FINAL Block 2.1 Solved PDF

FINAL Block 2.1 Scientific Committee Med222 1- Which one of the following visual acuities might be seen in rehgmatogenous retinal detachment involving the macular? A- 20/20 B- 20/25 C- 20/30 D- Counting fingers 2- Why the 512 hz Tunic fork is tge best frequency for tunick forks? A- Short length...

FINAL Block 2.1 Scientific Committee Med222 1- Which one of the following visual acuities might be seen in rehgmatogenous retinal detachment involving the macular? A- 20/20 B- 20/25 C- 20/30 D- Counting fingers 2- Why the 512 hz Tunic fork is tge best frequency for tunick forks? A- Short length decay B- Compares between air conduction and bone conduction C- Produce Auditory stimuli more than the Vibratory stimuli D- It's available in the labs 3- what is the normle hearing level shwon in PTA (pure tone audiometry) A- Less than 25dB B- More than 40dB C- between 40-55dB D-Exceeding 90dB 4- Acute otitis media if not treated cause complications, which of the following is an extracranial complication? A- Meningitis B- Labyrinthitis C- encephalitis D- temporal lobe abscess 5- In induced noise hearing loss, the cells that are most frequently affected are : A- Outer cells B- Middle cells C- Inner cells D- Crista ampullaris 6- which of the following drug otoxic to the inner ear? A- Aspirin B- Aminoglycosides C- Loop diuretics D- All the above 7- Aids behind the ear A- are implanted hearing aids B- are invisible hearing aids C- can be damaged by earwax or moisture D- adequate gain for mild to profound hearing loss  8-The cochlear implantation is A-The cochlea is resected and replaced by a device B-Indicated in child with pre-lingual hearing loss C-Done in a patient with unilateral profound loss D-in patient with external canal stenosis loss 9- Which one Best describe of the Locus A- Pathogenic DNA sequence B- polymorph in DNA sequences C- The chromosome location of a specific gene. 10- Which of the following choices best describes the term mutation? A- A common DNA variant present in a population B- A site of a particular DNA sequence C- An a alteration in a DNA sequence 11- Point mutation which encodes the amino acid valine rather than glutamic acid would be ? A- Frameshift mutation B- Missense mutation C- Nonsense mutation 12- the degree for the step of separation of amplification cycle in PCR? A-35-65 B-70-75 C-95 13- a candidate gene: A-confirmed to have an allele or alleles causing investigated disease. B-confirmed to have an no allele or no alleles causing investigated disease. C-its characteristics and/or chromosomal location suggests that it has a role in the investigated disease. 14- The AOS technique is suitable in the case of cystic fibrosis (CF) as : A-knowledge of the mutation is not needed to carry put the test B- there are very small number of mutations that cause CF C- the same oligoneucliotide probe can be used for different types of CF mutation D- 25 of most common mutations account for majority of mutations causing CF in the population 15- Mating father has xlinked reccisve disease and homozygous normal mother.pretined there no de novo mutation and no manifestation mutation. Affected daughter will be? A-0% B-25% C-50% D-100% 16- a 60 year old woman presents with neck and shoulder pain, weaknes in right hand, tingling and numbness in fourth and fifth digits. she has decreased sensation in fourth and fifth digits and wekaness in intrinsic hand muscle of the right. which of the following diagnoses is most likely? A- C5 radiculopathy B- C6 radiculopathy C- C7 radiculopathy D- C8 radiculopathy 17- Tract responsible for pain and temperature? A- lateral corticospinal tract B- dorsal column C- Lateral spinothalamic D- Ventral spinothalamic 18-Epley maneuver is the best treatment for: A- BPPV(Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo) B- Vestibular neuritis C- Labyrinthitis D- Meniere’s disease 19-the Electrocochleography with SP/AP ratio result = 0,7 indicates which condition : A- Meniere’s Disease B- Labrynthitis C- Vestibular neuritis D- Otosclerosis 20- the most common semicircular canals affected by Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo ? A- Posterior B- Anterior C- horzintal D- They are all equally affected 21-Vertigo in vestibular neuritis usually lasts for: A- Seconds B- Minutes C- Hours D- Days 22-Which of the following decreases in length during skeletal muscle contraction? A- A band B- I band C- Thick filaments D- Thin filaments 23-Choroid plexus is present at which space? A- Epidural space B- Subdural space C- Subarachnoid space D- Third ventricle 24-which one of the following artery supplies occipital lobe of cerebral cortex? A-Anterior cerebral artery B-Middle cerebral artery C-posterior cerebral artery D-Basilar artery 25-Which of the following arteries participate in the formation of cycle of wills ? A- Anterior cerebral artery B- Middle cerebral artery C- Basiller artery D- Vertebral artery 26-Which of the following nuclei receives input from vestibular apparatus in the inner ear to maintain equilibrium? A- Red nuclei B- Vestibular nuclei C- Pontine reticular nuclei D- Medullary reticular nuclei 27-Which of the following is a sign of lower motor neuron : A- Flaccidity B- Spasticity C- Hypereflexia D-No fasiculation 28- At neuromuscular junction, which of the following considered as acytcholine blocker : A-Curairform B- Diisopropyl fluorophosphate: C- Physostigmine D- Neostigmine 29-During excitation-contraction coupling reaction, excitation of muscle fibers causes release of Ca+ from cisterna of sarcoplasmic reticulam by which of the following channels? A- Ach receptor channel B- rynodinin receptor channel C- SERCA 2 D- voltiage-gated Ca+ channel 30- Which one of the following receptors comprise monosynaptic reflex : A- Patellar reflex B- Golgi tendon reflex C- Planter reflex D- Withdrawal reflex 31- Which one of the following receptors causes withdrawal reflex? A- Baroreceptor B- pain receptor C- Muscle spindles D- Golgi tendon organs 32- The brain is responsible for high order functions such as Judgment ,Planning, Coordination, Analyzing, Thinking Which is responsible for high intellectual functions ? A- Prefrontal cortex B- Premotor cortex C- Somatosensory cortex D- Primary motor cortex 33-Neural connections between the cortical areas of hemispheres which transfer of thoughts, memories, training and required for hemispheres' cooperative work : A- Corpus callosum B- Arcuate fasciculus C- Cuneate tubercle D- Gracile tubercle 34-which of the following refer the to inability of young adult patient to recall information that aquired before geting brian injury? A- Anterograde B- retrograde C- global manesia D- non of the above 35-Conversion of short term memory to long term memory with the help of hippocampus for later recall : A- consolidation B- Encoding C- Retrieval D-Repression 36- A 78 year old man is seen in the office, brought in by nursing home personnel for progressively worsening agitation and other neurological symptoms. You diagnose dementia with lewy bodies. The classic features of typical dementia with lewy bodies are: A- Parkinsonism, Fluctuating cognitive dysfunction and hallucinations B- Progressive memory loss C- Progressive behavioral changes in the form of depression D- Early executive dysfunction 37- Which of the following lesions is represented by thunderclap headache A- Migraine with aura B- Subarachnoid haemorrhage C- Tension-type headaches D- Trigeminal autonomic 38-25 years old Lady her BMI 30 with headache and tinnitus and she use retiunic acid for her acne what is the diagnosis? A- Idiopathic intercranial hypertension (IIH) B- migraine without aura C- ischemic stroke D-tension type headache 40-Elevated intraocular presser that leed to optic nerve damage, which result in visual filed defect : A- Glucoma B- Daibtic retinopathy C- Mocular Edema D- Retnal detachment 41- which of tge following is inability of person to perform rapid alternative movement : A- Ataxia B- Dysmetria C- Dysdidochokinesia 42- Which element of vision affected by glaucoma ? A- visual filed B- central vision C- fixation D- Near response 43- The best treatment option for epithelial keratitis related to varicella Zoster ? A- Topical antibiotics ointment B- Topical and Systemic antibiotic C- Topical antiviral ointment and cream for skin eruption D- Systemic and topical antiviral 44- Where is the corneal stem cell located ? A- Limbus B- Epithelium C- Stroma D- descemet's membrane 45- 76 old male has stroke and severe impaired speech, whats area of brain likely to damage ? a- Primary motor cortex b- Somatosensory area c- Cereballum d- Broca’s area 46- Which area is the most represented in primary motor cortex? A- hands B- Trunk C- Shoulders D- Legs 47- Fibers of corticospinal tract decussate at which of the following structures: A- Medial leminiscus B- Crus cerebri C- Anterior roots D- Medullary pyramids 48- Whatis the range of frequencies in normal old person? A- 30 - 6000 B- 50 -8000 Hz C- 40 - 7000 Hz D- None of the above 49-Which of the following finding of weber's test indicates sensorineural hearing loss? A-Sound symmetric in both ears B-Sound lateralized towards the affected ear C-Sound lateralized towards the normal ear D-None of the above 50- which of the following is the point of entry for sound vibration from middle ear to inner ear? A- round window B- oval window C- tympanic mem D- non 51- Dilation in the end of semicircular canal is called A- Ampulla B- Macula C- Crista ampullaris 52- which of the following parts of inner ear is not involved in maintenance of equilibrium: A- utricle B- saccule C- cochlea D- semicircular duct 53- Which of the following two vertebrae, lumbar puncture (spinal tap) is performed? A- 3rd thoracic, 4th thoracic B- 3rd lumbar, 4th lumbar C- 1st lumbar, 2nd lumbar D- 5th lumbar, sacral 1st 54- Which structure of the eye make the lens more rounded during accommodation? A- Ciliary muscles B- Iris C- Cornea D- Vitreous cavity 55- when the light pass through a concave lens what is the outcome of? A- The rays will converge toward each other B- The rays will diverge away from each other C- The rays will stay in a parallel relationship after passing D- The rays will reflect to a focal point 56- Myopia is corrected by which lens A- convex B- concave C- cylindrical D- Compoun 57- Which of the followings best describes the electric response of the rods to the light ? A- depolarization B- capactivity discharge C- hyperpolarization D- action potential 58- 53 years old woman with celiac disease came complaining of reduced night vision, she has foul smelling stool with high content of partially digested fats, which of the deficiencies is the reason for her difficulty seeing at night? A- Vitamin A B- Free faty acids C- Glucose D- Vitamin B12 59- Which of the following best describe "blind spot" of the eye? A- Located lateral to the central point of vision B- The Exict point of optic nerve C- Contain photorecepror D- Contiain no blood vessels 60- In which structure crossing of the fibers take place from each optic nerve? A- Lateral geniculate body B- Optic chiasm C- Optic radiation D- Medial geniculate body 61- Which muscle is contracted as a part of pupillary light reflex? A- ciliary muscle B- pupillary dilator muscle C- pupillary sphincter muscle D- Radial fibers of the iris 62- Destruction of which structure causes blindness in both temporal visual felid of the eyes? A- Optic nerve B- Geniculate body C- Optic chiasm D- Optic tract 63- Which of the following drugs is used to treatment glaucoma? A- Atropine B- Hyoscine C- Metoclopramide D- Pilocarpine 64- which drug from the following is used to treat dry mouth? A- Adrenaline B- Cevimeline C- Hyoscine D- Tiotropium 65- Which of the following is an indication of atropine use? A- Supeaventricular Tachycardia B- Sinus Bradycardia C- Open angle Glaucoma D- Paralytic ileu 66- Which of the following drugs is used as prophylaxis in motion sickness? A- Hyosin B- Adrenaline C- Propanolol D- Porthione 67- A 55-year-old patient has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness, diplopia, ptosis and dysphagia, Which of the following treatment options used for this disease? A- Acetylcholine B- Atropine C- Pyridostigmine D- Phystogmine 68- Which of the following anti muscarinic drugs correlates with its therapeutic use? A- Benzatropine for myesthenia gravis B- Ipratropium for COPD C- Atropine for diarrhea 69- What it True about muscular dystrophies? A- typically present with Symmetric muscular weakness, mainly distill. B- most likely acquired not inheritance. C- rabidly progressing disease over month D- none of the above 70- All of the following are ataxia autosomal recessive diseases except: A- Fredreich ataxia B- Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 D- Ataxia telangiectasia C- Wilson’s ataxia 71- What is the most common cause of cataract? A- Hereditary B- Trauma C- Diabetic D- Age-related 72-A sign present with cataract : A- Gradual loss of vision B-Sudden loss of vision C- Red eye D-Non of the above 73- Which of the following receptors detect physical or chemical damage occurring in tissue ? A- Thermoreceptors B- Nociceptors C- Chemoreceptors D- Non of the above 74- Transient ischemic attack usually lasts for? A- 2 - 15 mins B- 6 h C- 90 mins D- more than 24 h 75- What is the most common site for cerebral venous thrombosis : A- Superior sagittal sinus B- Inferior sagittal sinus C- Transverse sinus 76- 64 year old male patient presents with right hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, homonymous hemianopsia withe facial weakness. Where do you localize his lesion? A- right middle cerebral artery B- left middle cerebral artery C- right posterior cerebral artery D- basilar artery 77- 55 year old male presented with blurry vision and headache On examination, he has papilloedema What is the next step? A- lumber puncture to measure CSF B- CT scan C- Give anticoagulants D- Refer to a neurologist for venticular shunt 78- Pure sensory stroke is due to damage in which structure ? A- Internal capsule B- Thalamus 79- The typical site of intracranial bleed of hypertensive origin A- Basal ganglia B- frontal lobe C- lateral ventricles D- None of the above 80- Which of the gland have a role in film tear? A- zies gland B- sweat gland C- lacrimal gland D- Sebaceous gland 81- Which of the following covers the conjactive of the sclera? A- Palpebral conjunctiva B- Bulbar conjunctiva C- Conjunctival fornix D- None of the above 82- Purkingi cell Excitated by afferent mossy fiber via ? A- Granular cell B- Molecular C- Purkingi D- None of the ab of the aboveove 83- Cerebral spinal fluid passes to subarachnoid space through which of following structures A- Arachnid villi B- interventricular foramen C- Cerebral aquaduct D- Openings of 4th ventricle 84- From which of the following cuneate nucleus receives the input of proprioception A- Head B- Neck C- Upper limb 85-Which structure decussate in the pyramid of medulla : A- Anterior spinocerebellar B- Anterior corticospinal C- Lateral corticospinal D- Lateral spinothalamic 86- A 60 years old male reported to neurological out patient clinic with complaining of tremors of both hands, and difficulty in walking On examination signs of Parkinson's disease were obvious His MRI showed degenerated changes in some parts of thebrain which confirmed the diagnosis In which of the following parts of the brain these degenerated changes were present? A Pineal gland B Pre-central gyrus C Substantia Nigra D Thalamus 87- Which of the following structures immediately medial to the head of caudate nucleus as seen in transverse section of the cerebral hemispheres? A- Anterior limb of internal capsule B- Anterior horn of lateral ventricles C- Posterior limb of internal capsule D-Thalamus 88- Which of the following tracts passes through middle peduncle : A- Anterior spinocerebellar B- Posterior spinocerebellar C- Cortico-ponto-cerebellar D- Olivocerebellar 89- Which part of brain contain the thalamus A- Diencephalon B- Hind brain C- Cerebral hemisphere D- Mesencephalon 90-In which part of anterior medulla the lateral corticospinal will pass through : A-Gracilis B- Pyramid C- Olive D- Cunate 91- A rider fell was conscious but couldn’t since his legs, after CT it was found that he has a fracture in the 9th vertebrae, which segment corresponds to it? A- 9th thoracic B- 10th thoracic C- 11th thoracic D- 12th thoracic 92- Which part of vestibular system control the movement of eyes when head rotate suddenly ? A- Utricle B- Saccule C- Semicircular canals 93- Which of the following nuclei are present in grey matter of the spinal cord that sense of pain and temperature ? A- Nucleus proprius B- substantia gelatinosa C- nucleus dorsalis D- Anterior horn cells 94- Which of the following tract is present in the lateral column of the white matter? A- anterior spinocerebellar B- anterior corticospinal C- vestibolspinal D- tectospinal 95- which of the following structures responsible for change of the shape of lens A- Cornea B- Conjunctiva C- Cilirary body D- Channel of schlemm 96- Aqueous humor is produced by which of the following parts of the eyeball? A- Anterior chamber B- Conjunctival sac C- Posterior chamber D- Vitreou 97- Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by C fibers in slow pain sensations? A- Serotonin B- Dopamine C- Substance P D- Arginine 98- Which of the following describes the type of pain that is felt at an area distant from its origin? A- Referred pain B- Psychogenic pain C- Neuropathic pain 99- Which of the following contents of middle ear cavity causes amplification of vibration? A- Ear ossicles B- Tensor Tympani C- Tympanic Membrane D- Stapedius 100- which on of the following sensations will be provided by cristae ampullaris receptors? A- Equilibrium and balance B- Gravity and linear acceleration C- Rotational motion D- Hearing  BEST OF LUCK FUTURE DOCTORS SCIENTIFIC COMMITTEE MED222