Hair Care and Haircutting Practice Questions PDF

Hair Care and Haircutting 151. When using the "clipper over comb" technique, the clippers move: Answer (C) a) Sideways across underside of the comb b) Up and down across underside of the comb c) Sideways across top of the comb d) Up and down across top side of the comb 152. While cutting a client'...

Hair Care and Haircutting 151. When using the "clipper over comb" technique, the clippers move: Answer (C) a) Sideways across underside of the comb b) Up and down across underside of the comb c) Sideways across top of the comb d) Up and down across top side of the comb 152. While cutting a client's hair, if the stylist momentarily stops cutting, what is the best method to handle the shears: Answer (D) a) Closed, on your station b) Palm them, closed, facing the client c) Palm them, open, facing the stylist d) Palm them, closed, facing the stylist 153. Thinning shears are used to: Answer (B) a) Remove excess length b) Remove excess bulk c) Create high fashion looks d) Create feathered layers 154. Using "single-notched" shears will have which of the following effects: Answer (B) a) Remove less hair than double-notched b) Remove more hair than double-notched c) Remove virtually no hair d) Only used to thin hair in the fringe area 155. Using "double-notched" shears will have which of the following effects: Answer (B) a) Remove more hair than double-notched b) Remove less hair than single-notched c) Remove virtually no hair d) Create a "spiked" look 156. A uniformed layered cut (same length throughout) is cut at what angle/degree: Answer (C) a) O b) 45 c) 90 d) 180 157. A haircut using a 0 degree/angle is referred to as all of the following except: Answer (A) a) Wedge b) BOB c) Blunt cut d) Solid form 158. Slithering / effilating refers to the technique of decreasing bulk by: Answer (D) a) Point Cutting b) Thinning the hair c) Opening & partially closing shears up & down the hair shaft d) Both B and C 159. The technical / medical term for the palm of your hand: Answer (B) a) Phalanges b) Metacarpus c) Hyoid d) Talus 160. There are bones in the metacarpus: Answer (B) a) 28 b) 5 c) 8 d) 14 161. This is the largest artery in the body: Answer (B) a) Carotid b) Aorta c) Jugular d) Talus 162. There are bones in the wrist / carpus: Answer (C) a) 28 b) 5 c) 8 d) 14 163. "Fringe" is another term for "bangs" and is generally used to cover the area from: Answer (A) a) Outer corner of the eyes b) Eyebrow arch c) From the front of the ear d) Inner corner of the eyebrows 164. When cutting hair with electric clippers, the hair should be: Answer (B) a) Damp b) Dry c) Wet d) Cut with lotion 165. The neutralizer used in a permanent wave solution / chemical hair relaxer is: Answer (D) a) Alkaline b) Base c) Neutral d) Acid 166. Round or circular in shape, these bacteria may appear singular or in groups: Answer (A) a) Cocci b) Bacilli c) Saprophytes d) Parasites 167. A haircut using a 180 angle will have which of the following lengths: Answer (C) a) Longer interior, shorter exterior b) Horizontal lines with a longer interior c) Shorter interior, longer exterior d) None of the above 168. Tapering has many different names, which of the following is not a name for tapering: Answer (D) a) Graduation b) Shingling c) Fading d) Blunt 169. The proper position for the shampoo cape while shampooing a client's hair is: Answer (A) a) Over the chair b) Under the chair c) Over for chemical services only d) Client's comfort controls 170. For what type of skin are facial scrubs contra-indicated (not advisable)? Answer (C) a) Oily b) Dry c) Acneic d) Normal 171. When the palms of the hands / finger tips are used in a rubbing motion, this is called: Answer (A) a) Friction b) Effleurage c) Tapotement d) Petrissage 172. Often referred to as the "Foundation of Hairstyling": Answer (A) a) Finger Waving b) Skip Waves c) Ridge Curls d) Roller Sets 173. Which of the following will remove the greatest amount of hair? Answer (C) a) Double-notched shears b) Single-notched shears c) Regular Shears d) Razor 174. The approximate pH of permanent wave neutralizer is: a) 8.2 - 9.6 b) 6.5 - 7.5 c) 3 - 5 d) None of the above Answer (C) 175. Which of the following would likely need to be melted prior to use: a) Clay b) Mud c) Wax d) None of the above Answer (C) 176. Paraffin is: a) Clay b) Mud c) Wax d) None of the above Answer (C) 177. You have lightened your client's hair from a Level 3 to a Level 6, what is the underlying exposed warm pigment and what is the correct Toner to create a neutral result: Answer (A) a) Orange / Blue b) Yellow / Violet c) Red / Green d) None of the above 178. You have lightened your client's hair from Level 5 to a Level 9, what is the underlying exposed warm pigment and what is the correct Toner to create a neutral result: Answer (B) a) Orange / Blue b) Yellow / Violet c) Red / Green d) None of the above 179. You have lightened your client's hair from Level 5 to Level 9, you then apply a blue based Toner, what is the result: Answer (A) a) Green b) Neutral c) Blue d) None of the above 180. In the "scissors over comb" technique, holding comb flat against the head will result in: Answer (D) a) The hair being shorter b) Greater stylist comfort / less wrist tension c) More scalp visibility d) Less scalp visibility / longer hair 181. Silking, refers to: Answer (A) a) Relaxing the hair with heat b) Relaxing the hair with a Thio relaxer c) Double Pressing the hair d) Relaxing the hair with a Guanidine relaxer 182. The approximate pH of an ammonium thioglycolate solution is: Answer (C) a) 2.5 - 5.5 b) 4.5 - 5.5 c) 8.2 - 9.6 d) 9.5 - 11.5 183. About 90% of the scalp hair is in this stage / phase at any given time: Answer (A) a) Anagen b) Catagen c) Telogen d) All of the above 184. About 10% of the scalp hair is in this stage / phase at any given time: Answer (C) a) Anagen b) Catagen c) Telogen d) All of the above 185. Although vellus and lanugo hair are similar, vellus hair can be distinguished because: Answer (B) a) Vellus hair has pigment b) Vellus hair has no pigment c) Lanugo hair has no pigment d) None of the above 186. A row of Pin Curls going in one direction beside a row going in the other direction: Answer (A) a) Skip Waves b) Ridge Curls c) C Shaping d) Cascade Curls 187. The hair that we are primarily concerned with cutting, is referred to as: Answer (D) a) Vellus hair b) Terminus hair c) Lanugo hair d) Terminal hair 188. Hair cut on an "Angle" is also referred to as being cut: Answer (B) a) Blunt b) On a Bias c) Tapered d) Graduated 189. Which of the following design lines would be used to add weight / build weight line? Answer (B) a) Vertical lines b) Horizontal lines c) Diagonal lines d) Perpendicular lines 190. Lanugo hair can be easily distinguished from Vellus hair because: Answer (C) a) Vellus hair is longer b) Lanugo hair has no pigment c) Lanugo hair has pigment d) Vellus hair is only found on children 191. The primary distinction between Vellus and Lanugo hair is: Answer (B) a) Vellus hair has pigment, Lanugo does not b) Lanugo hair has pigment, Vellus does not c) Vellus hair is only found on the face d) Lanugo hair eventually becomes Terminal hair 192. Which of the following can be achieved with the "shears over comb" technique? Answer (B) a) Texturizing b) Layering the nape very close to the skin c) Height at the crown d) Long layers 193. Which type of haircut could be used to disguise a large chin and/or prominent jaw line? Answer (B) a) Asymmetrical b) Chin length BOB c) Tapered back & sides with a full crown d) Shoulder length layers 194. When clipper cutting hair, the clippers should be held in what relationship to the comb? Answer (C) a) At a 90 degree angle to the comb b) At a 45 degree angle to the comb c) In the same position as the comb d) Beneath the comb 195. This is the widest portion of the head, sometimes referred to as the "crest area": Answer (D) a) Occipital b) Procerus c) Frontalis d) Parietal 196. The angle at which the fingers are held during a hair cut: Answer (D) a) Headline b) Guideline c) Frontline d) Cutting line 197. In haircutting, elevation is used to create: Answer (C) a) A weight line b) Control c) Graduation d) Movement 198. When cutting a BOB, Blunt Cut, or Solid Form, the most common cutting position is: Answer (A) a) Palm Down b) Palm Up c) Palm-To-Palm d) None of the above 199. The most commonly used elevations in haircutting are: Answer (B) a) 0 degree and 45 degree b) 45 degree and 90 degree c) All of the above d) None of the above 200. An angle below 90 degrees, is used primarily to: Answer (B) a) Decrease weight b) Build weight c) Decrease movement d) Increase movement 201. Angles above 90 degrees are used primarily to: Answer (A) a) Remove weight b) Add weight c) Build weight d) Both B and C 202. The approximate pH of a cold wave is: Answer (C) a) 2.5 - 5.5 b) 4.5 - 5.5 c) 8.2 - 9.6 d) 9.5 - 11.5 203. A "Blunt Cut", is sometimes referred to as / as a: Answer (D) a) BOB b) Zero degree / elevation c) One length / Solid Form d) All of the above 204. In hair cutting, the area above the parietal / crest is referred to as the: Answer (B) a) Exterior b) Interior c) Top d) None of the above 205. In hair cutting, the area below the parietal / crest is referred to as the: Answer (A) a) Exterior b) Interior c) Top d) None of the above 206. In a haircut, vertical lines will do all of the following except: Answer (A) a) Add weight b) Remove weight c) Be used with higher elevations d) Be used in graduated or layer cuts 207. Diagonal lines may be used in a haircut to accomplish all of the following except: Answer (C) a) Blend short layers to long layers b) Used to create beveling c) Direct the eye from side to side d) To create slanting/sloping lines 208. Beveling is a hair cutting technique used to create: Answer (A) a) Fullness by cutting the ends at a slight taper b) A term for angle cutting c) Technique using single notched shears d) Technique using double notched shears 209. All of the following are true about guidelines except: Answer (D) a) There are two basic guidelines, stationary and traveling b) May be located at the interior or exterior cutting edge c) They are usually the first section you cut, and determine length the hair will be cut d) They are synonymous with cutting lines 210. Which is not an intended consequence of using horizontal lines in haircutting: Answer (A) a) The removal of weight b) Building weight c) Direct the eye from side to side d) None of the above 211. If your client wanted longer layers, what angles / degrees would you correctly use: Answer (B) a) 45 degrees b) A combination of 45 and 90 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees 212. In a graduated or layered haircut, the most commonly used elevation is: Answer (B) a) Zero degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees 213. The most commonly observed elevation in a graduated or layered haircut is: Answer (B) a) Zero degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees 214. Which angle / degree would create the longest possible layers in a client's haircut? Answer (D) a) 45 degrees b) A combination of 45 and 90 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees 215. Which angles / degrees would provide the most movement and volume? Answer (D) a) Zero degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees 216. Over direction is a cutting technique that may be used in: Answer (D) a) A layered cut b) A graduated cut c) A length increase moving towards the front d) All of the above 217. In hair-cutting, horizontal lines are generally used to / for: Answer (D) a) Reduce weight b) In a graduated cut c) A stationary guideline d) To create weight 218. In blow-drying and wet-setting, the use of over direction will create: Answer (C) a) A firmer set b) A tighter curl c) Maximum volume d) None of the above 219. This type of guideline is used in blunt cutting / to create a gradual increase in length: Answer (B) a) Traveling b) Stationary c) Permanent d) Temporary 220. Whether the layers are different lengths or uniform, this type of guideline is used primarily when creating layered/graduated designs: Answer (A) a) Traveling b) Stationary c) Permanent d) Temporary 221. Checking the hair in the opposite direction from that which it was cut: Answer (D) a) Cross Cutting b) Cross Counseling c) Four Corners d) Cross Checking 222. The main ingredient in most permanent wave neutralizers is: Answer (C) a) Sodium Hydroxide b) Guanidine c) Hydrogen Peroxide d) Potassium Hydroxide 223. Hydrogen Peroxide is: Answer (B) a) Alkaline b) Acid c) Neutral d) None of the above 224. The neutralizer for a permanent wave or a chemical hair relaxer is: Answer (C) a) Neutral b) Alkaline c) Acid d) Sodium Hydroxide 225. When cutting diagonal lines (movement), the most common cutting position is: Answer (B) a) Palm Down b) Palm Up c) Palm-To-Palm d) All of the above 226. In cutting very straight hair, what degree of tension is recommended? a) Medium tension b) Minimum tension c) Client comfort is the determining factor d) Maximum tension Answer (D) 227. The effect of effleurage movements would be: a) Energizing b) Stimulating c) Inspiring d) Relaxing Answer (D) 228. A medium pressure, kneading or rolling motion is called: Answer (D) a) Friction b) Effleurage c) Tapotement d) Petrissage 229. A light, tapping movement, applied with either the hand or the finger tip is called: Answer (C) a) Friction b) Effleurage c) Tapotement d) Petrissage 230. Anhidrosis: Answer (C) a) Excessive sweat b) Foul smelling sweat c) Inability to sweat d) None of the above 231. A tapping motion applied with the finger tips moving quickly across the face: Answer (C) a) Friction b) Effleurage c) Tapotement d) Petrissage 232. A stimulating, brisk shaking movement, done with the finger tips is called: Answer (D) a) Friction b) Effleurage c) Tapotement d) Vibration 233. Approximately 12% of sunlight is comprised of: Answer (A) a) Visible light b) Ultra violet c) Low spectrum d) High spectrum 234. Approximately 80% of sunlight is comprised of : Answer (A) a) Infra red b) Ultra violet c) Visible light d) High spectrum 235. With both chemical and germicidal effects, White and Blue lights are considered: Answer (C) a) Tanning lights b) Good for opening pores c) Penetrating d) Non-penetrating 236. A sudden elevation or increase in the amount of sweat produced is referred to as: Answer (B) a) Bromhidrosis b) Hyperhidrosis c) Anhidrosis d) Pityriosis 237. Excessively foul smelling sweat is called: Answer (A) a) Bromidrosis b) Anhidrosis c) Pityriosis d) Nevus Flameus 238. Bromhidrosis: Answer (A) a) Foul smelling sweat b) Inability to sweat c) Excessive sweating d) Sweating of the hands and feet 239. The technical name for skin is: Answer (C) a) Epidermis b) Leucoderma c) Derma d) Stratum Cornium 240. The fatty layer of the skin that creates softness and suppleness, is called: Answer (A) a) Subcutaneous / Adipose b) Stratum Germinitivum c) Epidermis d) Stratum Lucidum 241. The thinnest skin is found on the: Answer (C) a) Palms of hands and soles of feet b) Neck c) Eyelids d) Lips 242. A congenital defect wherein the skin is unable to produce melanin is referred to as: Answer (B) a) Chloasma b) Albinism c) Hypokeratosis d) Nevus Flameus 243. Hypo(low)-pigmentation of the skin, caused by a decrease in melanocyte activity: Answer (C) a) Hypokeratosis b) Psoriasis c) Leucoderma d) Chloasma 244. What is the largest organ of the body? Answer (C) a) Brain b) Heart c) Dermis d) Stomach 245. Sebaceous glands are also known as: Answer (B) a) Sweat Glands b) Oil Glands c) Apocrine Glands d) Eccrine Glands 246. Sudoriferous glands are also known as: Answer (A) a) Sweat Glands b) Oil Glands c) Papillary Glands d) None of the above 247. Irregular shaped patches of skin depigmentation (typically on hands, face, & neck): Answer (B) a) Eczema b) Vitiligo c) Chloasma d) Lentignes 248. The sebaceous glands produce: Answer (B) a) Sweat b) Oil c) Sweat and oil d) Pheromones 249. The sudoriferous glands produce: Answer (D) a) Sweet b) Oil c) Sweat and oil d) Sweat 250. The sudoriferous glands function to: Answer (B) a) Regulate waste b) Regulate temperature c) Provide lubrication for the skin d) Produce pheromones 251. Another name for a birthmark is: Answer (C) a) Vitiligo b) Milia Rubra c) Nevus Flameus d) Miasma 252. An overactive sebaceous gland would produce: Answer (D) a) Excessive sweating b) Especially foul smelling sweat c) Dry skin d) Oily skin 253. The technical name for a blackhead is: Answer (B) a) Milia b) Comedone c) Chloasma d) Osmidrosis 254. Milia are more commonly referred to as: Answer (A) a) White heads b) Black heads c) Carbuncles d) Verrucas 255. A congenital defect such as causes Albinism, is one that: Answer (B) a) You contract c) Develops over time / contact dermatitis b) You are born with d) Is contagiuos 256. A small, pus filled abscess is referred to as a: a) Weal b) Boil Answer (B) c) Verruca d) Carbuncle 257. The technical name for a "Boil" is a: a) Weal b) Keloid Answer (C) c) Furuncle d) Verruca 258. For a waxing procedure to be most successful, the hair should be how long: Answer (B) a) 1/8 - ¼ inch b) ¼ - ½ inch c) ½ - 1 inch d) More than 1 inch 259. Leukoderma refers to: Answer (A) a) White patches on the skin b) Brown patches on the skin c) Scaly red patches on the skin d) Clusters of flat brown irregular skin blotches 260. Often referred to as the "Adam's Apple", the actual name for this bone is the Answer (C) a) Clavicle b) Thorax c) Hyoid d) Sternum 261. The name for the protein making up your skin, hair, and nails: Answer (D) a) Leucocytes b) Melanocytes c) Dermis d) Keratin 262. An area of thickened skin: Answer (A) a) Callus / Keratoma b) Chloasma c) Freckles d) Lentigenes 263. A group of brownish spots, without elevation, occurring in one spot is called: Answer (D) a) Neavus Flameus b) Milia Rubra c) Birthmarks d) Chloasma 264. Patchy brown skin discoloration, often the result of hormonal changes/pregnancy: Answer (B) a) Miasma b) Chloasma c) Milia Rubra d) Freckles 265. A swollen lesion usually lasting only a few hours, often caused by an insect bite: Answer (B) a) Carbuncle b) Wheal c) Naves Flameus d) Lesion 266. This is a contagious, pus filled abscess, generally caused by a bacterial infection: Answer (D) a) Weal b) Carbuncle c) Verruca d) Furuncle 267. A comedone extractor would be used to treat: Answer (D) a) White-heads b) Warts c) Boils d) Black-heads 268. This is a temporary hair removal technique producing results similar to waxing: Answer (D) a) Shaving b) Tweezing c) Electronic tweezing d) Sugaring 269. The only permanent hair removal technique: Answer (B) a) Laser hair removal b) Electrolysis c) Electronic Tweezing d) Epilating 270. What type of test should be conducted prior to any waxing or exfoliation procedure? Answer (D) a) Elasticity test b) Porosity test c) Strand test d) Predisposition test 271. If the dermatologist says you have verrucas, you have: Answer (C) a) Lesions b) Wrinkles c) Warts d) Acne pimples 272. Pityriasis Capitis, can result from extreme changes in temperature, as a contact reaction to certain skin and hair care products, or, as an allergic reaction to certain foods; it can be oily or dry - and is commonly known as: Answer (D) a) Dermatitis b) Psoriasis c) Lice d) Dandruff 273. Dandruff, can result from extreme changes in temperature, as a contact reaction to certain skin and hair care products, or, as an allergic reaction to certain foods; it can be oily or dry - and goes by the Latin / medical name of: Answer (B) a) Tinea Capitis b) Pityriasis Capitis c) Psoriasis d) Seborrhea These questions are placed side-by-side, because they demonstrate how the State Board Examination asks the same question over-and-over, year-after-year, with only a change in the wording. Sometimes, they provide you with a definition and ask you to name the illness/condition. Other times, they provide the Latin name and ask you for its more common name. In each instance, it is the same piece of information provided by your text, but if have "memorized" only one of the possible questions, and not really learned the material, you have an excellent chance of failing the exam. After you answer each question, take a moment and consider how that question could be reworded or turned around. If you were offered a considerable amount of money to re-write the State Board Examination - asking the same questions, but making them sound different - how would you do it? You would probably do something like occurred in questions 272 and 273, and that is exactly what the writers of the State Board Examination do all the time. 274. The epidermis is the: Answer (D) a) Fatty layer of the skin (known as Adipose) b) "True-Skin" c) Subcutaneous layer of the skin d) Top or outermost layer of the skin 275. The study of the microscopic anatomy of plant and animal cells, including their structure and function is known as: Answer (B) a) Dermatology b) Histology c) Cosmetology d) Osteology 276. Responsible for maintaining the bodies internal temperature: Answer (B) a) Sebaceous Glands b) Sudoriferous Glands c) Pituitary Glands d) Mucosum Glands 277. The Integumentary System refers to: Answer (D) a) The skin and its appendages b) The sebaceous & sudoriferous glands c) The circulatory system d) The skin, its appendages, and accessory organs 278. Serve to waterproof, cushion, excrete waste, and regulate the body's temperature: Answer (A) a) The sebaceous & sudoriferous glands b) The circulatory system c) The integumentary system d) The pulmonary system 279. Exfoliating creams usually have a pH in what range? Answer (D) a) 3.5 - 5.5 b) Acid c) Neutral d) Alkaline 280. The pH range of human skin is between: Answer (B) a) 3.5 - 4.5 b) 4.5 - 5.5 c) 5.5 - 6.5 d) 7.5 - 8.5 281. All exfoliation techniques (manual, mechanical, chemical) do essentially the same thing: Answer (B) a) Increase circulation b) Remove skin tissue c) Clean the pores d) Decrease circulation 282. Which governmental agency regulates cosmetics in the United States? Answer (B) a) EPA b) FDA c) USPS d) OSHA 283. Which agency regulates & approves the efficacy of products used for infection control: Answer (A) a) EPA b) FDA c) USP d) OSHA 284. Which governmental agency enforces health and safety standards in the workplace: Answer (D) a) EPA b) FDA c) USP d) OSHA 285. Which of the following agencies is responsible for approval of disinfectant solutions? Answer (D) a) Food and Drug Administration b) Bureau of Barbering and Cosmetology c) State Board d) Environmental Protection Agency 286. The function of the medulla is: Answer (D) a) To increase tensile strength of hair b) Has no function c) Contains the hairs coloring melanin d) Has no known function 287. If the papilla of the hair is destroyed, what will happen: Answer (B) a) Hair will not grow until papilla regenerates b) Hair will never grow again c) Hair will become "beaded" d) Hair will turn gray 288. How far can wet hair be safely stretched without causing damage or breakage? Answer (B) a) 100% b) 40 - 50%% c) 10% d) 60 - 80% 289. How far can dry hair be safely stretched without causing damage or breakage? Answer (B) a) 50% b) 20% c) 100% d) 10% 290. The term for baldness is: Answer (C) a) Alopecia areata b) Alopecia universalis c) Alopecia d) Alopecia premature 291. The term for baldness in patches, usually the result of illness or injury: Answer (A) a) Alopecia areata b) Alopecia universalis c) Alopecia d) Alopecia premature 292. All permanent chemical changes to the hair occur in the: Answer (D) a) Cuticle b) Medulla c) Papilla d) Cortex 293. To cause a permanent changes in the hair, a product must reach what layer? Answer (D) a) The Cuticle b) The Medulla c) The Papilla d) The Cortex 294. Which of the following terms refers to the hairs "elasticity" Answer (B) a) Texture b) Tensile c) Density d) Porosity 295. Amphoteric means that a product may react: Answer (D) a) As an acid b) As a base or an alkaline c) As an alkaline d) As an acid or an alkaline 296. Because hair may react as either an acid or a base, it is considered to be: Answer (D) a) Unpredictable b) Neutral c) Polymorphic d) Amphoteric 297. The growth pattern of hair is determined in the: Answer (C) a) Papilla b) Root c) Follicle d) Bulb 298. The term for baldness / hair loss which occurs over the entire body: Answer (B) a) Alopecia areata b) Alopecia universalis c) Alopecia d) Alopecia premature 299. The study of the hair is called: Answer (B) a) Histology b) Tricology c) Cosmetology d) Podiatry 300. The amount of moisture the cuticle can absorb is referred to as: Answer (C) a) Elasticity b) Density c) Porosity d) Capilli 301. Which of the following terms refers to the hairs "strength": Answer (B) a) Texture b) Tensile c) Density d) Porosity 302. Porosity refers to: Answer (C) a) How far a piece of dry hair can be stretched b) How far a piece of wet hair can be stretched c) The amount of moisture the hair can absorb d) The tensile strength of hair 303. To what does the term "Tensile" refer: Answer (A) a) Elasticity / strength b) Texture c) Density d) Porosity 304. Leucocytes are? Answer (C) a) White spots under the nails b) The Latin tern for freckles c) White blood cells d) Red blood cells 305. The term "Barba" refers to: Answer (A) a) The hair of the beard b) Eyelashes c) The hair of the eyebrows d) Excessive hair growth 306. Which of the following is the Latin / technical name for a beard? Answer (D) a) Vellus c) Cilia b) Lanugo d) Barba 307. Capilli refers to: a) Beard hair b) Vellus hair Answer (D) c) Facial hair d) Scalp hair 308. Hair of the scalp is referred to as: a) Barba b) Cilia Answer (C) c) Capilli d) Canities 309. Any disease of the hair is called: a) Onychia b) Monilethrix Answer (D) c) Tricology d) Trichosis 310. Ringworm of the scalp would be referred to as: Answer (C) a) Tinea b) Tinea pedis c) Tinea capitis d) Tinea rubra 311. Ringworm of the feet is referred to as: Answer (C) a) Tinea Pedis b) Athlete's Feet c) Both A and B d) Tinea Manus 312. In a haircut, vertical lines will do all of the following except: Answer (A) a) Add weight b) Remove weight c) Be used with higher elevations d) Be used in graduated or layer cuts 313. The structure located at the bottom of the follicle is known as: Answer (C) a) Oil gland b) Sebaceous gland c) Hair Bulb d) Arrector Pili 314. Portion of the hair follicle responsible for causing the hair to stand up (goose bumps): Answer (D) a) Oil gland b) Sebaceous gland c) Hair Bulb d) Arrector Pili 315. Lanugo hair does not have which of the following? Answer (B) a) Oil gland b) Medulla c) Hair Bulb d) Pigment 316. This hair is pigmented, quite fine, and can often be found all over the body: Answer (B) a) Terminal hair b) Lanugo hair c) Barba hair d) Vellus hair 317. There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the inner most layer / part? Answer (B) a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cuticle d) Terminus 318. There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the outer most layer / part? Answer (C) a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cuticle d) Terminus 319. There are 3 layers / parts of the hair shaft, which is the middle layer / part? Answer (A) a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cuticle d) Terminus 320. Erythrocytes are? Answer (D) a) White spots under the nails b) The Latin tern for freckles c) White blood cells d) Red blood cells 321. In which part / layer of the hair shaft, do all "chemical reactions" occur? Answer (A) a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cuticle d) Terminus 322. In which part / layer of the hair shaft, do all "permanent changes" occur? Answer (A) a) Cortex b) Medulla c) Cuticle d) Terminus 323. Hair thickness can mean different things to different people, for State Board, which of the following refers to the actual number of hairs on a person's head: Answer (C) a) Thickness b) Diameter c) Density d) Calibration 324. Which of the following terms refers to the actual size of the hairs on a person's head: Answer (A) a) Thickness b) Diameter c) Density d) Calibration 325. Texture refers to: Answer (C) a) Porosity b) Thickness c) Diameter d) Elasticity 326. Which two layers of the hair shaft are responsible for the diameter of a hair shaft: Answer (B) a) Medulla & Cuticle b) Medulla & Cortex c) Cortex & Cuticle d) Cuticle & Cortex 327. If the Medulla is absent from an individual's hair, that person would have: Answer (B) a) Greater diameter b) Lesser diameter c) Greater density d) Lesser density 328. "Diameter" refers to the actual size of each hair, diameter can influence: Answer (A) a) Hair texture b) Hair elasticity c) Hair density d) Hair porosity 329. This hair is unpigmented, quite fine, and can often be found all over the body: Answer (D) a) Terminal hair b) Lanugo hair c) Barba hair d) Vellus hair 330. This hair is thicker, more pigmented, and found on the scalp, face, and extremities: Answer (B) a) Lanugo b) Terminal c) Vellus d) Barba 331. Although similar, Lanugo hair is easily distinguished from Vellus hair because: Answer (D) a) Lanugo hair is only located on the scalp b) Vellus hair is finer c) Lanugo hair is more coarse d) Lanugo hair has pigment 332. What is the technical name for the eye lashes and eye brows? Answer (B) a) Barba & Cilia b) Cilia & Supercilia c) Supercilia & Cilia d) Barba & Super Cilia 333. How many hair follicles does the "average" person have on their head? Answer (A) a) 100,000 b) 200,000 c) 150,000 - 200,000 d) 2,000 per square inch 334. This bone forms the back / rear most portion of the skull: Answer (B) a) Parietal b) Occipital c) Posterior d) Procerus 335. What is the average rate of daily hair loss? Answer (A) a) 50 - 75 hairs per day b) 100 - 150 hairs per day c) 150 - 25 hairs per day d) 25 - 50 hairs per day 336. Contraction of the arrector pile muscle (anger, fear, cold) causes which of the following: Answer (C) a) Rapid heart rate b) A cold sweat c) Elevation of the hair follicle d) Shivering 337. Soft, fine, broken hair, that may appear "Beaded": Answer (B) a) Trichorrhexis b) Monilethrix c) Onychophagy d) Onychia 338. The approximate pH of an acid balanced permanent wave is: Answer (B) a) 6.9 - 7.2 b) 4.5 - 7.9 c) 4.5 - 5.5 d) 8.2 - 9.6 339. The approximate pH of an acid permanent wave is: Answer (C) a) 6.5 - 7.5 b) 4.5 - 7.9 c) 4.5 - 6.5 d) 8.2 - 9.6 340. In the salon industry, the word "Tool" refers to: Answer (A) a) A perm rod b) Any piece of electrical equipment c) A foolish person d) Curling and Flat Irons 341. Alkaline permanent waves should be wrapped: Answer (B) a) With firm even tension b) Without tension c) Overdirected d) Underdirected 342. Acid permanent waves should be wrapped: Answer (A) a) With firm even tension b) Without tension c) Overdirected d) Underdirected 343. A tiny cup-shaped pit buried within the fatty layer of the scalp: Answer (A) a) Papilla b) Hair Bulb c) Follicle d) Arrector Pili 344. This is the lowest portion of the hair shaft that fits like a "cap" over the papilla: Answer (B) a) Follicle b) Hair Bulb c) Arrector Pili d) Sebaceous Gland 345. Projection of the dermis surrounded by a small "cap" like structure referred to as the: Answer (B) a) Arrector Pili b) Papilla c) Follicle d) Bulb 346. Which of the following is not true of the hair bulb: Answer (C) a) It is the lowest part of the hair strand b) It is a club shaped structure c) Determines shape of hair shaft d) Covers the dermal papilla 347. This is found at the base (bottom) of the hair follicle: Answer (B) a) Hair Bulb b) Papilla c) Arrector Pili d) Sebaceous Gland 348. This muscle causes "Goose Bumps" whenever there is a sudden temperature change: Answer (C) a) Zygomaticus major b) Procerus c) Arrector Pili d) Zygomaticus minor 349. Which is not one of the stages in the life of a piece of hair? Answer (C) a) Anagen b) Catagen c) Canities d) Telogen 350. The primary growth stage of the hair: Answer (A) a) Anagen b) Catagen c) Canities d) Telogen