Frontier Airlines A320/321 Unofficial Oral Exam & Checkride Study Guide PDF

1 Frontier Airlines A320/321 Unofficial Oral Exam & Checkride Study Guide Information to follow is strictly to be used as reference material only, and is not approved for use by Frontier Airlines or any official authority. Refer to F9 VOL I, II, & III for approved company procedures and materials. Last Updated as of 1/25/2025 2 Contents: Memory Items General Limitations Stable Approach Criteria Aircraft System Limitations Vol. 1 Flight Operations Manual Vol. 2 Flight Operations Manual Vol. 3 Flight Systems Manual (to be continued. refer to Vol. 3, Ethos Flight Deck Guide, and F9 CBTs) Memory Items: - EGPWS Alerts - Emergency Descent - Loss of Braking - Smoke/Fumes/AVNCS Smoke - Stall Recovery - Stall Warning at Lift-Off - TCAS Warnings - Unreliable Airspeed / ADR Check Proc - Windshear (Reactive) - Windshear Ahead (Predictive) - EGPWS Alerts: 3 “TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP” - “OBSTACLE AHEAD PULL UP” - AP …….. ……………OFF - PITCH…. ……………PULL UP (Pull to full backstick and maintain until clear) - THRUST LEVERS…..TOGA *Note: Do not make any configuration changes until clear of conflict* - Emergency Descent: - CREW OXY MASKS….USE - SIGNS………………….ON - EMER DESCENT……….INITIATE - If A/THR not active - THR LEVERS….IDLE - SPD BRK………………..FULL - Loss of Braking: - REV………………………MAX - BRAKE PEDALS………..RELEASE - A/SKID OFF……………..ORDER - A/SKID & N/W STRG…...OFF - BRAKE PEDALS………...PRESS - MAX BRK PRESSURE….1000 PSI (limited automatically in NEOs) IF STILL NO BREAKING - PARKING BRK…SHORT & SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS - Smoke/Fumes/AVNCS Smoke: *IF PERCEPTIBLE SMOKE APPLY IMMEDIATELY*: - OXY MASK/GOGGLE……..USE/100%/EMERG (Ensure crew communications and limit continuous use of interphone) 4 (Turn emergency knob to remove condensation of smoke from mask) - Stall Recovery: (As soon as any stall indication is recognised) - NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL……APPLY - BANK………………………………….WINGS LEVEL - When out of stall (no stall indications present): - THRUST………INCREASE SMOOTHLY AS NEEDED - SPEEDBRAKES………………………..CHECK RETRACTED - FLIGHT PATH………………………RECOVER SMOOTHLY - IF IN CLEAN CONFIGURATION AND BELOW 20,000 feet: - FLAP 1………………………...SELECT - Stall Warning at Lift-Off: (may with AOA Probe damage) - THRUST………………….TOGA At the same time: - PITCH ATTITUDE……….15° - BANK…………………….WINGS LEVEL - TCAS Warnings: - AP (if engaged)...................OFF - BOTH FDs………………..OFF Respond promptly and smoothly to an RA or maintain vertical speed as required to reach green and/or avoid red area of the vertical speed scale - Unreliable Airspeed / ADR Check Proc: *If the safe conduct of flight is impacted* : - AP/FD……………………….OFF - A/THR………………………OFF 5 - PITCH/THRUST: - Below THR RED ALT………………………15°/TOGA - Above THR RED ALT and below FL100…..10°/CL - Above THR RED ALT and above FL100…..5°/CL - FLAPS……………………….MAINTAIN CURRENT CONFIG - FLAPS (if CONF FULL)........SELECT CONF 3 & MAINTAIN - SPEEDBRAKES…………….CHECK RETRACTED - L/G…………………………...UP - Windshear - Reactive: (PFDs display “WINDSHEAR” Red flag & Aural 3x “WINDSHEAR) - If after V1: - THR LEVERS…………..TOGA - REACHING Vr………….ROTATE - SRS ORDERS…………...FOLLOW - AIRBORNE, INITIAL CLIMB, OR LANDING: - THR LEVERS AT TOGA…………SET OR CONFIRM - AP (if engaged)................................KEEP ON - SRS ORDERS……………………..FOLLOW *Note: Do not make any configuration changes until clear of windshear* - Windshear Ahead - Predictive: (W/S Ahead Red “WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) - When Airborne: (W/S AHEAD & Aural “WINDSHEAR AHEAD WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) - THR LEVERS…………….TOGA - AP (if engaged)....................KEEP ON - SRS ORDERS……………..FOLLOW 6 - Landing: (W/S AHEAD Red & Aural “GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) - GO AROUND……………PREFORM - AP (if engaged)....................KEEP ON *Note:Configuration changes may be made as long as windshear is not entered* General Limitations: 1. Maximum number of passenger seats/FAs required with PAX: - A320: 190 / 4 FAs - A321: 240 / 5 FAs 2. F9 AC Tail #s to Type: - 200s: A320 CEO - 300s: A320 NEO - 600s: A321 NEO - 700s: A321 CEO 3. Flight Manuevering Load Acceleration Limits: - Clean Config: -1g to +2.5g - Any Flaps/Slats Exteneded: 0g to +2.0g 4. Approach Categories: - Category C: A/Cs 200s, 300s, 600s (unless Vapp 140+ then Cat D) - Category D: A/Cs 700s 5. Environmental Envelopes: - Max Operational Pressure Altitude: 39,800 ft - Max Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing: 9,200 ft - Min Pressure Altitude for Takeoff and Landing: -2,000 ft 6. Runway Limits: - Max Runway Slope: +/- 2% - Minimum Runway Width: - A/C 200s & 600s: 100ft - A/C 300s & 700s: 148ft - Minimum Runway Length: 5000 ft or if longer stated by performance data *Note: Narrow runway not authorized for auto-land or normal landing if n/w string inop or 1+ brakes are inop. Diversion recommended with rudder/rudder pedal jam, Y/D fail, or any fault with the n/w string.* - A/C 300S & 700S: 148ft 7. Wind Limits for Takeoff and Landing: (RCAM 6/6/6 only) - Takeoff: 7 - Crosswind: 35kts - Tailwind: - A/C 200s, 300s, 600s: 15kts - A/C 700s: 10 kts - Landing: - Crosswind: 38kts - Tailwind: 10kts 8. Speed Limits: - VMO/MMO: 350kts/ Mach.82 - VLE Max Speed With Gear Extended: 280kts - VLO Extension: 250kts - VLO Retraction: 220kts - Max Tire/Ground Speed: 195kts - Max Wiper Operation: 230kts - Max with Cockpit Window Open: 200kts - A/C 200s Max turn speed when over 167,550 lbs: 20kts (general rule for all turns) 9. Maneuvering Speeds - Takeoff, Approach, and Landing: - Green Dot, S speed, F speed (depending on configuration) - At Altitude: - 300 kts/Mach.78 Stabilized Approach Criteria: - By 1000ft AFE: a. Steady rate of descent to not exceed 1200FPM b. On Correct Lateral Path: - ILS/LOC: 1 dot deflection - RNAV: 0.3nm deflection - VOR: 1/2 dot deflection c. On Correct Vertical Path: +/- 1 dot deflection d. In Final Landing Configuration (Landing Gear Down, Flaps Extended, Speedbrakes Retracted) e. Absent of Any GPWS Warnings and Cautions - By 500ft AFE: a. All previously stated at 1000ft AFE except descent not to exceed 1000FPM 8 b. Landing Checklist Completed c. Speed: Vapp -5 to +15 d. Thrust stabilized, usually above idle, with what is required to maintain Vapp Aircraft System Limitations: Pressurization: 1. Pressurization - Cabin Differentials: - Negative: -1.0 psi - Positive: + 9.0 psi - Safety Relief Valve: +8.6 psi 2. When does the RAM AIR INLET open? - Only if differential pressure below +1.0 psi (even if selected open) 3. Use of ground air is prohibited while packs are on APU: 4. Can the APU be started and operated with “LOW OIL LEVEL” ECAM? - Yes, but mx action is required within the next 10 hours of APU operation 5. APU Starter Duty Cycle: - 3 consecutive start attempts, then 60 mins required before another attempt 6. APU Altitudes (most important): - APU Battery Only Restart Limit: 25,000ft msl - APU Start with Normal Electrics: 39,500ft msl - Max Altitude to Assist Engine Start: 20,000ft msl - *Note: APU Bleed not authorized for use of Wing Anti-Ice* 7. APU Start authorized during refueling, but no power transfers are permitted 8. Perform Normal APU shutdown in the event of a fuel spill Auto Flight: 9. Auto Flight Minimum Engagement Height Limits: - After Takeoff: 100 ft agl or 5secs after liftoff - Enroute: 900 ft agl - RNAV Visual Approach: 500ft agl - Non-Precision Approach: DA/DDA (DDA= DA+50ft) - ILS CAT 1 Approach FMA: 160ft agl - Non-Autoland CAT2/3 FMA: 80ft agl - Go-Around (if not already engaged): 100ft agl - Autoland Approach: ROLLOUT/Taxi Speed 9 10.When is autoland required? Expected to be set up and briefed a. Required when conditions exist below CAT 1 minimums b. To be set up and briefed when visibility at or below 2400 RVR or 1/2 sm and all requirements for an autoland can be met 11.When is the use of Descent modes Open DES and DES prohibited? - Inside the FAF or below 1000 ft on a visual approach 12.Autoland Autobrake Requirements: - Runway less than 8,000 ft: Medium - Runway 8,000 ft or longer: Low or Medium Engines 13.Engine Thrust Time Limits: - TOGA All Engines Operative: 5 mins - TOGA OEI: 10 mins - MCT: Not Limited 14.Required ENG Oil Quantities: - A/C 200S & 700S / CEOs: - 9.5 qt +.5 qt per every hour of estimated flight time - A/C 300s / A320 NEO: the highest of…. - 10.6 qt or…. - 9.0 qt +.5 qt per every hour of estimated flight time - A/C 600s / A321 NEO: - OAT at or above -30° C (*normal temps*): 14qt - OAT below -30° C: 16.5 qt 15.Min ENG Oil Temp for ENG Start? Takeoff? - -40° C - 52 C for P&W 19 C for all others 16.When is a TOGA takeoff required? - On slippery or contaminated runways - When windshear is suspected, reported, or known - When required by a special departure procedure or FLEX performance numbers cannot be generated - TFLEX less than actual OAT Flight Controls: 17.Maximum Flaps/Slats Extended Altitude: - 20,000ft msl 18.When is the use of Speed Brakes Prohibited/ OEB 57? - In all NEO Aircraft / 300s and 600s for approach at or below 240 kts and: - GWCG is above 35% or 10 - In Overweight Landing Condition Fuel: 19.What is the most restrictive minimum fuel imbalance allowed (with tanks full on takeoff is most restrictive)? - A320s: - Outer Tanks: 1102 lbs - Inner Tanks: 815 lbs - A321s: - 882 lbs Hydraulics: 20.Hydraulic System Operating Pressures: - Max: 3200 psi - Normal: 3000 psi - Blue System Powered by RAT: 2500 psi - PTU active when a pressure difference of 500 psi exists between the G and Y systems Brakes: 21.Maximum Brake Temperature for Takeoff: - 300 ° C 22.Are brake fans permitted for takeoff or in flight? - Nope 23.When is a logbook entry and MX action required for brake temperatures? - If 2 main brakes of the same wheel on the same wheel differ by more than 150℃ and one is at 600℃ or more Navigation: 24.Required Equipment for RNP-10: - 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 IRs - 2 NDs - And 1 GPS if 6.7 hours from last IRS ground alignment or 5.7 from last position update Vol. 1 Flight Operations Limitations: PIC Duties: 11 1. Define PIC Emergency Authority: - In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the Pilot in Command may take any action that they considernecessary underthe circumstances. In such a case, they may deviate from prescribed operations procedures and methods, weather minimums,and FAA regulations to the extent requiredin the interests of safety. Tarmac Delays: 1. When do tarmac delay procedures take effect/start? 30 minutes of extended tarmac delay time starting from 5 minutes after last pax is boarded or at touchdown after landing. Required ATC Reporting: 1. What reports are required to be made to ATC without request? - Deviation from an ATC clearance or instruction for an emergency or in response toa TCAS Resolution Advisory - (RA). - When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flightlevel for a newly assigned altitude or flight level. - When unable to climb/descend ata rate of at least500 feet perminute. - When an approach has been missed.(Requestclearance for specific action; i.e., to alternate airport, another - approach, etc.) - Change intheaverage trueairspeed (atcruising altitude) when it varies by 5percentor 10knots (whicheveris - greater)from that filed in the flight plan. - The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. - When leaving any assigned holding fix or point. - Pilots encountering weather conditions that have not been forecast, or hazardous conditions that have been forecast, are expectedto report suchconditions to ATC. - Any information relating to the safety of flight or wheneverencountering a meteorological condition or an irregularity in a ground or navigational facility, in flight, which is essential to the safety of other flights. - Any malfunction, in controlled airspace, of navigational, approach, or communication equipment, including VOR, ADF, GPS anomalies, complete orpartial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of air/ground communications capability. - Reports should includethe call sign and flightnumber, equipmentaffected, degree to which the capability to operate underIFRin the ATC system is impaired, and the nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC 12 Required Company Reports: 1. When do you need to write a hazard report? - Within 36 hours of occurrence, specific required occurrences in Vol. 1.10.35 Takeoff and Landing Quals/Requirements: 1. What is required to operate into a special qualification airport? - ThePilot in Command or second in command has made an entry tothatairport, including a takeoff andlanding, while serving as a flight crewmember; or - The Pilot inCommand has qualified by using pictorial means (Lido Airport Qualification charts) for that airport. 2. When must a captain conduct takeoffs and landings? - At all times: It is recommended that Captains perform the takeoff whenthereported visibility is equal to or less than 1/2mile or RVR 1800 (whenRVR is reported - Anytime specified by companies pages for special airports regardless of first officer qualifications. - If a First Officer has less than 100 hours (includes OE) flight time as second incommand in operations under 14 CFR 121 at Frontier Airlines in the typeairplane being flown, and the Captain is not a check airman,the Captain must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations: - The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 ft (RVR is controlling over visibility); - Theprevailing visibility in the latestweather report is ator below 3/4 mile; - The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar conditions thatmay adversely affect airplane - performance; - Thebraking action on the runway to beused is less than “good;” - Thecrosswind componentfor therunway to be used is in excess of 15 kts - Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport,low-level windshearadvisories or alertsare in effect,or - another aircraft has reported windshear for a particular runway; - The airport is a special airport (see Section10.40 - Special Airports); - Any other conditions wherethe Captain deems it prudent 3. What Conditions must exist to accept a LAHSO clearance? - Dry runway - Weather 1500 and 5sm or 1000 and 3sm with PAPI/VASI - No windshear reported - Tailwind no greater than 3 knots - Landing must be made in the touchdown zone - Landing performance assured stoping distance 13 - No MELs affecting landing performance - Clearance received prior to 1000 AFE and Rejected landing procedure reviewed by flight crew 4. What under what weather conditions is takeoff prohibited? - Freezing drizzle, light freezing rain, and rain on cold soaked wings below temps on holdover tables - moderate to heaving freezing rain and hail at any temperature High Mins Captain Restrictions: 1. What restrictions and minimums apply to a high mins Captain? - If a Captain has less than 100 hours acting as PIC in type at Frontier (not including IOE): - Approach Minimums must be increased by 100 ft and ½ sm or equivalent rvr - Destination weather requirements are increased by ½ sm (vis only) - Alternate weather requirements for dispatch remain normal but high mins must still be applied to approaches flown to an alternate - CAT III approaches not authorized - Unless dispatched under Exemption 21515 mins Alternates: 1. When is an alternate required? - 1, 2, 3 rule (from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA ceilings exist at or below 2000 ft agl or visibility is at or below 3sm) *UNLESS EXEMPTION 20295* *Note: Stop here unless prompted to continue further* - T/O Alternate Required (weather below PIC CAT1 landing minimums) *within 330 nm/1 hour OEI cruise in still winds* - Drift Down Alternates (when operating under Method 2) - Severe Icing (forecasted from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA) - RNAV only approaches at arrival airport (Alternate with radio NAVAID approaches required) - Flights over 6 hours (regardless of weather) - International flights - Supplemental/Charter Flights (*Not conducted/authorized at F9*) Also a Second Alternate is Required if: - Marginal Weather (Weather within 1/2 sm or 100ft of approach minimums at destination and first alternate. *Main body of TAF still applies*) 14 - Exemption 20144 (When relief is provided from the TEMP, PROB, BECOM portion of a TAF which is below approach minimums at destination and 1 alternate) 2. How are standard alternate minimums derived? (*Note: approaches used must not state “Alternate Mins N/A*) a. For alternates with 1 NAVAID approach system regardless of how many runways it serves: - Add 400ft to DA/DDA and 1sm to visibility required b. For alternates with at least 2 separate NAVAID approach systems which serve at least 2 different suitable runways: - Add 200 ft to the highest DA/DDA and 1/2 sm to the highest visibility requirements from the approaches available 3. What else is required besides an alternate if severe icing is forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA at the destination? - Derived alternate minimums apple to the destination for flight dispatch/release requirements only 4. What are the dispatch and alternate minimums required for international destinations? - Add 1500 ft and 2 sm to usable approach minimums, or standard 2000 ft and 3 sm miles if these minimums are higher than the method previously stated 5. What distance should a T/O alternate exist within from a departure airport? - Within 1 hour of flight time at normal cruise speed with OEI and in still air not to exceed 330 nm (Airbus calculated performance mileage) (*Note: Easy answer is just 330 nm*) 6. What distance is required for a drift down alternate? - 130 nm from any point on a Method 2 route segment (explain 1 vs 2 clearances) 7. What visibility always takes precedence? - RVR Flight Release: 8. When is an ARTR required? - New MEL/CDL/NEF - Any changes to alternates - 1 hour delayed past original release time - Prior to departure, route change of more than 100 nm - Fuel added +1000 lbs or -500 of planned - Diversion to an airport that is not listed on the release 15 (*Note: crewmember changes do not required an ARTR, but the acting PIC must accept the release*) 9. What must be listed on an ARTR? - Amendment # - Time & Date - Dispatcher Initials 10.What is AWP? What is available to substitute AWP if inop? a. ACARS Weight and Balance Performance b. Can be substituted with AeroData cFDP app or TLR 11.What rules determine if TLR data is valid? - PQNH not less than 00.10 of planned - Actual T/O weight does not exceed MTOW - No interpolation allowed between distances or airspeeds listed and highest most conservative value is to be used - If TOGA or Bump T/O required if OAT greater than MT a ARTR is required 12.At what point must fuel be at or above BRK RLS fuel for departure? What makes up BRK RLS fuel? - Before advancing Thrust Levers for Takeoff - Sum of Burn, Contingency, Altn, and Reserve fuel values 13.For what condition is contingency fuel calculated? - Green Dot speed at 15,000 msl 14.For what conditions are alternate fuel calculated? - Cost index zero, at planned cruise altitude, to the most distant IAP at the alternate, and including one approach and landing 15.What terrain clearance is assured and at what points for Method 1 vs. Method 2 Dispatch? - Method 1: If an engine fails from V1 to destination performance allows for 1000ft clearance of terrain within 5nm either side of planned route, plus positive net gradient of 1500 ft agl at destination must be assured - Method 2: Method 2 analysis starts from planned cruising altitude and ensures 2000 feet clearance along the planned route 5nm either side and all the same other clearances as method 1 Dispatch: 16.What is required to be reported to dispatch? - ETA exceeds FGMC wheels-up ETA by 15 mins - Cruise altitude change by greater than 4000 from planned - Deviation of 100 nms or more from planned route - Fuel added in excess of 1000 pounds from planned ramp fuel - Unforecasted weather conditions 16 - Excess fuel burn from planned that my impact completion of flight to planned destination - Malfunctions effecting fuel burn - Holding - Unplanned sustained use of A/I 17.When are position reports required to dispatch? - Crossing international FIR boundaries - Every hour in international airspace - When departing from flight planned route in international airspace 18.When is re-dispatch required after a diversion? - When on the ground for more than 6 hours 19.What must exist is weather reported less than 3/4 or 4000 RVR for approach and landing? - 15% extra required runway length - Precision instrument marking and/or operable centerline light - Flight release states released under CAT 2 or 3 Logbook: 20.What pages are required to be present in the aircraft logbook? - All pages to and including the last heavy check 21.What is meant by and “FR” MEL? - Follow up Required (MX action and logbook entry required before each flight) 22.What are the time frames associated with each MEL category (A,B,C,D)? a. Specific designated deferral period b. 3 days c. 10 days d. 120 days (*Note: times based on DEN/MT time*) 23.What logbook entries are to be made by flight crew? - A discrepancy - Flight Crew Placarding - System reset - FR (Follow Up Required) - Overweight/or Hard Landing - Aborted Takeoff - Severe Turbulence 24.Can a flight crew member removed and reset a collared circuit breaker under the direction of MCC? - No, only mechanics 17 Required Equipment: 25.What documents are required onboard the aircraft? - Aircraft Logbook - Diversion/Forms Kit - (For Intl. Flights) International Briefcase 26.Required equipment for RVSM: (*FL290-FL410*) per FARs? - 2 primary altimeters - - One autopilot with altitude alerting capabilities - A altitude reporting XDPR Per Vol. 2? (Systems required to meet FAR requirements) - 2 ADRS, 2 PFDs, and 2 DMCS - 1 XPDR - 1 AP - 1 FCU Chanel - One FWC 27.What aircraft equipment is required for international flights (*dispatched to not from*)? - GPWS, ACARS, TCAS (APU? No longer in Vol.1) 28.Minimum equipment required for RNP-10 Dispatch: (*Authorized in Gulf of Mexico and the Carribean*) - 2 MCDUs - 2 FMGCs - 2 IRs - 2 NDs 29.What is required when flying over-water without RNP-10? - Flight must remain within VHF range 30.What RNP is required if GPS updating is lost? - RNP 10 or better on flights over 6.2 hours 31.Where is a wheelchair located onboard? Where must others be put upon request? - One wheelchair is located in an aft. Overhead bin and a max of 2 wheelchairs can be secured to seats in the cabin taking priority over revenue passenger seats. Fuel requirements: 32.What is the acceptable difference without a report required between the fuel loaded on fuel slip and calculation of fuel relibility check? - +/- 300 lbs 33.What fuel condition must be reported if AWP is unavailable? - +/- 400 lbs from planned fuel at the gate 18 34.If no fuel slip is available what fuel load is acceptable without an ARTR? - +/- 500 lbs from palnned fuel at the gate Security: 35.When must a security search be accomplished? - First flight of the day based on scheduled departure time (may be delayed between schedule arrival and departure between 2300LT and 0100 LT or done early) - Outbound and inbound international flights 36.Define security threats levels: - Level 1. Disruptive, suspicious, or threatening behavior not including physical contact - Level 2. Physically Abusive Behavior - Level 3. Imminent threat of death or significant injury, or display/use of a weapon - Level 4. Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flight Deck Pilot Currency: 37.When must a new medical be submitted to the company? - By the 25th of the month prior to expiration Abnormals: 38.What defines a standard engine failure procedure and when must it be complied with? - Proceduce with a turn to a heading commenced at FRA - Not mandatory in VMC and mandatory in IMC until radar vectors are available 39.What defines a simple-special engine failure procedure and when must it be complied with? - Procedure with a turn to a Navaid or heading at highest bank for current speed prior to FRA - Mandatory in VMC until 1000 AFE and 3000 AFE in IMC if radar vectors not available 40.What defines a complex-special engine failure procedure and when must it be complied with? - Charted engine failure procedure that is to complex to fit in simple-special description - Must be flown in entirety regardless of VMC or IMC, then to be followed by radar vectors 41.How many times are you allowed to complete system resets? - Only 1 successful system reset allowed per flight, unless directed by MCC 42.What distinguishes if in the event of an emergency the Captain should relay to the FAs a cabin advisory or emergency prep? - Cabin Advisory if evacuation not anticipated, Emergency Prep if Evacuation is anticipated 43.What is the sequence of actions and notifications made to the flight attendants in the case of an emergency for a cabin advisory? Emergency Prep? 19 - Cabin Advisory: - 1. Call using normal call button - 2. Advise you are providing a cabin advisory - 3. Identify Abnormal at hand - 4. Advise new flight plan, time, and cabin preparation - 5. Advise Emergency Preparation is not anticipated and the Rpossibility of that changing - Emergency Prep: - 1. Call FAs using EMERG call Button - 2. Advise Flight Attendance you are providing an Emergency Prep (TEST) - Type of Emergency (be specific on affected areas concerning safe evacuation) - Evacution anticipated? - Review Signals (Brace, Remain Seated, Evacuate x3) - Time remaining until landing Vol. 2 Aircraft Operations Manual: 1. When is an airplane required and when must the crew brief and prepare to make an auto land? - Must be performed below CAT 1 minimums, and must be briefed and flown as a CAT II or III with Vis/RVR is at or below 1/2sm/2400 and all required conditions/equipment exist 2. What conditions must exist to perform an auto land? - CAT II/III runway, CATII/III aircraft, crews CAT II/III trained,appropriate ground facilities are operational, wind within limits, braking action medium or better. Automatic landing is not allowed below -1000 ft pressure altitude. 3. Define icing conditions: - Icing conditions exist when the OAT (on ground or after takeoff) or the TAT (in flight) is at or below 10°C and visible moisture in any formis present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 sm (1 600 m) or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals). No longer considered icing conditions below -40 C unless descending into icing conditions anti-ice still required 4. In what sequence should abnormal procedures be completed? - Memory Items - OEBS - ECAM Actions - QRH procedures - Abnormal and Emergency Procedures (time permitting) 20 - When following all actions complete compute required landing distances and fuel penalty factors that apply as well assure communication established with ATC, dispatch, flight attendants, and passengers 5. What distinguishes the difference between ECAM display of “LAND ASAP” amber vs. red? - Red: Land as soon as possible at an airport at which a safe landing can be made - Amber: Consider landing at the nearest suitable airport 6. The manipulation of which controls inflight requires a cross check between the flight crew? - Thrust Levers - Engine Masters - IR selectors - All guarded controls - CBS in the event of a system reset inflight or QRH procedure 7. When reaching the ECAM Status page for what actions should thE PF announce “stop ECAM” to complete? - Normal checklists - System Resets - Additional QRH procedures that the crew is prompted to “consider” by the ECAM (ENG relight) 8. What conditions or abnormals justify an aborted takeoff below 100 knots? Above 100 knots (high speed abort)? - Below 100 knots: Captains discretion depending on circumstances. Consider for any ECAM/Caution with exception of potentially nonthreatening Cautions like forgetting to set TOGA Thrust - Above 100 knots: - 1. Fire or severe damage - 2. Loss of engine thrust - 3. Threats to Safety of Flight - 4. Red ECAM warnings - 5. The following Amber ECAMs: - a. F/CTL Sidestic Fault - b. ENG FAIL - c. ENG REVERSER FAULT - d. ENG REVERSER UNLOCKED - e. ENG THR LEVER FAULT (To summarize safety of flight, fire, severe damage, Red Cautions, any Amber caution related to side stick, thrust levers, engines, and reversers) 9. When is a manual engine start recommended or required? 21 - After an aborted start for Engine stall, hung start, EGT Overlimit, low start air pressure - Or expecting an aborted start due to degraded bleed conditions due to high temperature, high altitudes, or start cart. And also Ignition faults or as directed by an MEL 10.What threat is associated with a manual engine start (crew awareness)? - In case of start abnormalities the engine start will not be automatically aborted or restarted, crew must abort start (Eng master off, manual start off) if necessary (consider dry crank before next attempt - Engine will start regardless of thrust lever position and deliver thrust once available based on TLA 11.When does the FMGS recognize an engine failure condition once takeoff is commenced or in flight? (For activation of EOSID and other FMGS OEI functions) - Engine master off - N2 below idle - One TLA below 5 degrees with the other above 22 degrees - FADEC shows engine fault 12.What changes are made by the FMGS when an engine failure condition is recognized? - Managed target speed changes to V2 - PROG displays engine out maximum recommended altitude - PERF page automatically displays with “EO CLR” - EOSID shows as temporary flt plan - “LVR MCT” flashes above thrust reduction altitude 13.What margin of extra distance is added to AWP landing performance? - Low and Medium braking - none - Manual (none) or min required distances - additional 15% margin 14.How to accomplish a complete IRS alignment vs a fast alignment? - Complete leave off for more than 5 seconds - Fast leave off and turn back on within 5 seconds 15.Max speed to commence a 180 degree turn on the runway? Min length? - 10 knots on runways at least 100 ft wide 16.Define icing conditions: - When OAT on the ground or TAT in the air is at or below 10 degrees C (and below - 40 C TAT in the air unless descending) and visible moisture exists, or on the ground if moisture/contamination exists on airport surfaces 17.What should be completed if on the ground in icing conditions for more than 30 minutes? - Ice shedding procedure/run up in Vol. 2 18.What distance should be used to avoid significant thunderstorms (especially magenta radar depiction)? - By at least 20 nm above FL230, by 5 to 10 nm below FL230 22 - By 5000 feet vertically over tops while avoiding overflight of tops reach FL250 or above 19.To what color and when do runway edge lights change? - Change from white to amber in the last 2000 ft or halfway down the runway whichever is less 20.Where are runway touchdown light located on a runway? - 100 ft passed threshold to 3000 feet or runway midpoint, whichever is less (TDZ markings from 500 ft to 3000 ft) 21.To what color and when do runway centerline lights change color? - Change from white to alternating white and red starting at the last 3000 feet of runway and change to all red for the last 1000 ft 22.What RVR transmissometers are controlling for approach minimums? - TDZ for CATI/II (TDZ only required if reporting for CATI and more required for CATII below 1600RVR) - CATIII all are required and controlling 23.When should ATC be advised of an auto land being accomplished? - When weather is better than 800 and 2 sm 24.What triggers the auto land warning light? - ILS deviation of ¼ dot off localizer and 1 dot off glide slope - Loss or disconnect of both autopilots - ILS transmitter failure - Difference between RA indicatorsexceeding 15ft 25.Strategy for OEI/engine failure in cruise? (Items train to memory in RED) - Set MCT - A/THR off - Pull HDG if required - ATC notify - Decelerate to drift down speed then pull SPEED (*standard.78/300, obstacle green dot until clear of obstacles, fixed speed 320/MMO* until VS = -500 fpm then pull VS) - Set appropriate lower altitude and pull OPEN DES - Use ice protection only when necessary - APU ASAP - Diversionary routing if necessary taking into account MORA altitudes and EO LRC Ceiling - ECAM actions at any point preceding when appropriate - Restore A/THR and appropriate vertical and lateral guidance once established at EO LRC Ceiling or ATC directed altitude, or by approach phase Vol. 3 Aircraft Systems Manual: Instruments: 1. What are the ADIRUs, how many, what do they provide? 23 - Air Data Intertial Reference Systems - 3 ADRs and IRs - Provide attitude, altitude, speed, and position informations 2. What are DMCs, how many, and what does each DMC relay information to? - Display Management Computers - 3 - DMC 1 goes to Captain PFD, ND, SD, E/WD normally - DMC 2 to FO side normally, can supply SD and E/WD - DMC 3 any display as selected (standby in case of failure, selected by EIS DMC switch) 3. What are SDACS, how many, and what is their function? - System Data Aquisition Concentrators - 2 - Aquires information from sensors associated with aircraft systems and the position of aircraft control switches, processes this information, and sends it to DMCs for digital displays and cautions 4. What are FWCs, how many and what is their function? - Flight Warning Computers - 2 - Directly acquire and process warning level data from aircraft sensors and the SDACs for display through the DMCs (designed to work regardless of SDAC operation) ECAM: 1. ECAM color coding and meanings? - RED : configuration or failure that requires immediate action - AMBER : Crew awareness for a configuration or failure but doesn’t require immediate action - GREEN : Normal operation of a system - WHITE : Titles and remarks - BLUE : ECAM Actions - MAGENTA : Inhibit messages 2. When is T/O and Land inhibition active? 3. What are the three levels of warning messages, how ae they displayed and prioritized? - Level 1, 2, and 3 (3 being the highest priority and down priority in reverse order) - Level 1: ECAM message with MASTER CAUT message ON E/WD but no light and no aural alert - Level 2: ECAM message with MASTER CAUT message E/WD with MASTER CAUT light and 1 single chime aural alert - Level 3: ECAM message with MASTER WARN message E/WD and MASTER WARN light flash and Continuos repetitive chime or associated aural alert 4. What are the three types of ECAM failures and how are they displayed? 24 - Primary- System or component that causes other system to fail or operate at a degradation level (displayed in red or amber with line under system title and box around primary failure) - Secondary- Loss of a syste, or component of a system as the result of a primary failure (displayed on right memo page with an asterisk) - Independent- single component failure not causing the loss of other major systems or components (displayed amber underlined) 5. How is an ECAM System Advisory displayed? - Automatic display of the system SD page with the systems title pulsing white and affected component parameter pulsing green (means a system is approaching a limit or degrading) 6. What is monitored by the T/O Memo and when is the takeoff memo displayed or take place? - Displayed 2 minutes after second engine start or if T.O. Config pushbutton pressed with at least one engine running. T.O config is also automatically run when T.O. power is applied. Monitors: - Displayed on ECAM memo: - Autobrake Selection - Cabin Signs - SPLR arming - Flap T/O setting - And T.O Config check complete - Not displayed on ECAM memo/uninhibted messages: - Rudder trim not in range - Pitch trim not in range or disagree - Flap/Slats position not set or disagree - Spoilers not retracted - Sidestick faults - Doors - Brake temps - Parking brake on - Thrust Lever position - Fuel TK pump LO PR - HYD PUMP or SYS LO PR - IDG disconnected - GEN FAULT or OFF (does not monitor for second engine started) 7. When is the landing memo displayed? - Below 2000 fty RA or 800 if 2000 not reached, until decellerating below 80 knots after touchdown 25 Electrical: 1. What are the electrical power sources and their priority? a. 2 AC ENG driven generators (GEN 1/GEN2) On side priority b. GPU external power to unpowered buses c. AC APU Generator to unpowered buses d. Opposite side ENG driven generators to unpowered bus e. AC Ram Air Turbine (RAT) drives EMER GEN through Blue Hydraulic Pressure f. 2 DC Batteries 2. What is the purpose of static inverters? - Static Inverters convert DC power to AC power - Specifically converts power from battery 1 to the AC ESS Bus (when only battery power) 3. What is the purpose of transformer rectifiers (TRs), how many? - 2 normal and 1 essential power TRs on board for each set of AC and DC buses converts AC power to DC power 4. What is the purpose of Bus Ties, how many and to what systems? - Bus ties (2 located on either side: sides 1/left and 2/right with APU and GPU between) are designed to separate the respective sides of the electrical system to their power source or with less generators operating allow both sides to be powered by one or more generators providing all essential AC power 5. What is the GCU and its function? - Generator Control Unit: controls output of each generator while providing protection to the electrical network through the control of Genrator Line Contactors (GLCs), which connect each generator to the electrical network 6. What is the IDG and it’s function? - Integrated Drive Generator: drives each engine driven generator providing constant speed regardless of rpm 7. What does the EMER GEN power? - AC Essential Bus and DC Essential Bus through the Essential TR 8. What is the purpose of the AC ESS SHED BUS? DC ESS SHED? - Shed power to less essential items to reduce the load on the AC ESS BUS - Same applies for DC ESS SHED 9. What is the minimum battery voltage? - 25.5 10.Circuit breaker color meaning? - Green is monitored by the ECAM “C/B TRIPPED” - Black is not monitored - Red collared - not to b f****ed with (wing tip breaks) 11.When is an IDG oil temp or low oil pressure ECAM displayed? - Oil outlet temp exceeds 180C or low oil pressure, inhibited with N2 below 14% 12.What is required to disconnect the IDG? 26 - Engine must be running or windmilling (can only be reconnected by mx) - Disconnect guarded pushbutton must not to pressed for more than 3 seconds to prevent damage 13.If AC BUS 1 fails how is the AC essential bus powered? What if power is not transferred automatically by the AC ESS FEED Bus tie? - Powered by AC BUS 2 - If not connected automatically, AC ESS FEED pb closes bus tie between AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS 14.In the event of TR failure how is the DC ESS BUS powered? - Normally by AC BUS 1 through the ESS TR Powerplants: CFM LEAP-1A: 1. By what shaft is the accessory gear box driven? - N2 core rotor/high pressure 2. How many FADECs does each engine have? - 1 two channel FADEC 3. How many igniters per engine? - 2 A & B 4. What is used to drive the position of engine stators and bleed valves - Fuel pressure controlled by the Fuel Metering Unit (FMU) and Split Contol Unit/Servo Valve Assembly (SCU/SVA) commanded by the FADEC 5. What is the EIU? - Engine Interface Unit, which exchanges data ith the FADEC from various systems necessary that impact engine FADEC controls (ACSC, LGCIU, ENG A/I, FMS A/THR, Engine Master Switches, Engine Mode Selector) 6. How are the engine starters operated/powered? - Pneumatically 7. What bleed stage normally provides bleed air to the pneumatic system? - Intermediate pressure (IP) stage normally unless insufficient at low power settings (HP) High pressure stage opens to maintain adequate pressure and temperature 8. What will cause an Engine Fault light to either side of the engine mode selector? - HP fuel shutoff valve position is abnormal - Automatic Engine Start Faults/Aborts - Thrust Control Malfunction Fuel: A320NEO: 1. How many fuel tanks and what positions? 27 - 5 total: 1 Center, 2 Inner Wing 1 each side, 2 Outer Wing 1 each side (plus surge tanks outside of outer tanks per side) 2. How is fuel heated? - Through the IDG heat exchanger which is used for IDG cooling 3. Wht is the tank filling priority depending on total fuel quantity? - Inner then outer wings tanks fill - Then center tanks fills 4. Where are wing tank pumps located, how do they operate, and where do they provide fuel? - 2 Located inside each Inner wing tanks - Provide fuel from the inner tanks to the engines and APU - In normal operation with X-Feed valve open pumps supply fuel from the wind tank to it respective engine 5. How is fuel transfered between outer and inner tanks? - Electrically operated transfer valves (2 per wing) between the tanks 6. What are the purpose of wing vent surge tanks? - Provide temporary fuel storage during thermal expansion and aircraft movement 7. How is fuel transferred from the center tank? - Transferred from center to inner tanks using transfer valves operated by the Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit (FLSCU) leading to jet-pumps that use pressure from the inner tank pumps to transfer the fuel 8. Explain normal sequence of fuel consumption from the fuel tanks? - Center tank fuel is consumed first - Then Inner tank fuel is consumed down to 1650 pounds - Then outer tank transfer valves open to gravity transfer to inner tanks 9. In normal operation, from what side is the APU provided fuel? - By left wing tank pumps or APU fuel pump from left side when wing tank pumps are not operating 10.How does the crossfeed valve operate to correct fuel imbalances between tanks? - Opens and used in conjunction with the shutting off fuel pumps on the lighter tank side so that fuel is consumed only from one tank by all running engines and APU if on 11.What is the purpose of low pressure fuel valves (ENG & APU)? - To shut off fuel flow directly an Engine or the APU upstream of the system to allow fuel to still flow through the system to other operating sources of power. 12.What occurs in the event of wing tank pump failure or loss of power? - Suction Valves, which normally remain closed by pump pressure, open when pumps stop to allow gravity feed to the engines (note: gravity feed use of center tanks not possible, in event of pump power loss or failure, center tank fuel unusable) 13.What is the function of the fuel inerting system? 28 - A fuel inert gas generator produces and delivers air low in oxygen content into the fuel tanks as fuel is used (operates when an engine is running via bleed air automatically) 14.When do center trank transfer valve open to empty the center tank? - When FLSCU detects 1100 lbs of fuel consumed from the inner tanks, the center tank transfer valves open until the inner tans are full again. This sequence continues until the center tank is empty. The center tank valves close 5 mins after the center tank is emptied 15.What does an inner tank pump fault light appear? - If delivery pressure with the associated pump drops when the pb is selected on and the pump is supposed to be delivering pressure 16.When will a center tank transfer fault light appear? - When the center tank transfer valve does to close according to the proper FLSCU logic and/or when the inner tank overflows 17.When will the center tank transfer mode select pb show a fault light? What is done to correct this? - When a failure of the auto center tank transfer mode occurs: - When there is more than 550 lbs remaining in the center tank and either wing tank contains less than 1100 lbs - In this case the ECAM will direct the pilot to select manual ode, which manually open the center tank transfer valves until turned back to auto 18.When and how does outer tank transfer occur to inner tanks? - When center tanks fuel is empty and inner tank fuel is approximately 1650 lbs, electrically operated outer tank transfer valves are opened and remain open until refueled APU: 1. APU Altitudes? a. Altitude restriction to supply both packs with bleed air and assist engine start? - 15000 msl b. To supply one pack? - 22,500 msl c. To supply electrical power only? - 39,800 msl d. Max altitude or starting the APU with battery power? - 25,000 msl e. Max altitude to assist engine start? - 20,000 msl 2. What computer controls the functions of the APU? - ECB- Electronic Control Box- controls logic for: starting, shutdown, autoshutdown, speed, temperature, fuel flow, APU flap operation, and bleed supply 29 3. What occurs automatically if an APU fire is detected on the ground? - APU autoshutdown - APU fire extinguishing - Horn sounds in nosewhell well Fire Detection and Protection: General: 1. Where is fire detection located onboard? - Engines - APU 2. Where is smoke detection located on the aircraft? - Lavatories - Cargo Compartments - Avionics Bay 3. Where is fire protection/extinguishing located? - Lavatory - Cargo Compartments - Engines - APU 4. How is fire detected for the Engines and APU? - A series Loop detectors 5. Where are fire extinguishers located in the cabin/flight deck? - 2 in forward overhead bin - 1 in aft overhead bin - 1 in flight deck by F/O seat on floor Engines: 6. How many fire bottles are available for use per engine? - 2 for each 7. How many fire loops are there per engine, where are they located, and what system interprets their data? - 2 gas filled loops running in parallel of each other within each engine (Loop A and B) - 3 sensing elements one located in the pylon nacelle, engine core, and engine fan section - Loops run to the FDU- Fire Detection Unit 8. How do the fire loops trigger fire detection signal from the FDU? - By sensing heat at a preset level - Both A and B sensing triggers a fire warning, or: - If one loop fails and the other detects a fire, or: - If both loops fail within ? seconds of each other 9. What indication appear with an engine fire warning? - Engine fire pb light - CRC 30 - Fire light by engine mode selector on associated engine side - MASTER WARN light - ENG FIRE ECAM - ENG page displayed on SD 10.What occurs when an ENG Fire Pushbutton is pressed? - CRC is silence - Squibs are armed - Closes low pressure fuel valve - Closes hydraulic fire shutoff valve - Closes engine bleed valve - Closes pack flow control valves - Cuts off FADEC power supply - Deactivates the IDG 11.What needs to be seen on the ENG FIRE test? - CRC - MASTER WARN lights - ENG FIRE pb illuminates - Squib an disch light illuminate - ENG FIRE ECAM Displays - ENG page displays on SD - Fire light on associated engine side by eng mode select illuminates on pedestal - (then all go away when test complete and pb released) APU: 12.How many fire bottles are available for use of an APU fire? - One 13.What should be seen by the crew when testing APU fire detection? 14.What happens when the APU FIRE Pb is pushed? Avionics: 15.Where is smoke detection in the avionics bay located, what causes a trigger of the smoke warnign? - A detector located in the air extraction duct - Triggered when smoke detected for more than 5 seconds 16.Is fire extinguishing available for the avionics bay? - no , smoke configuration procedure limits oxygen to avionics bay to reduce impact 17.Explain the smoke configuration of the avionics bay triggered by the ECAM and accomplshed by the flight crew via following the ECAM? - Skin inlet valve closed - Blower fan off (air provided by conditioned air only) 31 - Extract fan overridden on - Skin exchange outlet and inlet valves closed - Cargo underlfoor valve closed Cargo: 18.Where is smoke detecting located in the cargo bins? - A smoke detector in the fwd and aft cargo bins 19.How many fire bottles are available for use in the cargo compartments? - One fire bottle for use in either cargo bin depending on crew selection Lavatories: 20.What type of fire extinguishing is available in the lavatories? - A temperature release fire bottle located in the waste bin area (no crew control) CVR & FDR: 1. How long is the CVR tape data stored? - 25 hours of data available from the time of CVR operation - 2. When does the CVR operate in auto mode (without the CVR GND CLT pb selected on)? - For the first five minutes after power is applied to the aircraft until the first engine is started - It always operates in light regardless of engine operation - And stops recording after landing 5 mins after the last engine is shutdown 3. How much data does the DFDR store? When does it operate? - The last 25 hours of operating data - Operates at the same time as the CVR as described above and also paired with the GND CLT pb Doors: 32

Frontier Airlines A320/321 Unofficial Oral Exam & Checkride Study Guide PDF

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