ∆o b) ∆o= (4/9) ∆t c) 4∆t= 9∆o d) ∆t= (9/4)∆o 28. The shape of pentacarbonyl iron(0) is a) square pyramidal b) tetrahedral c) trigonal bipyramidal d) Octahedral 29. The number of bridged CO groups in Octacarbonyldicobalt (0) is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 0 30. In black and white photography, the developed film is fixed by washing with hypo solution which dissolves the undecomposed AgBr to form a complex ion, the formed complex ion is: a) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– b) [Ag(SO4)2]3– c) [Ag(S2O8)2]3– d) [Ag(S2O4)2]3– Question Bank II PUC Chemistry 32 Coordination Compounds Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets: Set-1 (Primary, potash alum, Lewis acids, Ferricyanide, polyhedra, secondary) 1. The number of groups bound directly to the metal ion is secondary valence. 2. The primary valences are normally ionisable. 3. The spatial arrangements are called coordination polyhedra. 4. Potash alum dissociate into simple ions completely when dissolved in water. 5. In a coordination entitycentral atoms/ions are referred as Lewis acids. Set-2 (ambidentate, Octahedral, sigma bonds, Homoleptic, Square planar, chelate ) 1. When a ligand uses its two or more donor atoms simultaneously to bind a single metal ion, then it is a chelate ligand 2. Ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligetes in the complex is called ambidentate ligand. 3. Coordination number of the central atom is determined by the number of sigma bonds formed by the ligand with the central atom 4. Homoleptic complexes do not show geometric isomerism. 5. 3L3 Fac-Mer isomerism is shown by octahedral complexes of the form MX Set-3 (EDTA, ambidentate, trigonal bipyramidal, Werner, VBT, cis) 1. Example for polydentate ligand is EDTA. 2. In a coordination entity [PtCl2(en)2]2+ cis isomer shows optical activity. 3. Linkage isomerism arises in a coordination compound containing ambidentate ligand. 4. Werner theory fails to explain the bonds in coordination compounds have directional properties. 5. Sp3d hybrid orbitals have trigonal bipyramidal shape. Set-4 (high spin, diamagnetic, zero, Sp3, dsp2, [Co(CN) 6]3–) 1. [Co(NH3)6]3+forms diamagnetic octahedral complex 2. [NiCl4]2+ is a high spin complex. 3. [Co(CN)6]3- is an inner orbital complex 4. The oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] complex is zero. 5. The hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]2– is dsp2. Set -5 (Weak, tetrahedral, paramagnetic, five, four, Ethylenediaminetetra acetate] 1. Ethylenediaminetetra acetate ion can bind through two nitrogen and four oxygen atoms to a central metal ion. 2. [Ni(CO)4] complex tetrahedral and diamagnetic. 3. [FeF6]3– has a paramagnetic moment of five unpaired electrons. 4. [MnCl6]3– is outer orbital paramagnetic complex. 5. According to spectrochemical series Iodide ion is weak ligand Question Bank II PUC Chemistry Government of Karnataka 33 Set -6 (tetrahedral, crystal field, colourless, valence bond, violet, t32g e1g) 1. In high spin complexes d4 has t32g e 1 g configuration 2. In crystal field splitting the subscript ‘g’ is not used for tetrahedral complex. 3. If a complex having d1 electron absorbs light with energy in blue-green region than complex appears to be voilet. 4. d-dtotransition of the electron. The crystal field theory attributes the colour of the coordination compounds 5. Removal of water from [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating gives colourless compound. Two marks questions: 1. Write any two differences between double salt and coordination complex. 2. What is meant by double salt? Give one example. 3. What is chelate ligand? Give one example. 4. Name the Metal present in a) haemoglobin b) vitamin B12. 5. Write any two differences of primary and secondary valencies. 6. In a given complex [MnCl6]3– indicate primary and secondary valencies. 7. If secondary valence of Co3+ is 6 then number of moles of AgCl formed when excess AgNO3 is added to a) CoCl3.6NH3 b) CoCl3.5NH3is. 8. Indicate the type of valences having following properties a) Ionisable and satisfied by negative ions: b) Valences having characteristic spatial arrangements: 9. What is a) co-ordination polyhedra and b) counter ions. 10. What are primary and secondary valences if a complex with formula PdCl2.4NH3 precipitates 2 moles of AgCl per mole of compound with excess AgNO3? 11. What are heteroleptic complex? Give an example. 12. Write the correct IUPAC name of the following compounds a) [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 b) [Co(SCN)4]- 13. Draw structure of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ 14. Write structures of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] 15. Among tetrahedral and square planar complex, which will not show geometrical isomerism? Why? 16. Draw structures of optical isomers of [Co(en)3]3+. 17. Draw structures of optical isomers of [PtCl2(en)2]2+ 18. Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes (i) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2] (ii) [Co(en)3]Cl3 19. Write any two merits of crystal field theory. 20. What is crystal field splitting? Why subscrip