Final Exam Review Bio 1011 Winter 2020 PDF

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This document contains review questions for a biology exam, likely covering anatomy and physiology topics. The content is formatted as exam review questions, and spans topics from various chapters. The document appears to be past exam material.

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**Final Exam Review** CH 1 1. You should be familiar with the areas of anatomy (microscopic, macroscopic or gross, surface, developmental, clinical, regional, systemic). 2. You should know the definition for homeostasis and the examples of negative and positive feedback mechanisms....

**Final Exam Review** CH 1 1. You should be familiar with the areas of anatomy (microscopic, macroscopic or gross, surface, developmental, clinical, regional, systemic). 2. You should know the definition for homeostasis and the examples of negative and positive feedback mechanisms. 3. You should know the surface, directional, and sectional terms. Three important representative terms that you must know are mental, ventral and sagittal. Mental = chin; ventral = anterior; sagittal = body divided in two halves. 4. Differentiate between pleura, pericardium, and peritoneum. 5. You should be familiar with the abdominal quadrants. The liver, located in the RUQ, is an important accessory organ of digestion. 6. The diaphragm (an important respiratory muscle) separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. 7. You should be familiar with the different imaging studies or techniques (X-rays, CT scan, MRI, PET scan, ultrasound and angiography). CH 2 8. Remember that isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons (e.g., carbon-14 is an isotope of carbon). 9. You should be able to differentiate ionic bonds from covalent bonds. Remember the key words here are *transfer* of electrons and *sharing* of electrons. Ionic bonds form when electrons transfer from one atom to another. 10. You should be familiar with the pH scale. pH = 7, neutral. pH \< 7, acidic. pH \> 7, basic or alkaline. 11. You should know the following facts about enzymes: 1) are protein catalysts that speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy, 2) are not changed or consumed in a reaction, 3) work at optimal pH and temp. 12. You should know that glucose is the primary energy source for cells. Our body stores glucose in liver and skeletal muscle in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is a polysaccharide or a complex sugar. 13. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). Genetic information is stored in nucleic acids. 14. You should know base pairing. Purine bases include Guanine and Adenine. Pyrimidine bases include Cytosine, Thymine, and Uracil. Purine bases pair up with pyrimidine bases. For example, A pairs up with T and C pairs up with G. T is replaced by U in RNA. 15. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Peptide bonds link amino acids. CH 3 16. You should know the functions of some organelles. For example, 95% of the ATP required by the cell is made in the mitochondria. The synthesis of lipids (e.g., steroid hormones) and carbohydrates (e.g., glycogen) takes place in the smooth ER. Detoxification is another function of the smooth ER. 17. You should know the difference between replication, transcription, and translation. DNA synthesis is replication. RNA synthesis is transcription. Protein synthesis is translation. Replication and transcription take place in the nucleus, but translation occurs in the cytoplasm. 18. You should know the difference between passive and active transport. No energy is required in passive transport mechanisms. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion are examples of passive transport. Active transport requires energy and includes the sodium-potassium exchange pump. 19. You should know what happens to a cell when is found in an isotonic, hypotonic, or hypertonic solution. 20. The cell cycle consists of a non-dividing phase (interphase) and a dividing phase (mitosis). Interphase includes G0 phase, G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase. A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the S phase. Mitosis includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. A cell aligns its sister chromatids during metaphase. CH4 21. You should know the function of desmosomes and gap junctions. 22. You should know the type of epithelial tissue lining blood vessels and alveoli, stomach and intestines, trachea and bronchi. 23. You should know the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands. Pancreas has exocrine and endocrine functions 24. You should know that tendons and ligaments are dense regular (fibrous) connective tissue. Tendons connect muscle to bone, and that ligaments connect bone to bone. 25. You should know that chondrocytes are found in cartilage, and osteocytes are found in bone. 26. Remember that membranes consist of epithelial tissue and connective tissue. Mucous membranes [line cavities] that communicate to the exterior. CH 5 27. The integumentary system consists of the cutaneous membrane (epidermis and dermis) and associated structures (hair, glands, and nails). You should know the functions of the integumentary system. 28. The epidermis is keratinized. Keratin is a fibrous protein that acts as a sealer to reduce water loss at the skin surface. 29. You should know the function of melanin and the cells that produce it. Remember that melanoma is the rarest type of skin cancer, but it is the most deadly because it has the highest rate of metastasis. 30. You should be able to know the causes of skin dryness, wrinkles, and hematoma. Skin dryness may be caused by a decrease in the function of oil glands. Remember that oil glands lubricate our skin, and this ability is affected as we age. The loss of elastic fibers deep in the dermis is one cause of wrinkles. A hematoma (or a bruise) results from injury to a vessel. 31. You should know the function of the arrector pili muscle. 32. You should know the difference between merocrine (eccrine) and apocrine sweat glands. Merocrine glands are most abundant in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. They help us to cool our body. Apocrine sweat glands are associated with hair, and their secretions are associated with body odor and pheromones. Apocrine sweat glands are found in the armpits, around nipples, in the groin, and around the anus. 33. You should be able to differentiate between first degree, second degree, and third degree burns. Remember, erythema and hyperesthesia with first degree; blisters with second degree; skin graft with third degree. CH 6-8 34. You should be able to differentiate between the parts of a long bone. The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are the epiphyses. The diaphysis is also known as the shaft. The growth plate is called the metaphysis, which is situated between the epiphysis and diaphysis. 35. You should be able to define a foramen, a fossa, and a process. 36. You should be able to differentiate between osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblast lay out the matrix (osteogenesis), and osteoclasts dissolve the matrix (osteolysis). 37. You are expected to differentiate between endochondral and intramembranous ossification. Endochondral ossification begins with a cartilage model, but intramembranous ossification begins with a fibrous connective tissue model. 38. You should know that exercise (especially weight-bearing exercises) stimulates our bones get thicker and stronger. Lack of exercise has the opposite effect. 39. You should know the role of PTH and calcitonin in calcium homeostasis. 40. You should know that scurvy is caused by vitamin C deficiency. Osteomalacia may result from calcium or vitamin D deficiency. A decrease in estrogen levels, particularly after menopause, may cause of osteoporosis. 41. You are expected to know differentiate among the different types of fractures. Please review Colles fracture, Pott's fracture, non-displaced and displaced fractures, and comminuted fractures. CH 9 42. You should be able to differentiate between a synarthrosis, an amphiarthrosis, and a diarthrosis. Synarthroses allow no movement, amphiarthroses allow slight movement, and diarthroses or synovial joints are the weakest of all joints because they are freely movable. 43. You should know the functions of synovial fluid, bursae, and menisci. 44. You are expected to know the functions of the cruciate ligaments of the knee. 45. You should be able to differentiate between sprain, strain, and luxation. 46. You should be familiar with the different types of joints (e.g., hinge, condylar, pivot, and ball-and-socket). Elbow, knee, and ankle joints are classified as hinge (monaxial). Atlanto-occipital and wrist are condylar or ellipsoid (biaxial). Atlanto-axial and proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints are pivot (allow rotation only). Shoulder and hip are ball-and-socket (triaxial). The sterno-clavicular joint allows linear motion or gliding (multiaxial) 47. You should know the descriptions for the different types of movements allowed by a joint. These movements include flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, inversion, dorsiflexion, and plantar flexion. CH 10 48. You should be able to differentiate between the three different types of muscle. 49. The cell (plasma) membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma. The area of the sarcolemma densely populated with receptors for acetylcholine (Ach) is called the motor-end-plate. Release of Ach by the somatic motor neuron is calcium-dependent, and that binding of Ach to receptors at the motor-end-plate increases the permeability of the cell membrane for sodium. Sodium is responsible for raising the resting membrane potential or causing depolarization of the cell membrane. 50. Troponin has three binding sites. Troponin-i binds actin, troponin-t binds tropomyosin, and troponin-c binds calcium. Calcium is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum or its expanded areas (terminal cisternae). Tropomyosin covers the active sites on the actin molecule. 51. Interaction of myosin with actin is responsible for muscle contraction. Creatine phosphate (Cr-P) acts as an energy reserve for skeletal muscle. 52. Rigor mortis is a fixed muscular contraction after death. 53. Testosterone increases protein synthesis and activates myosatellite cells leading to an increase in muscle growth and muscle mass! 54. You should know the location of smooth muscle and the structure and special characteristic of cardiac muscle. CH 11 55. Parallel muscles are mist abundant, but circular muscles (sphincters) guard entrances and exits of internal passageways. 56. You should be able to differentiate between an agonist (prime mover), antagonist, synergist, and fixator. Remember that an agonist is primarily responsible for a given action. 57. You should be able to differentiate between origin and insertion. 58. You should know the muscles of fascial expression and those involved in mastication. The muscles of mastication are the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids. 59. The sternocleidomastoid inserts in the mastoid process. Its action is neck flexion. 60. The major abductor of the arm or shoulder is the deltoid. 61. The pectoralis major is a convergent muscle that allows multiple movements, such as flexion, adduction, and internal rotation at the shoulder. 62. You should know the rectus abdominis compresses the abdomen and flexes the spine. 63. You should know the extensor muscles of the knee or quadriceps (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius). All extend the knee but the rectus femoris also flexes the hip. 64. You should know the action of the iliopsoas and gluteus maximus. The action of the iliopsoas is flexion at the hip. The action of the gluteus maximus is extension and lateral rotation at the hip. 65. You should know the flexors of the knee / extensors of the hip or hamstrings (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus). 66. You should know the tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius are needed for walking. The main action of the tibialis anterior is dorsiflexion, and the main action of the gastrocnemius is plantar flexion. CH 12 67. You should know the [divisions] of the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Remember the somatic nervous system (SNS) controls voluntary activity (skeletal muscle) and the autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls involuntary activity (cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands, and adipose tissue). 68. Sensory neurons have [receptors] (interceptors, exteroceptors, and proprioceptors) that monitor activity. Sensory ([a]fferent) neurons carry information from the PNS to the central nervous system CNS). Motor neurons control [effectors]. Motor ([e]fferent) neurons carry information from the CNS to the PNS! 69. If a peripheral nerve is sectioned (cut), there is [Wallerian degeneration] of the axon distal to the damage. Schwann cells proliferate and form a solid cord that follows the path of the original axon. 70. You should know the type neuroglia in the CNS and PNS. You should also be familiar with their respective functions. Astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells are located in the CNS. Schwann cells and satellite cells are located in the PNS. Astrocytes are the largest and most numerous, they maintain the blood brain barrier and form scar tissue after injury. Microglia are the smallest and least abundant, their main function is phagocytosis. Oligodendrocytes myelinate (insulate) axons of CNS neurons. Ependymal cells line ventricles and central canal of spinal cord. Schwann cells myelinate axons of PNS neurons. Satellite cells have a similar function to astrocytes. 71. [Image below]. You must know what each number seen in the action potential graph for a neuron represents! First, the transmembrane potential for a resting or undisturbed cell is -70 mV. At this point, the cell membrane is **polarized**. ![](media/image2.jpeg) 72. You should know that extracellular calcium is required for release of Ach from synaptic terminals! 73. You should know the difference between **continuous conduction** of an action potential and **saltatory conduction** of an action potential. Saltatory conduction or propagation of an action potential occurs along myelinated axons. The electrical signal (action potential) is said to jump from node to node. The **nodes** are the [unmyelinated] regions of an axon. The **internodes** are the regions of an axon that are [myelinated]. 74. Adrenergic synapses release NE, but cholinergic synapses release Ach! CH 13 75. The brain and spinal cord are protected by the **meninges**. The touch outer meningeal layer is called the **dura mater**. 76. The [spinal cord] extends from the medulla oblongata to about L1-L2. The distal end is called the **conus medullaris**. 77. The ventral rami of C1-C5 form the **cervical plexus**. The ventral rami of C5-T1 forms the **brachial plexus**. The ventral rami of T12-L4 forms the **lumbar plexus**. The ventral rami of L4-S4 forms the **sacral plexus**. 78. The **phrenic nerve** is a peripheral nerve that controls the diaphragm. The phrenic nerve receives contribution from the [cervical] plexus. 79. The **radial**, **median**, **ulnar**, **axillary**, and **musculocutaneous nerves** are peripheral nerves receiving contribution from the [brachial] plexus. 80. The **femoral nerve** is a peripheral nerve that controls the quadriceps. The femoral nerve receives contribution from the [lumbar] plexus. 81. The **sciatic nerve** is a peripheral nerve that controls the hamstring muscles. The sciatic nerve receives contribution from the [sacral] plexus. 82. The withdrawal (flexor) reflex is a polysynaptic and ipsilateral reflex that moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. SEE image below! CH 14 83. You should know the regions of the brain. These include the cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, and brain stem. The brain stem consists of the mesencephalon (midbrain), pons, and medulla oblongata. 84. You should know the function of the medulla oblongata. This part of the brainstem contains **autonomic centers** that controls involuntary functions (include cardiovascular centers and respiratory rhythmicity centers). Has **sensory and motor nuclei of cranial nerves VIII, IX, X, XI, XII**. **Nucleus gracilis and cuneatus** in medulla oblongata relay somatic sensory (ascending tract) and motor information (descending tract). Descending tracts cross over after these nuclei (**decussation of pyramids**). 85. The pons, located in the brain stem, has centers that regulate the respiratory rhythmicity centers in the medulla oblongata. Pneumotaxic and apneustic centers in the pons modify the respiratory rhythmicity centers in the medulla oblongata. Has **sensory and motor nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII.** 86. The mesencephalon or midbrain, located in the brain stem, process visual and auditory information (**corpora quadrigemina -- superior and inferior colliculi**), generates reflexive somatic motor responses, and maintains consciousness. Has **motor nuclei of cranial nerves III and IV**. The **substantia nigra**, located in the [mesencephalon or midbrain], has nuclei that produce dopamine. Lack of dopamine occurs in Parkinson's disease. 87. The thalamus, located in the diencephalon, processes and relays sensory information. Anterior group/nuclei part of the limbic system. Posterior group/nuclei of the thalamus includes the lateral and medial geniculate nuclei (lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual information to the visual cortex in occipital lobe, and the medial geniculate nucleus relays auditory information to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe). 88. The hypothalamus, located in the diencephalon, is the link between the nervous system and endocrine system. **Tuberal nuclei** in hypothalamus regulates anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis). **Supraoptic nuclei** produce antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and **paraventricular nuclei** produces oxytocin. Both ADH and oxytocin are stored in the posterior pituitary gland. [Headquarters] of autonomic activity (sympathetic and parasympathetic centers) for involuntary actions. Preoptic area regulates core temperature (temperature of blood). Body temperature is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit, but blood temperature is 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit. Hunger and thirst centers are in the hypothalamus. Suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates pineal gland. Presence of light inhibits pineal gland from releasing melatonin (dark hormone). 89. You should know the function of the hippocampus. The **hippocampus** is an area in the brain where [memories] are stored. 90. You should know that cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) is made in the ventricles of the brain. The ventricles of the brain include the lateral ventricles, third ventricle, and fourth ventricle. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle via the **interventricular foramen**. The **cerebral aqueduct** links the third ventricle with the fourth. 91. The cranial meninges form the dural folds, which create the dural sinuses. The dural sinuses collect venous blood from the brain and CSF from the arachnoid granulations. 92. The brain is supplied with oxygen and nutrients by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries. 93. You are expected to know the functions of CSF. CSF cushions delicate neural tissues, and serves as a transport medium for nutrients and organic wastes. 94. The cerebellum coordinates movement. Its function is temporary inhibited by alcohol consumption. **Ataxia** is the term used to describe loss of coordination or order. 95. The longitudinal fissure separates the cerebrum into the left and right cerebral hemispheres. Each hemisphere is divided into lobes. The prefrontal cortex, located in the frontal lobe, is responsible for predicting consequences of events. The visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The auditory and gustatory cortex is located in the temporal lobe. The primary sensory cortex is in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. The primary motor cortex is in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. 96. **Commissural fibers** (such as the [corpus callosum]) allows communication between cerebral hemispheres. Projection fibers (such as the internal capsule) allow communication from cerebrum to brain stem. Association fibers (such as longitudinal fasciculi) allow communication between lobes in a cerebral hemisphere. 97. In most people, the left cerebral hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere. It controls writing, reading, and math. It also controls decision making, speech and language. The right cerebral hemisphere relates to senses (touch, smell, sight, taste, or feel). It also relates to recognition of faces and voice inflections. 98. **Brodmann\'s areas** of the cortex refer to 52 regions of the cerebral cortex that were identified in 1909 by German Neurologist, Korbinian Brodmann, based on cytoarchitectonic (cell size, spacing or packing density, and lamination) differences. Area 4 is the primary motor cortex located in the precentral gyrus. Areas 1,2,3 represent the primary sensory area in the post central gyrus. Area 17 is the visual cortex in the occipital lobe. Area 22 (**Wernicke's area**) in the superior temporal gyrus is the area for language comprehension. Area 44 (**Broca's area**) in the frontal lobe is the area for speech. 99. You should know that an electroencephalogram (ECC) is a recording of the electrical activity of the brain. An ECC allows us to study the different patterns of brain waves. It is used to diagnose temporary cerebral disorders like seizures. Beta waves -- adults concentrating or mentally stressed. You need to know what a seizure is. A **seizure** is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, inappropriate behavior, or some combination of these symptoms 100. **Aphasia**, loss in the ability to speak or read, can result from a stroke. Apraxia is the inability to perform a movement or task when asked despite having the desire and physical capability to carry it out.

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