Summary

This document contains a set of questions and answers for a nursing exam. The questions cover topics relating to cardiac disorders and cover the relevant treatments and symptoms. It's likely a study guide or practice exam.

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is 4 monitor now or am I Lt sided HE 3 on 4 3 a 3 d Lowing a 4 MEALY y ÉE NUR 354...

is 4 monitor now or am I Lt sided HE 3 on 4 3 a 3 d Lowing a 4 MEALY y ÉE NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 1. What is ASCVD? Atherosclerotic cardiovas- cular disease Used to determine if a pa- tient needs a statin and whether it's a low, medium, or high dose 2. List four antiplatelets: 1. Aspirin 2. Ticagrelor 3. Clopidogril 4. Tirofiban 3. What is patient education for someone diag- o Reduce weight nosed with hyperlipidemia? o Increase exercise o Reduce consumption of saturated fats 4. A patient is diagnosed with hyperlipidemia a. You should take your and is prescribed medication. Which of the medication at bedtime following education is correct? (SATA) a. You should take your medication at bed- d. You should work on diet time and exercise to improve b. You will need to take this medication until your heart health your LDL is below 100mg/Dl c. You need to reduce your salt and caffeine e. You will need your labs intake to lower your cholesterol checked regularly d. You should work on diet and exercise to improve your heart health e. You will need your labs checked regularly 5. What medications can be given to improve o Amrinone cardiac contractility? o Milrinone o Dobutamine o Digoxin 6. What do the terms inotropic and contractility Makes the heart beat harder mean? and stronger 1/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 7. What are four classes of antiarrhythmics? Class I: Sodium Channel Blockers Class II: Beta Blockers Class III: Potassium Chan- nel Blockers Class IV: Calcium Channel Blockers 8. What is adenosine used to treat? a high heart rate (SVT) it lowers your heart rate 9. What is common in the MOA of all antiar- All slow down the heart rate rhythmics? 10. With what two diseases do we worry most Kidney disease and Heart about fluid overload? Failure 11. Why do all patients with atrial fibrillation need To prevent clots to be on an anticoagulant? 12. Reversal agent for warfarin Vitamin K 13. Reversal agent for Heparin Protamine sulfate 14. Reversal agent for Rivaroxaban Andexanet alfa 15. Reversal agent for Dabigatran Idarucizumab 16. Reversal agent for Antiplatelets (all) Platelets 17. Reversal agent for Anticoagulants (all) Plasma 18. List the black box warning for amiodarone: o Pro-arrhythmic effects o Pulmonary Toxicity o Hepatoxicity 19. What is the formula for cardiac output? Stroke Volume x Heart Rate 2/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 20. What drug(s) is only used to treat heart fail- Digoxin ure and dysrhythmias and nothing else? 21. What is preload? Is this better to be high or o The volume returning to low? the heart o Depends on the situation - if I increase preload, I in- crease cardiac output. If I decrease it, I decrease the workload of the heart. 22. What is aferload? Is this better to be high to o How tight/constricted the low? aorta is; the pressure the heart has to pump against o Depends - If pt has really low blood pressure and you increased after- load their blood pressure in- creases, but if pt has heart failure it is better for it to be low 23. What two medications this module would you o Betablockers assess for signs of respiratory infection? o Amiodarone o Clopidogril 24. What are the non-pharm interventions for Restrict salt and fluid intake heart failure? 25. What are the indications for beta blockers? o Anxiety (List as many as you can) o PTSD o Generalized Anxiety Dis- order o Angina o MI o Hypertension o Heart Failure o Serotonin Syndrome o Dysrhythmias 3/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 26. What are three types of beta blockers? 1. Non-Selective - Propra- nolol 2. Cardio Selective - Torpro- lol 3. Cardio Selective with va- sodilator effects 27. What is the difference between anticoagulant platelets are everywhere, and an anti platelet? they are there first to stop the bleeding and then coag- ulant completely stops it 28. What is an OTC antiplatelet? Aspirin 29. What is the patient education for someone Bleeding Precautions receiving an anticoagulant or anti platelet? o Don't use hard bristle toothbrush o Don't use a non electric razor Signs of Bleeding o Bleeding gums o Petechiae o Bruising o Hematoma 30. What is the role of heparin in someone having Prevent further damage and an MI? prevent further clots 31. What labs are monitored for a patient taking PT and INR warfarin? 32. What are the indications for alteplase? o Stroke o CVA o Heart attack o MI o PE 33. What drug requires assessment of the apical Digoxin pulse prior to administration? 4/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 34. With what drugs should the nurse hold the a. Amiodarone medication if the patient is bradycardic? (SATA) c. Labetalol a. Amiodarone b. Lisinopril e. Verapamil c. Labetalol d. Argatroban h. Digoxin e. Verapamil f. Heparin g. Amiodarone h. Digoxin i. Nitroglycerin 35. What would you teach a new nurse is re- o Recent trauma quired in regards to safely administering o Recent surgery TPA? o Recent stroke o Uncontrolled hypertension 36. What is an example of the first line drug class Statins (HMG-CoA reduc- used for hyperlipidemia? tase inhibitors) 37. What are foods high in vitamin k? Broccoli (and other green leafy veg- gies) 38. What is an adverse effect of Ezetimibe? Nasopharyngitis 39. Which monoclonal antibody is used to treat PCSK9 Inhibitors high LDL? o Alirocumab What is the goal in treatment with this med- o Evolocumab ication? Lower your LDL 40. What is the target level for Total cholesterol ? Under 200 41. What is the target level for Low-density Under 100 lipoprotein? 42. What is the target level for Triglycerides? Under 150 5/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 43. What is the target level for High-density Over 50 in females and Over lipoprotein? 40 in males 44. What drug this module is known to interact Warfarin with tons of other medications? 45. Why are fact 10a inhibitors preferred over o Doesn't need constant lab other DOACs? monitoring o Has less drug interactions o Can just be stopped 2-3 days before surgery 46. What are the most common SE/AE a nurse Muscle aches would assess for in a patient prescribed a statin? 47. What are the six rights of medication admin- 1. Dose istration? 2. Drug 3. Documentation 4. Patient 5. Route 6. Time 48. What percentage of the blood the LV holds, is o Roughly 55%-70% squeezed out with each contraction? What is this called? o Ejection Fraction 49. What diagnosis is nitro used for this module? Heart failure 50. What is the threshold for a hypertensive 180/120 emergency? 51. Which antirrhythmics also lower your blood Class II: Beta Blockers pressure? Class IV: Calcium Channel Blockers 52. What must the nurse assess prior to provid- Readiness to learn ing patient education? 53. 6/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg Right upper quadrant pain is most likely to a. Amiodarone (hepatotoxic- be associated with which of the following? ity) (SATA) b. Gemfibrozil (gallstones) a. Amiodarone b. Gemfibrozil c. Digoxin d. Lisinopril e. Apixaban 54. What drug classes this module are terato- o Amiodarone genic? o Warfarin o Statins 55. What drugs in this module are parenterally o Heparin only? o Enoxaparin o Tirofiban 56. What is bruising a sign of? Bleeding 57. Which anti platelets are given via the IV c. Tirofabin route? a. Aspirin b. Clopidigral c. Tirofabin d. All of the above e. None of the above 58. What labs are monitored for a patient tasking o aPTT heparin? o PTT 59. What is the black box warning for lidocaine? No BBW AE: CNS effects (confusion, altered mental status, blurry vision, paresthesia, numb- ness, tingling) 60. What drug has the longest half life this mod- Amiodarone (50 days/sever- ule? al months) 7/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 61. What drug has the shortest half life this mod- Adenosine ule? 62. What is Ezetimibe used for? o Hyperlipidemia 63. What are HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors o Hyperlipidemia and Pre- used for? vention of Cardiovascular disease 64. Which two CCBs are used for dysrhythmias? o Verapamil Diltiazem 65. Antibiotics often interact with with medica- Warfarin tion from this module? 66. What is the black box warning for beta block- Do not stop abruptly ers? 67. Explain the nurses understanding of o If patient is in shock, they changes in urine output in relation to the will have decreased urine patients overall cardiovascular status? output o If the patient's cardiovas- cular status improved, they will have an increase urine output 68. What drugs cause headaches and orthostatic Vasodilators hypotension? o Hydralazine o Nitro 69. Drugs given to a patient in severe shock are o Beta 1 most likely to affect which two adrenergic o Alpha 1 receptors? 70. What vital sign would be the highest priority Blood pressure to monitor for a patient in shock? 71. What medication this module should be tak- Gemfibrizol en with food? 8/9 NUR 354 - EXAM 3 Study online at https://quizlet.com/_e31dsg 72. What electrolyte does digoxin impact? Potassium 73. What is the starting pharmaceutical treat- HMG-CoA reductase in- ment for most patients with hyperlipidemia? hibitors (Statins) o Atorvastatin o Rosuvastatin o Simvastatin 74. What number on a lipid panel do you want to HDL be elevated? 75. What affect does a high after load have on it decreases stroke volume? 76. Are oral anticoagulants and oral anti platelets NONE available via IV? 77. When should a nurse assess for polyuria? o Diabetes o Kidney issues o Heart issues o If they're receiving fluids 78. What diseases are closely related to CVD? o MI o Stroke o CVA 79. What is isosorbide dinitrate used for? o Heart failure What is it usually given with? o Given with hydralazine 80. What should be given at 20mg/min? Furosemide 81. Can lifestyle modifications help a patient Yes! avoid medications for HLD? but in most cases they will be on meds for the rest of their lives 9/9

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