AUBF-MTAP 2024 Past Paper PDF

Document Details

FamousFrancium

Uploaded by FamousFrancium

B.M.S. Institute of Technology and Management

2024

AUBF-MTAP

Tags

medical physiology exam medicine

Summary

This document is a past paper from AUBF-MTAP 2024. It contains multiple-choice questions and answers on medical topics, such as urinary system, reproductive system and other medical subjects. This paper is suitable for medical students preparing for an exam or reviewing past content.

Full Transcript

## AUBF-MTAP 2024 **1. Each of the following conditions may produce transudative effusion, EXCEPT:** * a. Cirrhosis * b. Nephrotic syndrome * **c. Congestive heart failure** * d. Pleural infection **2. The PAH test is dependent on:** * 1. Glomerular filtration * 2. Tubular reabsorption * 3. Tub...

## AUBF-MTAP 2024 **1. Each of the following conditions may produce transudative effusion, EXCEPT:** * a. Cirrhosis * b. Nephrotic syndrome * **c. Congestive heart failure** * d. Pleural infection **2. The PAH test is dependent on:** * 1. Glomerular filtration * 2. Tubular reabsorption * 3. Tubular secretion * 4. Renal blood flow * a. Only 3 * b. 1 and 2 * **c. 3 and 4** * d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 **3. If refrigeration is used to preserve a urine specimen, which of the following may occur?** * a. Cellular or bacterial glycolysis will be encountered * b. Formed elements will be destroyed * **c. Amorphous crystals will precipitate** * d. Bacteria will proliferate **4. The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is:** * a. 1.000 * b. 1.010 * **c. 1.025** * d. 1.040 **5. Reasons for analyzing amniotic fluid include the following except:** * a. To diagnose genetic and congenital neural tube disorders * b. To assess fetal liver maturity * c. To assess fetal lung maturity * **d. To detect fetal distress from hemolytic disease of the newborn** **6. If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have which of the following?** * a. Decreased pH * **b. Decreased sperm count** * c. Increased viscosity * d. Decreased sperm motility **7. All of the following are changes that may occur in a urine specimen allowed to remain unpreserved at room temperature except:** * a. Increased pH * **b. Decreased glucose** * c. Increased urobilinogen * d. Decreased ketone **8. A reagent strip tests positive for bilirubin, it can be assumed that the bilirubin is present in the urine:** * **a. Is conjugated** * b. Is attached to protein * c. Has passed through the small intestine * d. Is unconjugated **9. Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for glucose?** * a. A double sequential enzyme reaction * b. The peroxidase activity of glucose * c. Copper reduction * **d. Buffered reactions of mixed enzyme** **10. The presence of monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid is characteristics of which of the following?** * a. Rheumatoid arthritis * b. Osteoarthritis * c. Pseudogout * **d. Gout** **11. Which of the routine chemical tests performed on urine is the most indicative of renal disease?** * a. Protein * b. Glucose * c. Bilirubin * **d. Blood** **12. What term is used to denote proteinuria that cannot be detected by routinely used reagent strips?** * a. Microalbuminuria * b. Postural proteinuria * **c. Orthostatic proteinuria** * d. Benign proteinuria **13. Which of the following laboratory findings in the peritoneal fluid is highly diagnostic for intestinal perforation?** * a. Low glucose * b. Increased cholesterol * **c. Increased alkaline phosphatase** * d. Low creatinine **14. What is the traditional urine test for differentiating urobilinogen and porphobilinogen?** * a. Ehrlich * b. Rothera * **c. Blondheim** * d. Watson-Schwartz **15. The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in descending order is:** * **a. Squamous, transitional, renal tubular** * b. Renal tubular, transitional, squamous * c. Transitional, renal tubular, squamous * d. Squamous, renal tubular, transitional **16. A ΔA450 value in amniotic fluid that falls into zone I indicates:** * a. a normal finding without significant hemolysis * b. severe hemolysis * c. moderate hemolysis * **d. high fetal risk** **17. In semen analysis, a decreased in which of the following is most associated with prostatic cancer?** * a. Sucrose * **b. Zinc** * c. Fructose * d. WBCs **18. Elevated peritoneal urea nitrogen and creatinine associated with elevated serum urea but normal creatinine suggests:** * a. Malignancy * b. Tuberculous peritonitis * **c. Acute pericarditis** * d. Bladder rupture **19. Focal segmental glomerular nephritis is associated with which of the following?** * a. Untreated streptococcal infections * **b. Diabetes mellitus** * c. Heroin abuse * d. Autoimmune disorders **20. Anti-glomerular basement antibody is seen with:** * a. Wegener's granulomatosis * b. Goodpasture's syndrome * **c. IgA nephropathy** * d. Diabetic nephropathy **21. What is the ideal urine specimen for urobilinogen testing?** * **a. 2-hour spx collected between 2 and 4pm** * b. 2-hour spx collected between 2 and 4 am * c. 24-hour spx preserved with HCl * d. 24-hour specimen collected in dark bottle **22. Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals, based on their birefringence, is achieved using:** * a. Transmission electron microscopy * b. Compensated polarizing microscopy * **c. Direct polarizing microscopy** * d. Phase contrast microscopy **23. Which of the following tests is used to evaluate the tubular secretion function of the kidneys?** * a. Urine osmolality * **b. Creatinine clearance** * c. PAH * d. None of the above **24. Which of the following results is not consistent with cystitis?** | | | |---|---| | **Color:** | Yellow | | **Clarity:** | Hazy | | **Specific Gravity:** | 1.015 | | **pH:** | 7.0 | | **WBC:** | 80-100/hpf | | **RBC:** | 5-10/hpf | | **Protein:** | 1+ | | **Glucose:** | Negative | | **Ketones:** | Negative | | **Bilirubin:** |Negative | | **RTE:** | 10-15/hpf | | **Blood:** | Trace | | **Urobilinogen:** | 1.0 | | **Nitrite:** | Positive | | **Leukocyte esterase:** | ++ | | **Many bacteria** | | * a. pH * **b. Protein** * c. 5-10 RBCs/hpf * d. 10-15 RTE/hpf **25. Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved:** * a. In the refrigerator * b. At room temperature * **c. In a dark container** * d. At 37 degrees Celsius **26. The classic Ehrlich's reaction is based on the reaction of urobilinogen with:** * a. Dinzotized dichloroaniline * **b. P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde** * c. p-dicholorobenzene diazonium salt * d. p-aminobenzoic acid **27. How many leukocytes are normally present in the CSF obtained from an adult?** * a. 0-30 cells/uL * b. 0-20 cell/uL * c. 0-10 cell/uL * **d. 0.5 cell/uL** **28. All of the following can cause acid urine, except:** * a. Diarrhen * b. Vomiting * **c. Starvation** * d. Dehydration **29. Useful adjunctive test for tuberculous pericarditis in cases with negative stains in which tuberculosis is suspected:** * a. Creatine kinase * **b. Cholinesterase** * c. Adenosine deaminase * d. Pyruvate kinnse **30. Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?** * a. A positive antibody screen * **b. A glucose value of 140 mg/dl.** * c. A decrease of a-fetoprotein result * d. An increase of a-fetoprotein result **31. Which of the following dyes are used in Sternheimer-Malbin stain?** * a. Black * b. Orange * c. Red * **d. Methylene blue and safranin** **32. Appearance/color of viable sperm using eosin-nigrosin stain:** * **a. Hematoxylin and eosin** * b. Crystal violet and safranin * c. Methylene blue and cosin * d. White **33. Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates and exudate?** * a. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.80, ratio of fluid to serum protein of (0.70, WBC count of 1000/mL * **b. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum L.D of (0.4, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of 800/mL** * c. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of (0.8, ratio of fluid to serum protein of 0.7. WBC count of 2500/mL.. * d. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of (0.45, ratio of fluid to serum protein of (0.40, WBC count of 800/mL **34. Nomarski microscope is an example of:** * **a. Interference contrast microscope** * b. Phase contrast microscope * c. Polarizing microscope * d. Bright-field microscope ** 35. The ova of which parnsite may be found in the urinary sediment?** * a. Trichomonas vaginalis * **b. Schistosoma haematobium** * c. Entamoeba histolytica * d. Trichuris trichiura **36. When the laboratorian performs the microscopic examination of urine sediment, which of the following are enumerated using low-power magnification?** * a. Bacteria * b. Rod blood cells * **c. Casts** * d. Renal tubular cells ** 37. A synovial fluid has a high cell count and requires dilution to be counted. Which of the following diluents should be used?** * a. Dilute acetic acid * **b. Dilute methanol** * c. Normal saline * d. Phosphate buffer solution **38. Which is the reference method for determining fotal lung maturity?** * **a. Phosphatidylglycerol** * b. L/S ratio * c. Amniotic fluid bilirubin * d. Acetylcholinesterase **39. So far, the most frequently encountered contaminant parasite in the urine is:** * a. Schistosoma haematobium * ** b. Trichomonas vaginalis** * c. Gardnerella vaginalis * d. Enterobius vermicularis **40. Glitter cells are:** * a. RBCs * **b. PMNs** * c. Platelets * d. Bacteria **41. When using polarized light microscopy, which urinary sediment component exhibits Maltese cross formation?** * a. RBC * **b. Oval fat bodies** * c. Yeast * d. Parasites **42. Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when:** * a. They are seen in both the serum and CSF * b. At least five bands are seen in the CSF * **c. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum** * d. None of the above **43. Which observation is least useful in distinguishing a hemorrhagic serous fluid from a traumatic tap?** * a. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated * b. Presence of xanthochromia * **c. The formation of a clot** * d. Diminished RBCs in successive aliquot **44. Urine specimen for drug testing must have what temperature range:** * a. 30-40°C * b. 32.5-37.7°C * **c. 35.2-37.5°C** * d. 32.7-35.5°C **45. A large urinary concentration of ascorbic acid may inhibit the following reagent strip reaction, except:** * a. Leukocyte * b. Blood * c. Ketones * **d. Glucose** **46. What is the most commonly used blood test for diagnosing phenylketonuria (PKU)?** * **a. Benedicts** * b. Ehrlich * c. Guthrie * d. Rothera **47. If semen collection occurs at the physician's office or patient's home, what care should be taken during transport?** * a. Determination of liquefaction time * **b. Temperature should be maintained at room temperature** * c. Specimen must be submitted within 2 hours * d. Specimen must be kept at 37 degrees Celsius **48. Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is true?** * a. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome * b. A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus * **c. Sphingomyelin levels increase during the third trimester, causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last 2 weeks of gestation** * d. A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid **49. What is the purpose of the 6M hydrochloric acid in the Hoesch test?** * a. Inhibits porphobilinogen * b. Inhibits urobilinogen * **c. Precipitate hemoglobin** * d. Accelerates the reaction with urobilinogen **50. Excessive fat metabolism, as seen in diabetes mellitus, is indicated by the presence in the urine of:** * a. Cholesterol * b. Triglycerides * **c. Ketone bodies** * d. Glucose

Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser